Lange Review Chapter 1 Practice Test

Question 1

What dose descriptor is calculated with the following formula? X=(2/3)(CTDI100priphery+(1/3)(CTDI100) center?

Answer 1

CTDIw.

Question 2

When evaluating a patients lab results, an elevated creatine level is an indication of what medical condition?

Answer 2

Impaired renal function.

Question 3

When performing an invasive CT examination, such as an RFA of the liver, a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is drawn. What does a partial thromboplastin time test measure?

Answer 3

Time for normal clot formation in plasma.

Question 4

What type of consent is obtained prior to a noninvasive CT procedure?

Answer 4

Simple expressed.

Question 5

Which of the following methods must be utilized when placing an IV line in an antecubital vein?
A. The technologist must wash his/her hands prior to starting an IV line.
B. The technologist should anesthetize the area using a tropical agent.
C. The technologist should release the tourniquet as the needle is being inserted.
D. The technologist should make a minimum of four attempts in the arm before giving up.

Answer 5

Answer: A - the technologist must wash his/her hands prior to starting an IV line.

Question 6

When administering IV contrast to a pt with a mastectomy, which being should be chosen?

Answer 6

The vein on the CONTRALATERAL side.

Question 7

What instrument is used to measure radiation exposure?

Answer 7

Ionization chamber.

Question 8

What method is used to lower the viscosity of contrast media before injecting?

Answer 8

Heating the media to body temperature.

Question 9

For radiation workers in the United States, what is their dose limitation per year?

Answer 9

50 mSv.

Question 10

A female pt arrives in the ER with severe right flank pain. The pt is 5’4 weighing 100 lb. What technical factor would you change to reduce her radiation dose?

Answer 10

MAS.

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT part of the pt identification process?
A. Establishing an initial apportion with the pt.
B. Obtaining informed consent.
C. Asking the pt to state his/her full name.
D. Asking the pt his/her date of birth.

Answer 11

B - obtaining informed consent.

Question 12

What is the premedication strategy for a pt with a prior allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media before a contrast-enchanted CT?
A. Premedication with steroids and antihistamines.
B. Increase in fluids for 48 hours before the examination.
C. Having the pt stop his/her blood thinning medication.
D. Administration of negative contrast agent.

Answer 12

A - Premedication with steroids and antihistamines.

Question 13

When a technologist examines a pt prior to placing an IV catheter for contrast-enchanted CT study, which of the following veins would likely use?
A. Vein of Galen.
B. Basilar vein.
C. Medial cubital vein.
D. Radial vein.

Answer 13

C - Medial cubital vein.

Question 14

Dose descriptors are used to identify approximate pt doses, which of the following is the dose descriptor utilized for modern-slice CT scanners?
A. Multiple-scan average dose (MSAD).
B. Dose profile.
C. CTDIvolume.
D. Roentgen.

Answer 14

C - CTDIvolume.

Question 15

What type of needle is equipped with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during vein puncture?

Answer 15

Butterfly needle.

Question 16

What is the normal range of respiration for an adult?
A. 5-10 BPM.
B. 12-20 BPM.
C. 20-30 BPM.
D. 35-50 BPM.

Answer 16

B - 12-20 BPM.

Question 17

What term refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociates in a solution?
A. Solubility.
B. Osmolality.
C. Concentration.
D. Iodinating.

Answer 17

B - Osmolality.

Question 18

Which of the following is considered a severe reaction to an iodinated contrast reaction?
A. Dyspnea.
B. Itching.
C. Nasal stuffiness.
D. Cardiopulmonary arrest.

Answer 18

D - Cardiopulmonary arrest.

Question 19

The dose to the central slice plus the dose from the scatter into nearby slices equals which of the following dose descriptors?
A. MSAD.
B. SV.
C. mAs setting.
D. R

Answer 19

A - MSAD.

Question 20

What is the dose descriptor that can be calculated if the length of the irradiated volume (scan length) and the CTDIvolume are known?
A. CTDI100.
B. MSAD.
C. DLP.
D. Exposure.

Answer 20

C - DLP.

Question 21

Of the following terms, which is a parental route of administering medication?
A. Sublingual.
B. Intramuscular.
C. Oral.
D. Rectal.

Answer 21

B - Intramuscular.

Parental medication is taken into he body in a manner OTHER than through the digestive system.

Question 22

What is the measure of the total number of particles in contrast media per Kilogram of water?
A. Viscosity.
B. Osmolality.
C. Ionicity.
D. Iodinating.

Answer 22

B - Osmolality.

Question 23

Which of the following is a characteristic of ionic contrast media?
A. Higher Osmolality.
B. Dose not increase the Osmolality of blood serum.
C. Does not separate in water.
D. Ratio of iodine atoms to active particles is 3:1.

Answer 23

A - Higher Osmolality.

Ionic contrast is considered a high-Osmolality contrast media (HOCM), which separates in water yielding two particles.

Question 24

Of the following laboratory test listed below, which test can be utilized to evaluate the renal function of a patient?
A. D-diner.
B. INR.
C. GFR.
D. PTT.

Answer 24

C - GFR.

Question 25

The mAs for a particular procedure remains constant and the pitch changes from 2 to 1; what change does it have on dose? A. Decrease. B. Increase. C. Remains the same. D. There is no relationship between pitch and dose.

Answer 25

B - Increase. Pitch & dose are inversely proportional to each other. As pitch increases, the CTDIvolume decreases and as pitch decreases, CTDIvolume increases.

Question 26

Which of the following is deemed a moderate reaction to contrast media? A. Convulsions. B. Seizures. C. Dyspnea. D. Nasal congestion.

Answer 26

C - Dyspnea.

Question 27

Which of the following is a property of nonionic contrast media? A. IT contains a negatively charged anion that consists of a benzene ring with a negatively charged acid group. B. Iodine concentration is maintained without increasing the number of particles in solution; therefore, it does not increase the Osmolality of the blood serum and does not charge the osmotic pressure in the bloodstream. C. Renal effects are especially significant. D. May result hypervolemia.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

What is the relationship between the dose and the number of detectors? A. As number of detector rows increase, dose increases. B. As number of detector rows increases, dose decreases. C. As number of detector rows increases, dose triples. D. There is no relationship between dose and number of detector rows.

Answer 28

B - As number of detector rows increases, dose decreases. INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO EACH OTHER!!

Question 29

Which of the following is a characteristic of a low-Osmolality contrast media? A. Can decrease blood supply to the kidneys. B. Can cause hypervolemia. C. Can cause shock in dehydrated patients. D. Less toxic.

Answer 29

D - Less toxic.

Question 30

What is the principle behind the benefit of lower kV in some clinical applications? A. Superior enhancement of iodine. B. Inferior enhancement of iodine. C. There is actually no benefit of reducing kVp. D. It increases patient dose.

Answer 30

A - Superior enhancement of iodine.

Question 31

What radiation dose saving technique adjusts the tube current based on the patient’s overall attenuation by modulating the tube current in the angular (x-y) and longitudinal (z) dimensions to adapt to the patient’s shape? A. Angular-longitudinal tube current modulation. B. Prospective ECG triggering. C. High resolution CT. D. Automated tube current modulation.

Answer 31

A - Angular-longitudinal tube current modulation.

Question 32

What is the quantifying risk from partial-body exposure to that from the equivalent whole-body dose? A. Absorbed dose. B. Effective dose. C. Threshold effect. D. Deterministic effect.

Answer 32

B - Effective dose. Effective dose is not actually a measurement of dose, but rather a model that predicts the stochastic risk, such as cancer, from a radiation exposure.

Question 33

Which of the following is a sign of an anaphylactic reaction? A. Diffuse urticaria. B. Facial edema without Dyspnea. C. Bronchospasm with significant hypoxia. D. Limited cutaneous edema.

Answer 33

C - Bronchospasm with significant hypoxia.

Question 34

Which of the following statements are characteristics of power injectors? (Select one or more correct answers) A. They are only used for CT angiography studies. B. The maximum volume of each syringe is 200 cc. C. They cannot be used to inject ionic contrast. D. They have internal heating mechanisms to maintain the temperature of the contrast.

Answer 34

B and D.

Question 35

Which of the following statements are part of the patient interaction process? (Select one or more correct answers) A. It is important to establish a feeling of trust with the patient. B. It is important to have the patient explain the procedure instructions back to you. C. Instructions should always be given orally, never using written material. D. It is important to access the patient’s degree of anxiety.

Answer 35

A, B, and D.

Question 36

Which of the following are contraindications for the administration of IV contrast (Select one or more answers) A. Asthma. B. Shellfish allergies. C. Atopic syndrome. D. Cardiac dysfunction.

Answer 36

A, C, and D.

Question 37

Define communication

Answer 37

Any act by which one person gives to or receives from a person information about that persons needs, desires, perceptions, knowledge, or affective states.