LABORATORY P1 Flashcards
(137 cards)
1
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Patients with fragile veins may need to have blood drawn using a syringe because the stronger vacuum of the evacuated tube may collapse
the vein.
A
TRUE
2
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
According to OSHA’s BBP standard, gloves must be worn during
phlebotomy procedures.
A
TRUE
3
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
To avoid mislabeling errors, label tubes before leaving the bedside or
dismissing the patient
A
TRUE
4
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Blood group A individuals have B antigens on RBCs and anti-B
antibodies in serum.
A
FALSE
5
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Serum is blood plasma minus the clotting proteins
A
TRUE
6
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Type O has neither A or B Ags
A
TRUE
7
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Type O has neither A or B Ags
A
TRUE
8
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
The MBL pathway of complement activation is activated when MBL
binds to certain sugars found in cell walls and membranes of bacteria,
yeasts, and some parasites
A
TRUE
9
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Cytokines regulate growth and differentiation of immune system
effector cells, and also have many effects hence are not pleotropic
A
TRUE
10
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
IgE is rimary protective antibody in secretions and intestinal
mucosa.
A
false
11
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Lipids make good immunogens because of their complexity.
A
false
12
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
All immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens
A
true
13
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Affinity is the force between a one-Fab site on the immunoglobulin
and one epitope of the antigen.
A
false
14
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Zone of equivalence is the area where antigen and antibody are approximately equal and visualization of the reaction is optimized by
either precipitation or agglutination
A
false
15
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
RF factor is not specific for RA.
A
true
16
Q
The following are correct ways to do for a lab scientist during a
phlebotomy procedure, except;
a. name, DOB, and MR number must be verified and matched to the
test order and inpatient’s ID band
b. ensuring the safety of the phlebotomist first
c. asking for the complete name of the patient
d. verifying if patient is sensitive to latex
e. all of the above
A
b. ensuring the safety of the phlebotomist first
16
Q
The vein of choice for venipuncture is?
a. Basilic
b. Cephalic
c. Brachial
d. Superficial palmar
e. None of the choices
A
b. Cephalic
16
Q
A tourniquet placed _______ above the antecubital area enlarges
veins and makes them easier to see, feel, and enter with a needle.
a. 3-4 inches
b. 1 inch only
c. 5-7 inches
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
A
a. 3-4 inches
16
Q
. Letting the venipuncture site dry naturally can give the following
benefits;
a. permits maximum antiseptic action
b. prevents contamination caused by wiping
c. avoids stinging on needle entry
d. prevents specimen hemolysis from residual alcohol
e. all of the choices
A
e. all of the choices
17
Q
According to CLSI Standard H3-A5, the tourniquet should be
released as soon as possible after blood begins to flow and should not be
left on longer than __________.
a. 1 second
b. 5 minutes
c. 11 seconds
d. 1 minute
e. 10 minutes
A
d. 1 minute
18
Q
For accurate results, some blood specimens require special handling
such as the following, which is improperly matched?
a. cooling in crushed ice (e.g., ammonia)
b. transportation at body temperature (e.g., cold agglutinin)
c. protection from light (e.g., bilirubin)
d. all of the choices
e. none of the choices
A
e. none of the choices
19
Q
You as the Med Tech phlebotomist, should notify the patient’s nurse
or physician, when the venipuncture bleeding persists beyond
____________.
a. 1 minute
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 30 minutes
e. None of the choices
A
b. 5 minutes
20
Q
They propel cylindrical containers through networks of tubes by
compressed air or by partial vacuum in the hospital.
a. Pneumatic tube system
b. Manual sample delivery
c. Sample courier delivery
d. All of the choices
e. None of the choices
A
a. Pneumatic tube system
21
Q
What is phlebotomy?
a. A trained professional in blood drawing
b. The legal standards for a person who performs blood-drawing
skills
c. The process of drawing blood
d. All of the above.
A
c. The process of drawing blood
22
What is a phlebotomist?
a. A trained professional in blood drawing
b. The legal standards for a person who performs blood-drawing
skills
c. The process of drawing blood
d. All of the above.
a. A trained professional in blood drawing
23
All of the following are true about laboratory safety except:
a. you may store food in the laboratory refrigerator.
b. protect your feet from spills.
c. always wear required personal protection equipment.
d. All of the above are correct
a. you may store food in the laboratory refrigerator.
24
Which of the following personal protection equipment must a
phlebotomist use when performing a skin puncture or venipuncture?
a. Goggles
b. Gloves
c. A mask
d. Caps and booties
b. Gloves
25
Which of the following would be a reason for rejection of a
specimen by the laboratory?
a. The patient’s name, date of birth, and the date and time are written on
the label and
requisition slip.
b. A specimen containing an additive has been inverted.
c. An ESR has been collected in a red-topped tube.
d. All of the above are reasons for rejections.
c. An ESR has been collected in a red-topped tube.
26
The quality of the test result best depends on:
a. the type of specimen.
b. the source of the specimen.
c. the time between collecting the specimen and analyzing the specimen.
d. whether the sample is going to be analyzed for glucose or phosphate.
e. all of the choices
e. all of the choices
27
A specimen may be rejected by the laboratory if:
a. the tube was not initialed.
b. the blood is hemolyzed.
c. the tube was not transported properly.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
28
Transport bags have a separate compartment (pouch) for requisitions
to:
a. safeguard the requisition.
b. keep the specimen from getting lost.
c. prevent contamination if the specimen leaks.
d. ensure the requisition goes to central receiving and the specimen to
the processing laboratory.
e. none of the choices
d. ensure the requisition goes to central receiving and the specimen to
the processing laboratory.
29
is the most important first step in phlebotomy and
other testing procedures.
a. Proper patient identification
b. Proper hand washing
c. Proper specimen handling
d. Collecting sufficient blood
e. Proper MedTech introduction
a. Proper patient identification
30
Acceptable method(s) of identifying a patient include:
a. ask the patient to give his or her name and DOB.
b. check the patient’s ID band.
c. ask the patient to present a photo ID.
d. All of the above are acceptable.
e. none of the first three choices
d. All of the above are acceptable.
31
When an admitted patient is not wearing an ID band, the
phlebotomist must:
a. ask the patient for a picture ID.
b. not draw blood from this patient.
c. question the patient and confirm the date of birth.
d. not draw blood until nursing has placed an ID band on the patient.
e. none of the choices
d. not draw blood until nursing has placed an ID band on the patient.
31
Most tubes containing additives should be inverted:
a. once.
b. three times.
c. five to eight times.
d. tubes containing additives should not be inverted.
e. it depends on the additive present
c. five to eight times
32
The lavender-topped tube contains:
a. no additive.
b. heparin.
c. SPS or ACD.
d. EDTA.
d. EDTA.
33
The yellow-topped tube contains:
a. no additive.
b. heparin.
c. SPS or ACD.
d. EDTA.
e. none of the choices
c. SPS or ACD.
34
Blood for serology testing should be drawn in a:
a. red-topped tube.
b. lavender-topped tube.
c. gray-topped tube.
d. all tubes with splash guards.
e. none of the choices
b. lavender-topped tube.
34
The glass red-topped tube contains:
a. no additive.
b. heparin.
c. SPS or ACD.
d. EDTA.
e. none of the choices
a. no additive.
35
Why should a glass red-topped tube be drawn before a green-topped
tube?
a. Additives in the red-topped tube will not interfere with the tests
performed on the
green-topped tube.
b. Red-topped tubes are always the first tube drawn.
c. Since there are no additives in the red topped tube, it cannot
contaminate the green-topped
tube.
d. Green-topped tubes are always the last tube drawn.
e. none of the choices
c. Since there are no additives in the red topped tube, it cannot
contaminate the green-topped
tube.
35
Which of the following tubes yield(s) a serum specimen?
a. Red-topped tube
b. Lavender-topped tube
c. Gray-topped tube
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
a. Red-topped tube
36
When labeling tubes, all of the following information must be
placed on them except the:
a. patient’s name.
b. date.
c. time of draw.
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
e. none of the choices
37
Which of the following is not needed for a routine phlebotomy
procedure?
a. Gloves
b. Tourniquet
c. Alcohol
d. Iodine
e. none of the choices
d. Iodine
38
When a tourniquet is left on too tight, capillaries may rupture,
causing:
a. a rash.
b. pain.
c. urticaria.
d. petechiae.
e. none of the choices
d. petechiae
39
Which of the following is true when using a tourniquet during a
phlebotomy procedure?
a. Never tie a tourniquet on open sores.
b. Tying a tourniquet too tightly can cause petechiae.
c. Leaving a tourniquet on too long can cause hemoconcentration.
d. All of the above are true.
e. none of the choices
d. All of the above are true.
40
A phlebotomist must inspect the needle for:
a. burrs.
b. expiration date.
c. bevel facing up.
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
a. burrs.
41
Which of the following is the smallest needle?
a. 18 gauge
b. 19 gauge
c. 20 gauge
d. 21 gauge
e. 27 gauge
e. 27 gauge
42
A butterfly needle should be used:
a. for patients with sclerosed veins and one tube being drawn.
b. on adults’ dorsal and metacarpal veins.
c. on pediatric and geriatric patients.
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
c. on pediatric and geriatric patients.
42
The proper way to dispose of a needle is to:
a. recap it and put it into a sharps container.
b. throw it recapped into a biohazard bag.
c. put it into a sharps container, after activating needle safety device,
immediately after withdrawing
it from a patient.
d. collect it in a cup and dispose of it later.
e. none of the choices
c. put it into a sharps container, after activating needle safety device,
immediately after withdrawing
42
A tube holder is used to connect needle and evacuated tube to:
a. prevent contact between the needle and tube.
b. ensure a firm, stable connection between them.
c. keep blood from entering the adapter.
d. allow a syringe to be used.
e. none of the choices
b. ensure a firm, stable connection between them.
42
Which of the following are correct for ending the phlebotomy
procedure?
a. Remove the needle, remove the tube, and remove the tourniquet.
b. Remove the tourniquet, apply pressure, remove the needle, and
discard the needle in the sharps container.
c. Remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, place gauze, remove the
needle, apply pressure, and discard the needle in the sharps container.
d. Remove the needle, apply pressure, and discard the needle in a
biohazard bag.
e. all of the choices
c. Remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, place gauze, remove the
needle, apply pressure, and discard the needle in the sharps container.
43
In making a site selection, the phlebotomist should consider which
of the following before a
venipuncture?
a. Scars or burns
b. Edema
c. Mastectomy
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
d. All of the above.
44
The area you are drawing blood from begins to swell and fill with
blood. This is a common complication
occurring in phlebotomy known as:
a. convulsions.
b. short draw.
c. hypovolemia.
d. hematoma.
e. none of the choices
d. hematoma
45
A tourniquet that has been left on too long can cause any of the
following:
a. petechiae.
b. hemolysis.
c. hemoconcentration.
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
d. All of the above
46
What should a phlebotomist do first if a patient has syncope during a
phlebotomy procedure?
a. Go quickly for help
b. Apply a cold compress
c. Remove the needle and tourniquet, and apply pressure
d. Attempt to wake the patient by speaking loudly
c. Remove the needle and tourniquet, and apply pressure
47
Blood that has seeped from a vein into tissue is called:
a. hemoconcentration.
b. hematoma.
c. petechiae.
d. short draw
e. all of the choices
b. hematoma.
48
Which of the following complications may occur if the phlebotomist
punctures a bone?
a. Hematoma
b. Hemoconcentration
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Osteomyelitis
e. Osteosarcoma
d. Osteomyelitis
49
Veins that are hard and cordlike are called:
a. thrombosed.
b. sclerosed.
c. collapsed.
d. tortuous.
e. none of the choices
b. sclerosed.
50
The term that means the rupturing of red blood cells is:
a. hemostasis.
b. hemoglobin.
c. hemolysis.
d. hematoma
c. hemolysis.
50
A hematoma can be prevented if:
a. pressure is applied on the vein until bleeding stops completely.
b. a bandage is immediately placed on the vein.
c. the needle is removed before the tourniquet is released.
d. All of the above.
e. none of the choices
d. All of the above.
51
Improper cleansing of a venipuncture site can cause:
a. hematoma.
b. infection.
c. petechiae.
d. it won’t cause anything
e. all of the choices
b. infection.
52
Veins carry:
a. deoxygenated blood away from the heart.
b. oxygenated blood away from the heart.
c. blood back to the heart.
d. All of the above.
c. blood back to the heart.
53
While processing a specimen, the phlebotomist accidently spills a tube of blood on the table. The phlebotomist should:
a. disinfect the contaminated area with 10% bleach.
b. allow bleach to remain in contact with contaminated area for 20 minutes.
c. clean up visible blood first.
d. All of the above
e. none of the above
d. All of the above
54
The phlebotomist has an order for a blood draw on his father who is
in the hospital. The phlebotomist can identify his father by
a. greeting and acknowledging the patient as “Dad.”
b. greeting and acknowledging the patient by first and last name.
c. asking the patient to state his first and last name.
d. asking the patient to state his complete name and checking the
requisition against the patient’s armband
e. none of the choices
d. asking the patient to state his complete name and checking the
requisition against the patient’s armband
55
Why is it important that the patient see the phlebotomist wash his or
her hands before and
after the draw?
a. So the patient is assured that infection control policies are being
followed
b. To ensure that the laboratory achieves high marks on the patient
satisfaction surveys
c. So the phlebotomist does not get reported to the director of nursing
and laboratory supervisor
d. To prevent compromising glove fit and glove integrity during the
venipuncture procedure
e. none of the choices
a. So the patient is assured that infection control policies are being
followed
56
The two major types of phagocytes are
a. Monocytes and NK cells
b. Erythrocytes and neutrophils
c. neutrophils and macrophages
d. eosinophils and dendritic cells
e. basophils and lymphocytes
c. neutrophils and macrophage
57
The following are fixed macrophages, except;
a. histiocytes (connective tissue macrophages)
b. stellate reticuloendothelial cells (Kupffer cells) in the liver
c. alveolar macrophages in the lungs
d. microglia in the nervous system
e. none of the choices
e. none of the choices
58
The attachment of the phagocyte to the microbe or other foreign
material is termed as?
a. Chemotaxis
b. Adherence
c. Ingestion
d. Digestion
e. Killing
b. Adherence
59
Phagocytes produce lethal oxidants during the oxidative burst which
includes the following, except;
a. Superoxide anion (O2-)
b. Hypochlorite anion (OCl-)
c. hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
d. hydroxyl radicals
e. ammonium oxide
e. ammonium oxide
60
During phagocytosis, the _________ contributes lysozyme, which
breaks down microbial cell walls, and other digestive enzymes that
degrade carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
a. phagolysosome
b. lysosome
c. phagosome
d. inflammasome
e. all of the choices
b. lysosome
61
What immune cell is the first to arrive at the site of injury to start
cleaning up?
a. lymphocytes
b. NK cells
c. macrophages
d. dendritic cells
e. neutrophils
e. neutrophils
62
The ABO blood group system was first discovered by
________________ in 1900.
a. Kendall Jenner
b. Karl Landsteiner
c. Elie Metchnikoff
d. Edward Jenner
e. James Burnett
b. Karl Landsteiner
63
The typing sera used in slide agglutination tests for blood typing are
that of the ____ class of immunoglobulins.
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgE
c. IgM
63
The second most important blood group in humans is the ___blood
group system.
a. Rh
b. ABO
c. Duffy
d. Kidd
e. Sciana
a. Rh
64
Which of the following is the most efficient in agglutination
reactions?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
c. IgM
65
The ABO blood group antigens are found in the ___________ of
erythrocytes.
a. Nuclei
b. Cytosol
c. Transmembrane
d. Cell surfaces
e. Smooth endoplasmic reticula
d. Cell surfaces
66
When performing the slide agglutination for direct blood typing,
which of the following sentences is incorrect?
a. Be careful not to accidentally touch the blood drop with that of the
antiserum.
b. Add the blood drop first before adding the reagent typing sera.
c. Observe for the presence of agglutination in the form of fine red
granules within 30 seconds.
d. Do not add the reagent over the blood drop on the slide to ensure
proper mixing
e. None of the above
b. Add the blood drop first before adding the reagent typing sera.
67
When performing the slide agglutination for direct blood typing, if
agglutination is observed when blood is mixed with Anti A and Anti B
reagent, then the individual is said to have blood group ___.
a. “O”
b. “AB+ “
c. AB
d. “A”
e. “B+
c. “AB”
68
When performing the slide agglutination for direct blood typing, if no
agglutination is observed when blood is mixed with Anti A and Anti B
reagent, then the individual is said to have blood group ___.
a. “O”
b. “AB+ “
c. “AB”
d. “A”
e. “B+”
a. “O”
69
When performing the slide agglutination for the forward blood
typing, if agglutination is observed when blood is mixed with Anti RhD
reagent, then the individual is said to have ____.
a. (-) Rh factor
b. (+) Rh factor
c. “O” blood group
d. “AB” blood group
e. “O” + blood group
b. (+) Rh factor
70
Inert particles such as________________have a net negative surface
charge called the zeta potential.
a. whole bacterial cells
b. Erythrocytes
c. Latex beads
d. All of the choices
e. None of the choices
c. Latex beads
71
It is the process whereby specific antigens (e.g., red blood cells)
aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific
antibody is present in the serum.
a. Precipitation
b. Agglutination
c. Flocculation
d. Sedimentation
e. Sensitization
b. Agglutination
71
Antibodies that produce agglutination reactions are often called
a. Hybridoma
b. Polyclonal Abs
c. Agglutinins
d. Autoantibodies
e. Immunoglobulins
c. Agglutinins
72
The second stage of agglutination, representing the sum of
interactions between antibody and multiple antigenic determinants on a
particle, and is dependent on environmental conditions and the relative
concentrations of antigen and antibody is known as?
a. The antigen–antibody combination through single antigenic
determinants
b. Sensitization
c. Lattice formation
d. None of the choices
c. Lattice formation
73
The temperature at which the antigen–antibody reaction takes place
must also be considered, because it has an influence on the secondary,
or aggregation, phase. Which of the statements below is false?
a. Antibodies belonging to the IgG class agglutinate best at 30°C to
37°C.
b. Because naturally occurring antibodies against the ABO blood
groups belong to the IgM class, these reactions are best run at room
temperature.
c. IgM antibodies react best at temperatures between 4°C and 27°C.
d. Most reactions produce optimal antigen–antibody combination
when the pH is between 6.5 and 7.5
e. None of the choice
c. IgM antibodies react best at temperatures between 4°C and 27°C.
74
occurs when antigens are found naturally on a particle
a. Direct agglutination
b. Reverse passive agglutination
c. Agglutination inhibition
d. Coagglutination
e. Hemagglutination
a. Direct agglutination
75
The ABO blood group system is used to categorize human blood. In
this blood group system, glycolipid Ags appear on the surface of red
cells. These Ags are the
a. A, B, and O Ags
b. A and B Ags
c. AB and O Ags
d. A, B, and Rh Ags
e. None of the choices
a. A, B, and O Ags
75
Type AB blood plasma has
a. Both anti - A and anti - B Abs
b. Anti - B Abs
c. Anti - A Abs
d. Neither anti - A and anti - B Abs
e. None of the choices
d. Neither anti - A and anti - B Abs
75
People with type AB blood are called as the universal recipients
because they
a. can receive blood from donors of all four blood types
b. do not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their blood plasma
c. have both A and B agglutinogens on their RBCs
d. all of the choices
c. have both A and B agglutinogens on their RBC
75
Consider what happens if a person with type A blood receives a
transfusion of type B blood. Which of the statements below is not
applicable?
a. the anti-B antibodies in the recipient’s plasma can bind to the B
antigens on the donor’s erythrocytes, causing agglutination and
hemolysis of the red blood cells
b. the anti-A antibodies in the donor’s plasma can bind to the A
antigens on the recipient’s red blood cells
c. The recipient’s blood (type A) contains A antigens on the red blood
cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
d. The donor’s blood (type B) contains B antigens and anti-A
antibodies.
e. None of the choices
b. the anti-A antibodies in the donor’s plasma can bind to the A
antigens on the recipient’s red blood cells
76
People with type ____ blood have neither A nor B antigens on their
RBCs and are sometimes called
universal donors because theoretically they can donate blood to all four
ABO blood types.
a. “O”
b. “AB+ “
c. “AB”
d. “A”
e. “B+”
a. “O”
77
Complement is an important component of the innate immune
system, and consists of about 25 proteins that are produced via the
a. Nephrons of the kidneys
b. Neurons of the CNS
c. Hepatocytes of the liver
d. Lymphocytes of the immune system
e. Monocytes in the general circulation
c. Hepatocytes of the liver
77
Complement functions include:
a. MAC formation
b. Opsonization
c. Inflammation
d. All the above
d. All the above
78
The known pathways of complement activation include the
following, except
a. alternative
b. classical
c. MBL
d. Traditional
e. None of the choices
d. Traditional
78
True regarding the complement, except
a. Classical pathway of complement activation is activated by
antigen–antibody complexes.
b. Series of proteins that result in lysis of foreign particles,
particularly bacteria, when inactivated
c. The alternative pathway of complement activation is triggered by
polysaccharide components of bacterial cell walls, parasites, fungi,
tumor cells, viruses, yeast
d. C9 binds and stabilizes complex, leading to larger pore and
ultimately cell lysis.
e. None of the choices
e. None of the choices
78
Dilution in clinical laboratories can be prepared by using:
a. The C1V1 = C2V2 method.
b. Serial dilution.
c. The dilution factor method.
d. Any of the above methods.
d. Any of the above methods.
79
in a serial dilution
a. two-fold and ten-fold dilutions are commonly used to titer
antibodies or prepare diluted analytes
b. the dilution factor remains the same in each succeeding tube
c. a step-wise and geometric series of dilutions which starts with a
small amount of starting material and amplifies the dilution factor
serially by using diluted material as a source for subsequent
dilutions is done
d. antibody titers can be derived
e. all of the choices
e. all of the choices
80
3. In an 8-step 10-fold dilution, how many tubes will you prepare?
a. 7 tubes
b. 10 tubes
c. 8 tubes
d. 9 tubes
e. Separate 7 tubes then plus 10 tubes
c. 8 tubes
81
in lab exe. No. 10 serial dilution, the Ab titer is, except
a. defined as the reciprocal of the last tube in which there is a (-)
reaction seen
b. defined as the reciprocal of the last tube in which there is a (+)
reaction seen
c. reported to be ± one tube
d. is the last tube in which visible agglutination can be discerned
e. none of the choices
b. defined as the reciprocal of the last tube in which there is a (+)
81
In preparing a 4% type A RBC suspension, what is the volume of the
washed RBC will you add to a 15mL NSS as the diluent?
a. 480 uL
b. 48 mL
c. 60 uL
d. 600 uL
e. 0.0006 mL
e. 0.0006 mL
81
The serial dilution method was first described in 1883 by German
scientist physician
a. Edward Jenner
b. Robert Koch
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Robert A. Good
e. none of the choices
b. Robert Koch
82
The applications of serial dilution is exemplified in which of the
following;
a. In microbiology to estimate the number of microorganisms in a
sample
b. In pharmacology to determine the required concentration of a drug
compound
c. In serology to derive the antibody titers
d. In quantifying nucleic acids
e. All of the choices
e. All of the choices
83
true of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), except
a. promotes angiogenesis and vasculogenesis to support the fetus with
maximum blood supply and nutrients throughout pregnancy
b. promotes progesterone production
c. promotes production of cytokines such as macrophage migration
inhibitory factor, which minimize macrophage phagocytosis at the
placenta - uterine border
d. prevents the rejection of fetoplacental tissue by the maternal
immune system
e. none of the choices
c. promotes production of cytokines such as macrophage migration
inhibitory factor, which minimize macrophage phagocytosis at the
placenta - uterine border
83
Lateral flow chromatographic immunoassay is the method used to
qualitatively detect hCG in urine during the early stages of pregnancy
[20]. The device contains two windows, the specimen window or well,
which contains the sample pad, and the results window. The results
window consists of
a. two lines; the control and the test (T) lines
b. three lines; the control, the test (T) line and the sample line
c. one line only; the test line
d. four lines; the control, the test (T) line, sample line and the buffer
line
e. none of the choices
a. two lines; the control and the test (T) lines
84
The most commonly used membrane in Lateral flow chromatographic
immunoassays is
a. Nitrocellulose membrane
b. Latex membranes
c. Stripping membranes
d. Nonporous membranes
e. All of the choices
a. Nitrocellulose membrane
85
The four parts that constitute a lateral flow test are the following,
except
a. Sample pad; where the sample is placed
b. Conjugate pad; the compartment where labeled tags are combined
with biorecognition elements
c. Reaction membrane; holds the test and control line
d. Absorbent pad; used to accumulate the waste
e. Desiccant pad; drying pad
e. Desiccant pad; drying pad
86
In the lateral flow chromatographic immunoassay, the control line
contains goat anti-mouse antibodies that bind to the mouse monoclonal
anti-hCG antibodies of the reagent pad in the presence or absence of
hCG. Therefore, the absence of a colored line at the control line
indicates __________ results.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Invalid
d. Expired reagents cannot interpret the results
c. Invalid
87
Human chronic gonadotropin (hCG) is:
a.An enzyme.
b. Hormone.
c. Carbohydrate.
d. Complement protein.
e.All of the choices
b. Hormone
88
. hCG produced during:
a.Pregnancy.
b.Autoimmune diseases.
c.Cancer.
d. Post-transplant.
e. Acute infections
a.Pregnancy
89
hCG functions include:
a.Helping to support the fetus during pregnancy with nutrients and blood
supply.
b.Promoting cytokine production.
c.Promoting progesterone production
d.All the above.
d.All the above.
90
hCG can be detected in both urine and blood at:
a. A month after conception.
b. A week post-conception.
c. Three months post-conception.
d. None of the above.
b. A week post-conception.
91
hCG can be detected in:
a. Urine and blood.
b. Vaginal swab.
c. Saliva.
d. Sweat
e. None of the above.
a. Urine and blood.
92
In the preparation of an RBC suspension the number of washes
required to wash the RBCs with normal saline solution is
a. Once only
b. Thrice
c. Five-times
d. As many as you like
e. None of the choices
b. Thrice
93
With respect to the RBC suspension preparations, which of the
following is correct?
a. If RBCs are placed in a hypertonic solution, the RBCs will swell.
b. RBCs in an isotonic solution, there is no change in the size of the
cells.
c. When RBCs are placed in a hypotonic environment, water will
enter the cells, and the RBCs will shrink
d. None of the choice
b. RBCs in an isotonic solution, there is no change in the size of the
cells.
93
The principle of the hCG one-step pregnancy urine device is:
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Chromatography
d. Latex agglutination
e. Fluorometry
c. Chromatography
94
A conjugate pad of hCG one-step pregnancy urine device contains:
a. Anti-hCG conjugated to an enzyme.
b. Anti-hCG conjugated to gold nanoparticles.
c. Anti-hCG conjugated to a protein.
d. Anti-hCG conjugated to a biotin.
e. Anti-hCG conjugated to silver nanoparticles
b. Anti-hCG conjugated to gold nanoparticles.
94
A C line on the results window of the hCG one-step pregnancy urine
device contains:
a. Anti-hCG antibodies.
b. Anti-mouse antibodies.
c. Anti-goat antibodies.
d. None of the above
b. Anti-mouse antibodies.
95
The result of the hCG one-step pregnancy urine device is:
a. Positive.
b. Negative.
c. Invalid.
d. None of the above
c. Invalid.
96
. During inflammation, the immune cells, mainly the innate cells,
produce several cytokines such as ______________, which in turn
activate the liver cells to produce acute phase proteins including Creactive proteins (CRPs).
a. IL-6
b. IL-1
c. TNF-α
d. All of the choices
d. All of the choices
97
The detection of CRP level by a latex agglutination test is mostly
used as marker for
a. Stage IV metaplasia
b. Complement activation
c. Active inflammation
d. Upregulated phagocytosis
e. All of the choices
c. Active inflammation
98
. All the following statements about CRP are true, except:
a. CRP is produced by the liver cells.
b. CRP is an acute phase protein.
c. CRP is associated with specific diseases.
d. CRP is produced during inflammation.
e. CRP is synthesized by the cytokines.
c. CRP is associated with specific diseases.
99
. CRP is detected by:
a. The latex agglutination test.
b. The hemagglutination test.
c. A molecular assay.
d. An immunofluorescent assay.
e. All of the choices
e. All of the choices
99
In this disease the synovium, the thin membrane, is a few cells thick
and surrounds the joints and the tendon sheaths, undergoes chronic
inflammation owing to the chronic infiltration of the inflammatory cells
to the area.
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. Type I DM
c. RA
d. SLE
e. Crohn’s disease
c. RA
99
Rheumatoid factor (RF) consists of autoantibodies that are produced
by the B cells during RA and can interact with the
a. Fc region of the self-IgG antibodies
b. Fab region of the self-IgG antibodies
c. Fc region of the self-IgM antibodies
d. Fab region of the self-IgA antibodies
e. None of the choices
a. Fc region of the self-IgG antibodies
100
Based on the figure given below, which one is the positive result of
the rheumatoid factor latex agglutination test?
a. Left circle
b. Right circle
c. Cannot be determined
a. Left circle
100
Rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. Acute autoimmune disease.
b. Chronic autoimmune disease.
c. Chronic allergic disease.
d. Viral infection
e. None of the choices
b. Chronic autoimmune disease.
100
Rheumatoid factor is:
a. An enzyme produced in rheumatoid arthritis.
b. A cytokine produced in rheumatoid arthritis.
c. An Autoantibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis.
d. None of the above.
c. An Autoantibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis
100
The key player cells involved in rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis
are:
a. Th17 cells.
b. B cells.
c. Macrophages.
d. All the above
d. All the above
100
Rheumatoid factor is an autoantibody against:
a. DNA.
b. Lipids in the cell membrane.
c. Red blood cells.
d. Fc region of IgG antibodies.
e. Synoviocyte
d. Fc region of IgG antibodies.
100
Rheumatoid factor is detected in clinical laboratories by:
a. PCR
b. The latex agglutination test
c. Hemagglutination
d. Radial immunodiffusion
e. Fluorescence immunoassay
b. The latex agglutination test
100
In the rheumatoid factor latex agglutination test, the latex particles
are coated with:
a. Gamma globulin.
b. Toxin.
c. Bacterial antigen.
d. All the above.
a. Gamma globulin
100
All the following statements about the rheumatoid factor latex
agglutination test are false, except:
(a) Rheumatoid factor can be detected only in rheumatoid arthritis
patients.
(b) Rheumatoid factor can be detected in all rheumatoid arthritis
patients.
(c) Rheumatoid factor is used to monitor rheumatoid arthritis patients.
(d) All the above
(c) Rheumatoid factor is used to monitor rheumatoid arthritis patients.
101
The bacteria that cause typhoid fever _____________ spreads
through contaminated food, drink, or water. If you eat or drink
something that is contaminated, the bacteria enter the body, and goes
into the intestines, and then into the bloodstream, where it can travel to
the lymph nodes, gallbladder, liver, spleen, and other parts of the body.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Salmonella typhi
102
Typhoid fever bacterial agglutination exhibits two types. One is the
floccular type, which is demonstrated when the anti “H” __________
antibody combines with the “H” antigen.
a. Somatic
b. Pili
c. Cytosolic
d. Flagellar
e. Nucleolar
d. Flagellar
103
Serial dilution is utilized in the Widal reaction _____________ test.
a. screening test
b. confirmatory
c. both A and B
d. none of the choices
b. confirmatory
104
In the Widal Reaction test tube test, if the agglutination is similar to
tube one, then the scoring is?
a. ++++
b. +++
c. ++
d. +
a. ++++
105
Instrumentation
Identify the following:
a. ceramic ringed agglutination slides
b. 96-well plate
c. Kline concavity slides
d. serologic pipets
e automated single-channel pipet
f. multichannel pipet
see pic
