Large Animal

Question 1

Signs of coital exanthema in the stallion include the following, except:

A) Paraphimosis and inability to breed if untreated
B) Raised pink ulcerations on the shaft and glans of the penis
C) Similar lesions around the vulva of the mare
D) Unwillingness to breed dur to pain

Answer 1

A) Paraphimosis and inability to breed if untreated

Question 2

What is the etiologic agent that causes porcine polyserositis and arthritis (Glässer’s disease)?

Answer 2

Haemophilus parasuis

Question 3

To diagnose pregnancy in a miniature mare 180 days post-breeding, one should measure:

A) eCG (endometrial cups)
B) Estrone sulfate (feto-placental unit)
C) Pregnancy-specific protein B (binucleated trophoblastic cells of the placenta)
D) Progesterone (Corpus luteum)

Answer 3

B) Estrone sulfate (produced by the feto-placental unit)

Question 4

Calving paralysis causes abduction and flexion of both hindlimbs in cattle due to parturient trauma of which paired nerve?

Answer 4

The obturator nerves; alternatively, if the cow’s fetlocks also are flexed, peroneal paralysis should be suspected.

Question 5

Name 2 bacterial pathogens associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex (BRD).

Answer 5

Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, Histophilus somni, Mycoplasma bovis

Question 6

Why is gastric decompression essential when treating a horse with duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (anterior enteritis, proximal enteritis)?

Answer 6

Without decompression, the continuous production of entero-gastric reflux can result in gastric rupture (a horse with gastric rupture would have to be euthanized as a horse would not survive the resulting peritonitis); additionally, gastric distension causes pain. /

Question 7

In pigs, what does the term ‘‘teat-order’’ refer to?

Answer 7

It describes the development of a preference of each piglet for a particular nipple. This behavioral characteristic ensures that feeding of large litters remains effective and the piglets do not spend most of their time re-establishing a feeding order. (Just like vet students who stay in the same classroom seat for 3 years…)

Question 8

A farmer presents a calf due to ‘‘dropping’’ of the hip and hock. On examination, you identify right hindlimb paresis with overflexion of the fetlock. One week prior to presentation, the calf received an IM injection in the same limb. What is the most likely neuroanatomic diagnosis?

Answer 8

Sciatic nerve paralysis

Question 9

A male llama shows signs of colic and posturing to urinate, but no urine is voided. On a serum biochemistry profile, you identify an elevation in BUN and creatinine. What is the most likely cause of these clinical findings?

Answer 9

Obstruction of the urethra - urolithiasis. In most livestock species, this condition usually occurs in castrated animals; however, in camelids, intact males are most commonly affected.

Question 10

An owner reports that ‘‘spavin’’ was treated in her horse via transection of a structure that lies dorsomedial to the hock. What is this structure?

Answer 10

Cunean tendon (medial tendon of the cranial tibial muscle)

Question 11

An alpaca is noted to occasionally roll into dorsal recumbency and writhe on the ground. The animal is otherwise well. What is the most likely explanation?

Answer 11

'’Dust bathing’’ or ‘‘rolling’’, a form of self-grooming behavior that is very common in new world camelids. Differential diagnoses include colic, dystocia, and urolithiasis.

Question 12

What makes the bite of a male camelid much more hazardous than that of most other make domestic livestock?

Answer 12

Male camelids have formidable canine teeth with which they have been known to inflict fatal injuries.

Question 13

What are the names of the joint pouches in the equine stifle and which ones communicate?

Answer 13

Femoropatellar, medial and lateral femorotibial.
The femoropatellar and medial femorotibial almost always communicate, the femoropatellar and the lateral femorotibial communicate approximately 25% of the time, and the medial and lateral femorotibial pouches almost never communicate. This is relevant for injections into the joint.

Question 14

'’Glass tetany’’ of cattle is a result of which metabolic abnormality?

Answer 14

Hypomagnesemia

Question 15

On radiographs, you see a well-circumscribed dermal mass with granular mineralization and no bony involvement, adjacent to the tarsus of an Arabian stallion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 15

Equine mast cell tumor, a benign tumor which is not associated with lameness and is curative with excision.

Question 16

Regarding use of progesterone or altrenogest in the mare, which is FALSE?

A) They may be used for synchronizing estrus
B) They increase myometrial tone
C) They may be used to suppress estrous behavior
D) They will suppress follicular development and ovulation

Answer 16

D) They will suppress follicular development and ovulation

Question 17

A herd of dairy goats has recently experienced an outbreak of general ill thrift and abortions. Several kids have swollen joints. Culture of joint fluid does not result in any growth using standard culture procedure. What is the most likely cause?

Answer 17

Mycoplasma spp.; Increasingly, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for identifying mycoplasma organisms.

Question 18

A group of pigs show signs of blindness, deafness, aimless wandering, head pressing, and seizures. Clinical pathologic findings include hypernatremia and eosinopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 18

Sodium chloride (salt) poisoning; this can result from excessive salt intake or restricted water intake

Question 19

Several animals in a goat herd have clinical signs that include swollen carpi, stiff gait, and difficulty rising. Some animals also have a firm udder on palpation, and coughing is noted. What is the most likely etiology?

Answer 19

Caprine arthritis encephalitis; genus lentivirus, family Retroviridae

Question 20

A horse presents for acute onset of head tilt, a drooping ear, ptosis, and deviation of the nose to the left. During endoscopy of the left guttural pouch, you notice bony proliferation of the stylohyoid bone as well as hyperemia of the surrounding mucosa. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 20

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

Question 21

Name 2 viral diseases associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex.

Answer 21

Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVD), Bovine respiratory syncytial virus, Bovine herpesvirus-1, Parainfluenza type 3

Question 22

Of the following species, which is classified as an induced ovulator?

A) Alpaca
B) Goat
C) Pig
D) Sheep

Answer 22

A) Alpaca

Question 23

Define ‘‘manica flexoria’’.

Answer 23

The portion of the superficial digital flexor tendon that encircles the deep digital flexor tendon just above the level of the proximal sesamoid bones (manica = hand).

Question 24

Which of the following hormones lengthens diestrus in the bovine?

A) Estrogen
B) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Prostaglandin F2 alpha

Answer 24

C) Progesterone

Question 25

Correction of pneumovagina in the mare when it is too severe for successful correction with a Caslick’s vulvoplasty is possible using:

A) Buhner’s technique
B) Caudal relocation of the transverse fold
C) Perineal body reconstruction (Gadd procedure)
D) Urethral extension

Answer 25

C) Perineal body reconstruction (Gadd procedure)

Question 26

To hasten onset of puberty/synchronize estrus in gilts, one should:

A) Bring boars to gilt housing (2-4hrs/day)
B) Delay exposing gilts to boars until 185 days of age
C) Expose gilts to boars of similar age and weight
D) Take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes daily

Answer 26

D) Take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes daily

A is done to identify the females in estrus.

Question 27

What are the 3 arteries that supply the equine uterus?

Answer 27

The uterine branch of the ovarian artery, the uterine artery (from the origin of the external iliac artery), and the uterine branch of the vaginal artery.

Question 28

Which proportion of C-3 (third compartment of the stomach) in camelids contains true gastric glands?

Answer 28

The terminal one-fifth; as opposed to the entire abomasum in ruminants. A common point of contention: even though camelids ruminate, they are not in the same family as ruminants phylogenetically because they do not have a true rumen.

Question 29

Name 3 hematologic characteristics of camelids that are a result of their adaptation to altitude.

Answer 29

1) High hemoglobin concentration
2) Large number of erythrocytes
3) Small, ellipsoid, thin erythrocytes (greater surface area)
4) High MCHC
5) High hemoglobin affinity to oxygen
6) Efficient utilization of oxygen by the tissues (oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left at low altitudes)

Question 30

In the ‘‘OVSYNCH’’ system for timed artificial insemination of cattle, the second dose of gonadotrophin releasing hormone is given to:

A) Assist in early corpus luteum formation
B) Destroy any luteal tissue
C) Recruit a new follicular wave
D) Stimulate ovulation

Answer 30

D) Stimulate ovulation

Question 31

When palpating a mare during estrus, the uterus is:

A) Easily palpable due to uterine edema
B) Easily retractable into the pelvic canal due to relaxation of the broad ligament
C) Lacking tone and may be difficult to find
D) Not easy to reach due to relaxation of the broad ligament

Answer 31

C) Lacking tone and may be difficult to find
This is the result of the effects of estrogen on uterine tone.

Question 32

Equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis has been associated with which infectious organism?

Answer 32

Equine herpesvirus 5 (EHV-5)

Question 33

A horse has alopecia and crusting on the ventral abdomen and ears. The owner reports that this problem seems to occur every year during the warm months and seems to improve if the horse is kept inside. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 33

Insect hypersensitivity

Question 34

On a dairy farm, several calves show clinical signs, including ear droop, ptosis, head shaking, and scratching/rubbing of the ear. Upon closer examination, you realize that some calves also have swollen joints. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 34

Mycoplasma bovis; infection with M. bovis can result in middle/inner ear infection, as well as arthritis and synovitis in calves.

Question 35

Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency, a recessive trait resulting in mutation of the glycogen branching enzyme gene, was originally diagnosed in which two horse breeds?

Answer 35

Quarter horse and Paint horse

Question 36

On skull radiographs of a horse with a draining tract in the region of the external auditory meatus, you see a mineralized mass that has the appearance of a tooth. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 36

A dentigerous cyst (also known as temporal teratoma or ‘‘ear tooth’’)

Question 37

In camelids, is gastric intubation usually achieved through the nasal cavity or the oral cavity?

Answer 37

Through the oral cavity. The nasal cavity is narrow and only the passage of an impractically small tube would be possible.

Question 38

In horses, a definitive diagnosis of cryptorchidism is usually reserved until a colt has reached which age?

Answer 38

1 year, though testicles most commonly descend into the scrotum by 6 months of age.

Question 39

You are treating a horse with colitis. You notice that the horse is shifting its weight back and forth and placing its front limbs further forward than normal. The hind limbs are shifted cranially. You also notice bounding digital pulses in both front limbs. What is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 39

Laminitis. Laminitis can be a sequela of colitis; one proposed mechanism is inflammation of the laminae in response to release of endotoxin and other bacterial components from the inflamed colon.

Question 40

A horse that is housed indoors without access to fresh grass shows generalized weakness, fatigue, and weight loss despite normal appetite. It spends an unusual amount of time lying down. Serum vitamin E levels are low. What should be your next diagnostic test?

Answer 40

Muscle biopsy of the sacrocaudal dorsomedial muscle at the base pg the tail, looking for denervation atrophy due to equine motor neuron disease.

Question 41

You choose to sedate a stallion prior to floating its teeth, but unwisely you choose acepromazine as part of your sedation protocol. Which specific complication might occur in this horse that does not occur in other species?

Answer 41

Paraphimosis. The protrusion of the penis may last for extended periods of time (e.g., more than 2 hours)

(** Not at the doses we use at the chuv… extremely rare. Its just way too mild for teeth floating. You will need either Xylazine +/- Butorphanol (too keep his feet down should he be a kicker) or to replace the Xyla by Detomidine if you need more time to do the procedure).

Question 42

You examine a pregnant mare at 15 days’ gestation and identify twins, you manually crush one via rectal palpation. What are 2 reasons for doing this?

Answer 42

Twin pregnancies can often terminate in:
1) Early fetal resorption or loss
2) Late-term abortions
3) Birth of small, growth-retarded foals

Mares aborting twins in late gestation also:
4) Frequently have foaling difficulties
5) Can be difficult to rebreed

Question 43

Your arrival from overseas is marred by the confiscation of pork sausage you brought. Name 2 viral diseases, both potentially contracted by pigs feeding on uncooked garbage containing infected pig tissues, that are the basis for this action.

Answer 43

1) Hog cholera (synonym: Classical swine fever)
2) African swine fever
3) Foot and mouth disease

Question 44

Which infectious organism (genus and species) is most commonly reported in association with closure of large animal hospitals in North America?

Answer 44

Salmonella Enterica

Question 45

In September, the plasma ACTH concentration of a clinically normal pony in the northern hemisphere is above the reference range. What do you have to consider when interpreting this result?

Answer 45

Seasonality. Plasma ACTH tends to be higher in the fall and normal animals can be erroneously diagnoses with pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction.

Question 46

Lameness in horses is graded on a 5-point scale. What defines a grade 4 out of 5 lameness?

Answer 46

A consistently observable lameness at a walk

Question 47

What is the pathologic mechanism of persistent infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus?

Answer 47

Animals become persistently infected with BVDV if the fetus is exposed to the virus before development of the immune system. This results in immune tolerance as the virus is recognized as ‘‘self’’.

Question 48

Apart from sheep and cattle, which other domestic large animal species have been found to be susceptible to bovine viral diarrhea virus?

Answer 48

North American camelids (llamas and alpacas)

Question 49

Regarding pregnancy failure in pigs, most infections resulting in mummification occur in what gestational age range?

Answer 49

Between 35-70 days of gestation

Question 50

What are two most common disorders that cause sinusitis in the horse?

Answer 50

Respiratory disease and maxillary cheek tooth root abscessation

Question 51

In the horse, the suture in the basisphenoid bone should fuse by which age?

A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years

Answer 51

C) 5 years
This is an important consideration when evaluating radiographs of horses with head trauma.

Question 52

Which one of these is not like the others?
Alpaca, cria, guanaco, llama, vicuna

Answer 52

Cria, which is the young (means ‘‘baby animal’’) of any South American camelid. The other 4 are the specific species that make up the South American camelid group.

Question 53

Which congenital defect should be suspected in a cria with flared nostrils and open-mouth breathing?

Answer 53

Choanal atresia

Question 54

A dairy cow shows acute onset of agalactia, anorexia, fever, and severe depression. The front right quarter is swollen and warm to palpation. A serous fluid can be milked from this quarter. The cow dies 6 hours after the onset of clinical signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 54

Peracute coliform mastitis

Question 55

A pregnant ewe develops neurologic signs, including incoordination, circling, and teeth grinding. During your examination you also identify ketonuria. The animal is due to lamb in 2 weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 55

Pregnancy toxemia (ketosis, twin-lamb disease); this condition occurs during the last 2-4 weeks of gestation and is caused by a negative energy balance resulting from increased demand due to rapid fetal growth in the late gestation and insufficient caloric intake.

Question 56

Which 3 major serum mineral imbalances can result in recumbency in cows (‘‘downer cow syndrome’’)?

Answer 56

Hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia

Question 57

Which statement is FALSE regarding Q fever?

A) It is a common cause of ovine or caprine abortion
B) It is a zoonosis
C) It is caused by a rickettsial organism
D) Most infections are asymptomatic

Answer 57

A) It is a common cause of ovine or caprine abortion

Question 58

In pigs, massive hemorrhagic hepatic necrosis (hepatosis dietetica) is associated with a deficiency of __________?

Answer 58

Selenium and vitamin E

Question 59

Which organism is the most common isolate in cattle with bacterial endocarditis?

Answer 59

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

Question 60

Volatile fatty acids (VFAs) are the major source of energy in cows. The principal VFAs are acetate, propionate and butyrate. Which of these if glucogenic?

Answer 60

Propionate is glucogenic; it enters the tricarboxylic acid cycle at the level of succinyl CoA.

Question 61

You palpate a cow’s ovary and determine that a 3.8cm (1.5 inch)-diameter follicle is present. Is this normal, or are you suspicious of a follicular cyst?

Answer 61

This suggests a follicular cyst, as would any follicle above 2.5 cm (1 inch) in diameter in a cow. (Careful though, this does NOT apply to horses who can have much larger follicles).

Question 62

What is the etiologic agent that causes exudative epidermitis (greasy pig disease) in weanling and suckling pigs?

Answer 62

Staphylococcus hyicus

Question 63

What is the long-term prognosis for an Arabian foal with juvenile idiopathic epilepsy: good, guarded, or poor?

Answer 63

The long-term prognosis is good. with cessation of seizures usually occurring by 1 year of age.

Question 64

You examine a recumbent goat. The animal has the head pulled into the flank. Prior to recumbency, the owner noted the animal was circling in one direction. Name 2 risk factors that have been associated with this infectious disease.

Answer 64

Sudden changes in weather, feeding, or general management; stress from poor nutrition, parasitism, or other concurrent disease; crowding, confinement in winter; feeding of silage, particularly poor quality silage (all predispose to listeriosis).

Question 65

Several dairy cows are moderately lame and have decreased milk production. On the skin proximal to the interdigital space you see multiple wart-like growths, mostly on the plantar aspect of the hind feet. What is your primary differential diagnosis?

Answer 65

Papillomatous digital dermatitis (Foot warts or hairy heel warts)

Question 66

In August, a llama from New Hampshire shows fever, lethargy, ataxia, seizures, recumbency, torticollis, opisthotonos, and vestibular signs. The animal dies 2 days later and post-mortem findings are consistent with encephalitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 66

EEE - Eastern equine encephalitis virus

Question 67

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infections have been most commonly identified in which 2 large animal species?

Answer 67

Horse and pig

Question 68

The following techniques are used for rectovaginal fistula repair, except:

A) Conversion to 3rd degree perineal laceration, repair
B) Laparotomy, perineal body reconstruction
C) Perineal body dissection, closure of rectal and vestibular mucosa
D) Mucosal flap in dorsal vestibular wall, suture to rectal mucosa

Answer 68

B) Laparotomy, perineal body reconstruction

Question 69

In October, two horses near Brisbane (AUS) show acute onset of respiratory distress, fever, and depression. Their caretaker also develops signs of respiratory disease. A root tree for bats is found in the horses’ pasture. What is the most likely etiology?

Answer 69

Equine hendra virus (Henipavirus, Paramyxovirinae). This virus was first identified in 1995 and can be fatal for both horses and humans.

Question 70

In the mare, transition from anestrus to normal cycling (vernal transition) ends when the:

A) Diameter of the largest follicle reaches 35mm
B) First ovulation occurs
C) Mare stops teasing in heat after 5 or more days
D) Mare teases in heat for 5 or more consecutive days

Answer 70

B) First ovulation occurs

Question 71

Phimosis in the stallion is defined as:

A) A Neurologic condition resulting in desensitization of the penile glans
B) A prolonged period of tumescence (persistent erection)
C) Inability to extend the penis outside of the sheath
D) Inability to retract the penis back into the sheath

Answer 71

C) Inability to extend the penis outside of the sheath

Question 72

Endometritis in the mare is usually due to any of the following bacteria except:

A) Bacillus spp.
B) Escherichia Coli
C) Pseudomonas spp.
D) Streptococcus zooepidermicus

Answer 72

A) Bacillus spp.

Question 73

Several horses in a barn show signs of respiratory disease, including coughing and nasal discharge. One mare aborts her foal in the 8th month of gestation. Two horses have pelvic limb weakness and decreased tail tone. What is the most likely etiology?

Answer 73

Equine Herpesvirus type 1 (EHV-1)

Question 74

Which of the following is the best-recognized risk factor for epiploic foramen entrapment in horses?

A) Breed
B) Crib biting
C) High concentration of sand in the feed
D) Pain
E) Physical inactivity

Answer 74

B) Crib biting
The reason is unclear, but changes in abdominal pressure as the horse prepares to ingest air have been proposed as part of the disease mechanism.

Question 75

A foal treated for R. equi pneumonia with a standard antibiotic protocol develops diarrhea. Which is true?

A) Diarrhea is usually self-resolving
B) Gentamicin would have been a good alternative
C) Treatment should be changed to macrolide monotherapy

Answer 75

A) Diarrhea is usually self-resolving
Diarrhea in this context is usually self-resolving. Gentamicin does not penetrate into rhodococcal abscesses, even with susceptible bacteria (B), and macrolide monotherapy is ineffective (C).

Question 76

What is the clinical manifestation of horses infected with Brucella abortus?

Answer 76

'’Poll evil’’ or ‘‘Fistulous withers’’ (Fistulous tracts originating from the atlantal or supraspinous bursae, respectively)

Question 77

What is the most common cause of colic in an otherwise healthy newborn foal?

Answer 77

Meconium impaction

Question 78

Horses are hindgut fermenters. Volatile fatty acids (VFAs) are the endproduct of the fermentation process and an important energy source. Which are the main 3 VFAs produced?

Answer 78

Acetate, propionate, butyrate. The same VFAs are produced in cows.

Question 79

You examine an adult goat and notice peripheral lymphadenopathy. Before aspirating one of the lymph nodes you are justifiably concerned about zoonosis due to which etiologic agent?

Answer 79

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (Caseous lymphadenitis)

Question 80

Upon endoscopic examination of a horse with a history of exercise intolerance and respiratory stertor, you cannot visualize the free border of the epiglottis. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 80

Epiglottic entrapment. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate is also an acceptable answer if the entire epiglottis is not visible.

Question 81

After a week and a half of rain, numerous individuals in a flock of sheep exhibit matted, discolored, malodorous fleece. What is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 81

Ovine fleece rot caused by proliferation of Pseudomonas spp.. This disease is economically important because the affected sheep are predisposed to myiasis, and the value of the wool is decreased.

Question 82

Which body system is predominantly affected in pigs with parvovirus infection?

Answer 82

The reproductive system (failure to farrow, small litter size, mummified fetuses)

Question 83

A cow presents with a sudden onset of seizures. The owner noticed that the animal had become more aggressive and seemed to vocalize frequently. Which environmental toxicant should be considered?

Answer 83

Lead. These are clinical signs commonly associated with leas poisoning. Polioencephalomalacia may look similar, but animals with lead toxicosis are more prone to seizures, vocalizing and aggression. Infectious diseases that may present similarly include rabies and bovine spongiform encephalopathy, which should be considered as important differential diagnoses.

Question 84

Several horses show sudden onset of hyperexcitability, ataxia, sweating, tachycardia, dyspnea, pyrexia, and death. On post-mortem, hemorrhage is present in skeletal and cardiac muscle. A ‘‘supplement’’ was given IV 2-3 hours prior to onset. What is the most likely etiology?

Answer 84

Acute selenium toxicosis

Question 85

A 2 year-old stallion rears and falls backwards. Afterwards, the horse is progressively ataxic. This is a common presentation for a fracture of which bone?

Answer 85

Basisphenoid

Question 86

What are 3 zoonotic organisms that cause abortion in sheep?

Answer 86

Brucella melitensis, Coxiella burnetti, Toxoplasma gondii, Chlamydia psittaci, Campylobacter jejuni, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella spp.

Question 87

Placentitis in the mare is commonly a result of:

A) Ascending infection through the cervix
B) Hematogenous spread of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract
C) Primary infection of the fetus that spreads to the placental tissues
D) Septicemia

Answer 87

A) Ascending infection through the cervix

Question 88

Which organism is known for causing abortion ‘‘storms’’ in sheep?

Answer 88

Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus

Question 89

A 3 day-old calf presents with bilateral pelvic limb lameness which has been present since birth. The owner reports the calf required manual extraction to free the hind limbs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 89

Femoral nerve damage due to excessive force applied to free the calf, causing hyperextension of the hips and putting traction on the femoral nerve or its roots (‘‘hip lock’’).

Question 90

Name 3 conditions that must be met for the extra-label use of drugs in food animals.

Answer 90

1) Administered/ordered by a veterinarian
2) On-label treatments unavailable
3) Valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship
4) For therapeutic/humane purposes only
5) Administration to individual animals or in water, not in feed
6) Identification and treatment records are adequate and maintained for 2 years
7) Veterinarian established extended drug withdrawal period supported by scientific evidence
8) Drug is adequately labeled

Question 91

After which day of pregnancy is a fetal membrane slip palpable in a cow’s rectal exam?

Answer 91

30-35 days (in the pregnant horn; also palpable in the nonpregnant horn approximately by day 70)

Question 92

The esophagus enters which compartment of the camelid stomach?

Answer 92

C-1

Question 93

A one month-old alpaca presents for bilateral ocular discharge since birth. After fluorescein application, the dye does not appear in the nostrils. What is your next diagnostic imaging test of choice?

Answer 93

Dacryocystorhinography. This is used for evaluating the anatomy of the nasolacrimal duct and localize the obstruction prior to surgical correction.

Question 94

Why is the use of chloramphenicol prohibited in food animals?

Answer 94

Chloramphenicol has been associated with the development of a non-dose related aplastic anemia in people.

Question 95

Name the disease caused by the blood borne parasite Theileria equi.

Answer 95

Equine piroplasmosis, an emerging disease of horses in the United States. This is an animal health issue with potentially serious economic implications as the US was previously considered free of this disease.

Question 96

In pig meat, both PSE (Pale soft and exudative) and DFD (Dark firm and dry) meat are a result of stress prior to slaughter. How do the predisposing conditions resulting in these changes in meat quality differ?

Answer 96

PSE meat is a result of acute pig stress right before or during slaughter (increased lactate production).
DFD meat is a result of chronic pig stress (glycogen depletion).

Question 97

Why is the left side more commonly affected than the right in horses with laryngeal hemiplegia?

Answer 97

The fact that the condition is more common on the left side has been attributed to the greater length of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve compared to the right.

Question 98

Which of the following is NOT useful in estimation of the duration of pregnancy in the bovine?

A) Fetal size and crown-to-nose measurement
B) Length of the amniotic vesicle
C) Location of the cervix
D) Placentome size at the uterine bifurcation

Answer 98

C) Location of the cervix

Question 99

Fluid therapy in horses with HYPP should only include fluids free of, or low in, __________.

Answer 99

Potassium. The use of potassium penicillin should also be avoided in these horses.

Question 100

If a cow ingests poison hemlock or lupines between days 40 and 75 of pregnancy, a characteristic lesion may be apparent in the calf at birth. What is the lesion?

Answer 100

Congenital contractures (‘‘crooked calf disease’’ - poison hemlock; congenital arthrogryposis - lupines)