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laboratory safety Flashcards

(51 cards)

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1
Q

Type: Biological
Source: Infectious agents
Possible Injury:

A

Possible Injury: Bacterial, fungal, viral, or parasitic infections

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2
Q

Type: Sharps
Source: Needles, lancets, broken glass
Possible Injury:

A

Possible Injury: Cuts, punctures, or exposure to bloodborne pathogens

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3
Q

Type: Chemical
Source:
Possible Injury:

A

Source: Preservatives and reagents

Possible Injury: Exposure to toxic, carcinogenic, or caustic agents

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4
Q

Type: Radioactive
Source:
Possible Injury: Exposure to radiation

A

Source: Equipment and radioisotopes

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5
Q

Type: Electrical
Source:
Possible Injury: Burns or shock

A

Source: Ungrounded/wet equipment; frayed cords

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6
Q

Type: Fire/explosive
Source: Open flames, organic chemicals
Possible Injury:

A

Possible Injury: Burns or dismemberment

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7
Q

Type: Physical
Source:
Possible Injury:

A

Source: Wet floors, heavy boxes, patients

Possible Injury: Falls, sprains, or strains

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8
Q

location of potentially harmful microorganisms, such as a contaminated clinical specimen or an infected patient.

A

Reservoir

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9
Q

Equipment and other soiled inanimate objects, called _______ will serve as reservoirs, particularly if they contain blood, urine, or other body fluids.

A

fomites

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10
Q

Portal of Exit

A

mucous membranes of the reservoir’s nose, mouth, and eyes, as well as in blood or other body fluids.

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11
Q

the unprotected host touches the patient, specimen, or a contaminated object (reservoir)

A

Direct contact

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12
Q

the host inhales dried aerosol particles circulating on air currents or attached to dust particles

A

Airborne

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13
Q

the host inhales infected aerosol droplets from the reservoir (e.g., aerosol droplets from a patient or an uncapped centrifuge tube, or when specimens are aliquoted or spilled)

A

Droplet

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14
Q

the host ingests a contaminated substance (e.g., food, water, specimen)

A

Vehicle

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15
Q

from an animal or insect bite

A

Vector

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16
Q

Immunocompromised patients, newborns and infants, and the elderly

A

Susceptible Host

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17
Q

In the clinical laboratory, the most direct contact with a source of infection is through:

A

Contact with patient specimens

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18
Q

primary objective of biological safety?

A

Preventing completion of the chain of infection

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19
Q

Concern over exposure to bloodborne pathogens, such as:

  1. 2.
    3.
A
  1. hepatitis B virus (HBV)
  2. hepatitis C virus (HCV)
  3. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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20
Q

the year when the CDC instituted Universal
Precautions (UP)?

A

1987

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21
Q

all patients are considered to be possible carriers of bloodborne pathogens.

Study These Flashcards
A

Universal Precautions (UP)

22
Q

guidelines are not limited to bloodborne pathogens; they consider all body fluids and moist body substances to be potentially infectious.

Study These Flashcards
A

Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

23
Q

A major disadvantage of BSI guidelines:

Study These Flashcards
A

they do not recommend hand sanitizing after removing gloves unless visual contamination is present.

24
Q

the year when the CDC and the Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee (HICPAC) combined the major features of UP and BSI guidelines

25
new guidelines from CDC and HICPAC
Standard Precautions
26
Standard Precaution: 1. HH 2. GL 3. MNEP 4. GO 5. PCE 6. EC 7. LI 8. OH&BP 9. PP 10. RH/CE
1. Hand Hygiene 2. Gloves 3. Mouth, nose, and eye protection 4. Gown 5. Patient care equipment 6. Environmental control 7. Linen 8. Occupational health & bloodborne pathogens 9. Patient placement 10. Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette
27
a law monitored and enforced by OSHA.
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
28
Specific requirements of this OSHA standards include the following: 1. E.C. 2. W.P.C. 3. P.P.E. 4. M. 5. D.
1. Engineering Controls 2. Work Practice Controls 3. Personal Protective Equipment 4. Medical 5. Documentation
29
A confidential evaluation of the incident must begin right away to ensure appropriate _________ is initiated within 24 hours.
postexposure prophylaxis (PEP)
30
the primary method of infection transmission.
Hand contact
31
Disinfection of the sink using
1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
32
Sodium hypochlorite dilutions stored in plastic bottles are effective for
1 month if protected from light after preparation
33
The biohazard sharp containers should not exceed _____________ and must always be replaced when the level of waste inside reaches the safe capacity mark.
three-fourths full (3/4 full)
34
Chemicals should never be ________ unless specific instructions are followed, and they must be added in the order specified.
mixed together
35
Acid should always be added to water to avoid the:
possibility of sudden splashing caused by the rapid generation of heat in some chemical reactions.
36
Pipetting by mouth
is unacceptable in the laboratory.
37
chemical hygiene plan (CHP)
OSHA also requires all facilities that use hazardous chemicals to have a written chemical hygiene plan (CHP) available to employees.
38
WRITTEN CHEMICAL HYGIENE PLAN (CHP) includes: 1. Appropriate 2. Standard 3. PPE 4. Engineering 5. Employee 6. Medical
1. Appropriate work practices 2. Standard operating procedures 3. PPE 4. Engineering controls, such as fume hoods and flammable safety cabinets 5. Employee training requirements 6. Medical consultation guidelines
39
Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a description of their particular hazard, such as
1. poisonous 2. corrosive 3. flammable 4. explosive 5. teratogenic 6. carcinogenic
40
agency that developed the Standard System for the Identification of the Fire Hazards of Materials, "NFPA 704."
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
41
the diamond-shaped, color-coded symbol contains information relating to: a. b. c. d.
a. health (blue), b. flammability (red), c. reactivity (yellow), d. specific hazards (white).
42
regulations that all chemicals are required to have the NFPA 704-M Hazard Identification System warnings on their shipping containers.
The federal Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations
43
______ requires that all employees have a right to know about all chemical hazards present in their workplace.
OSHA Federal Hazard Communication Standard
44
(concentration) required by OSHA to have a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) on file in the workplace.
a concentration greater than 1%
45
Information contained in an SDS includes the following: 1. Physical 2. Fire 3. Reactivity 4. Health 5. Methods 6. Primary 7. Exposure
1. Physical and chemical characteristics 2. Fire and explosion potential 3. Reactivity potential 4. Health hazards and emergency first aid procedures 5. Methods for safe handling and disposal 6. Primary routes of entry 7. Exposure limits and carcinogenic potential
46
an international effort to standardize both the classification of hazardous chemicals and the symbols used to communicate these hazards on labels and in SDS documentation
Globally Harmonized System (GHS) of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals
47
The amount of radiation exposure is related to a combination of:
time, distance, and shielding.
48
___________ requires that all healthcare facilities post evacuation routes and detailed plans to follow in the event of a fire.
The Joint Commission (TJC)
49
RACE: R- A- C- E-
Rescue—rescue anyone in immediate danger Alarm—activate the institutional fire alarm system Contain—close all doors to potentially affected areas Extinguish/Evacuate—attempt to extinguish the fire, if possible, or evacuate, closing the door
50
The acronym PASS is about handling a fire extinguisher and can be used to remember the steps in the operation: P- A- S- S-
1. Pull pin 2. Aim at the base of the fire 3. Squeeze handles 4. Sweep nozzle side to side
51
used during patient care activities related to suspected Mycobacterium exposure.
A specially fitted respirator (N95)

AUBF (5 decks)

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