Small Animal

Question 1

On which aspect of the small intestine does a linear foreign body usually perforate?

Answer 1

The mesenteric border

Question 2

Canine idiopathic epilepsy begins in a well-defined age range. What is it?

Answer 2

1 to 5 years

Question 3

Dogs with hyperadrenocorticism are prone to several cutaneous lesions or manifestations. List 4.

Answer 3

In order of frequency, from most common to least.
1) Alopecia (typically bilaterally symmetric)
2) Comedones
3) Hyperpigmentation
4) Calcinosis cutis
Also overrepresented in dogs with hyperadrenocorticism:
5) Failure to regrow shaved hair
6) Increased susceptibility to bruising/ecchymoses
7) Pyoderma
8) Abnormal cornification (‘‘seborrhea’’)

Question 4

In which breed of dog are both cervical spondylomyelopathy (‘‘wobbler’s syndrome’’) and von Willebrand disease overrepresented?

Answer 4

Doberman pinshers

Question 5

Emphysematous cystitis may be seen in association with which endocrinopathy?

Answer 5

Classically, diabetes mellitus; however, this condition has sometimes, though rarely, been reported in patients without diabetes.

Question 6

What is the most common lesion in dogs that causes marked unilateral atrophy of the muscles of mastication?

Answer 6

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor of the trigeminal nerve. Masticatory myositis is usually a bilateral process.

Question 7

In general, small breed dogs are more likely to have which type of congenital portosystemic shunt: extrahepatic or intrahepatic? Single or multiple?

Answer 7

Extrahepatic shunts are more common in small breeds, and the majority of congenital shunts are single, not multiple.

Question 8

A 4 month-old female puppy presents with ataxia and repetitive jerking motions of the head. Two weeks ago, she had a cough and ocular discharge that another veterinarian diagnosed as ‘‘kennel cough’’ on physical exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 8

Canine distemper

Question 9

What is the most common malignant bladder tumor in dogs?

Answer 9

Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC)

Question 10

The owner of a cat with third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block and a ventricular escape rate of 120 bpm cannot afford pacemaker implantation. What is the prognosis (median survival time) without a pacemaker?

A) Less than 30 days
B) 1-3 months
C) 4-6 months
D) More than 1 year

Answer 10

D) More than 1 year
Cats seem to tolerate third-degree AV block very well without pacing, and conspicuously more so than dogs. Median survival is 386 days (range: 1-2013 days).

Question 11

In dogs with whipworm infections (Trichuris vulpis), fenbendazole should be given once daily for 3 days immediately, then again in 2-3 weeks, then again in 3 months. What are the 2 parts of the whipworm life cycle that explain the need for 2 retreatments?

Answer 11

The time between hatching of ova and the embedding of larvae in small intestine (1 week) and the long prepatent period (70-107 days before ova are shed in feces, allowing re-exposure).

Question 12

Antigens that reach the palatine tonsils do so by draining through the lymphatics of which region in a dog or cat’s head?

Answer 12

The palatine tonsils do not drain lymphatics from any region. They are lymphoid organs whose interaction with antigens comes from direct oral exposure: ingestion and inhalation.

Question 13

What are the 3 goals of surgical treatment of dogs with gastric dilation-volvulus (GDV)?

Answer 13

1) Inspect stomach and spleen to identify and remove damaged or necrotic tissue
2) Decompress stomach and correct mispositioning
3) Perform gastropexy

Question 14

A 3 year-old retriever cross dog has ingested gopher bait 4 hours earlier. There is bloody vomiting, evidence of intense abdominal pain, and you note a faint garlicky or dead fish odor to the dog’s breath although the dog has not eaten fish nor garlic… What is your immediate concern?

Answer 14

Public health. Zinc phosphide toxicosis liberates phosphine gas, which has a rotten fish/garlic odor and causes pulmonary toxicosis in people (hospital staff). You move the dog to a well-ventilated area, and then feed the dog a fatty meal to reduce liberation of reactive oxygen species before inducing vomiting.

Question 15

Pyothorax in hunting dogs most commonly is caused by which genus of bacteria?

Answer 15

Nocardia spp.

Question 16

Which muscles of the pelvic diaphragm are the most commonly involved in perineal hernias in dogs?

Answer 16

Perineal hernias most commonly occur between the intestinal obturator, external anal sphincter and levator ani muscles in dogs.

Question 17

Atherosclerosis in dogs has been associated with a deficiency of this hormone.

Answer 17

Thyroid hormone

Question 18

Which structures pass through the supracondylar foramen in the humerus of the cat?

Answer 18

Median nerve and brachial artery (important to know for fracture repair)

Question 19

Your new patient, an 8 year-old female spayed cocker spaniel, has a medical history that includes a right-sided Zepp procedure at age 3. Which area of the dog do you examine to evaluate this?

Answer 19

The ear. The Zepp procedure is a vertical ear canal partial resection, typically performed for intractable otitis media if a total ear canal ablation is not necessary (e.g. horizontal canal is patent but vertical canal is not, despite medical therapy).

Question 20

A dog is bitten by a coral snake and is treated promptly by your colleague with several doses of crotalid polyvalent antivenom. What are three major disadvantages of this approach?

Answer 20

1) Ineffective (Coral snakes are elapids, not crotalids)
2) Costly (Antivenin costs several hundred dollars per dose…)
3) Needless risk of hypersensitivity

Question 21

What is the advantage of serial monitoring of serum progesterone, rather than LH (Luteinizing hormone), for identifying the optimal time to breed a female dog?

Answer 21

Serum progesterone levels rise gradually and continually, allowing blood samples and measurements to be made every 2-3 days, whereas LH produces a brief spike, requiring daily measurement.

Question 22

Primary hyperlipidemia is prevalent in which breed of dog?

Answer 22

Miniature schnauzer

Question 23

Name the chronic large bowel disorder that causes diarrhea, is associated with multi-cat households and shelters, is detected by identifying flagellated organisms on a fecal wet mount, and may be treated with ronidazole.

Answer 23

Tritrichomonas foetus enteritis

Question 24

In which direction is the hindlimb manipulated to minimize the risk of sciatic nerve damage when placing an intraosseous needle in the proximal femur?

Answer 24

The femur is rotated internally and adducted, in order to open the space between the greater trochanter and the acetabulum (and thus reduce the likelihood of encountering the sciatic nerve).

Question 25

Anorexic cats and those fed a diet high in seafood may exhibit severe muscle weakness due to a deficiency in this vitamin.

Answer 25

Thiamin

Question 26

Why is an incisional (wedge) biopsy preferred over an excisional biopsy (full resection) in an adult cat with a 10 cm, slowly-growing interscapular dermal mass?

Answer 26

With suspected injection-site sarcomas (typical location), complete resection is most likely to result in tumor control. Standard excision typically leads to incomplete removal (microscopic disease remaining). The diagnostic/wedge biopsy is performed first, and if injection-site sarcoma is confirmed, then an aggressive resection with very wide margins is justified, possibly preceded by radiation therapy.

Question 27

A dog has diffuse, excruciating pain of the hindlimb. The dog hit its stifle against a door 24h earlier. There is moderate swelling and intense pain on palpation; the swelling progresses visibly within 1 hour. There are no injuries and no fractures. What is the most likely infectious agent?

Answer 27

Streptococcus canis causing necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease). Broad spectrum IV antibiotics and immediate radical surgery (amputation) can be lifesaving.

Question 28

What is the most common mineral composition of uroliths isolated from feline kidneys and ureters?

Answer 28

Calcium oxalate

Question 29

Which disease of the canine nasal passages and sinuses is suggested by chronic mucopurulent nasal discharge and depigmentation of the nasal planum?

Answer 29

Nasal aspergillosis (Aspergillus spp.)

Question 30

A 1 year-old cavalier King Charles spaniel cries out when touched around the neck. The dog performs repetitive scratching motions towards the neck using the hindlimbs, but never makes contact (''Phantom scratching''). What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 30

Caudal occipital malformation/Chiari-like malformation. The malformed occipital bone crowds the cerebellum and impinges on the spinal cord, leading to syringomyelia and associated signs.

Question 31

Which percentage of dogs with a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament in one stifle are likely to rupture the contro-lateral cranial cruciate ligament? A) 10-30% B) 40-60% C) 70-90% D) 100%

Answer 31

B) 40-60%

Question 32

Every January for the past 3 years, an 8 year-old Boxer in Minnesota has developed bilaterally symmetrical hair loss over the caudal lateral thorax and abdomen; histologic abnormalities include truncated, keratin-filled primary and secondary hair follicles. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 32

Canine recurrent flank alopecia. The seasonal occurrence in winter and higher prevalence north of the 45th parallel suggest that photoperiod plays a role in this disorder.

Question 33

What is the most common cause of pericardial effusion in dogs?

Answer 33

Neoplasia

Question 34

Name 3 surgical treatment options for dogs with ruptured cranial cruciate ligaments.

Answer 34

1) Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy 2) Tibial tuberosity anteriorization 3) Fibular head transposition 4) Lateral imbrication suture 5) Triple tibial osteotomy 6) Intraarticular fascia lata or patellar tendon graft 7) Extracapsular suture

Question 35

What is the most common complication of treating heartworm disease using melarsomine dihydrochloride?

Answer 35

Pulmonary thromboembolism; sterile abscess formation and pain at the injection site can also occur but are less common.

Question 36

Name 3 diseases or disorders where it may not be safe to use NSAIDs.

Answer 36

1) Renal failure 2) Hepatic failure 3) Dehydration 4) Hypotension 5) Bleeding tendency 6) Concurrent use of another NSAIDs or corticosteroids 7) Gastrointestinal disease 8) Hemorrhage 9) Asthma 10) Pregnancy/Lactation

Question 37

A 17 year-old male castrated domestic shorthaired cat has firm swelling and pain of the skin covering the 3rd digit of the left forepaw. Thoracic radiographs reveal a single, large (7cm diameter) pulmonary mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 37

Pulmonary adenocarcinoma with metastasis to the digit. In cats, this tumor has the unusual behavior of originating in the lungs and metastasizing peripherally, especially to the extremities (''lung-digit syndrome), rather than the opposite direction.

Question 38

Name the unique organ that is susceptible to injury from the chemotherapeutic drug doxorubicin, but that vincristine, L-asparaginase, corticosteroids, and most other anti-neoplasic drugs do not affect adversely.

Answer 38

The heart. Cardiotoxicosis manifests as irreversible dilated cardiomyopathy, typically if a threshold (cumulative lifetime dose of 240 mg/m2) is exceded.

Question 39

What is the most common cause of a sudden inability to close the mouth in dogs?

Answer 39

Trigeminal neuritis (bilateral)

Question 40

A colleague of yours spayed an adult female cat last year and now the cat is showing signs of estrus. What are three possible explanations?

Answer 40

1) Ectopic/unidentified ovarian tissue that was not removed 2) A segment of ovary was removed but dropped during the surgery, has revascularized and is now active 3) All ovarian tissue was correctly removed and the cat is exposed exogenously (classically, the cat is ingesting human hormone-replacement medication in the household)

Question 41

What are the 3 major infectious causes of feline upper respiratory tract infection complex?

Answer 41

1) Feline herpesvirus-1 (feline rhinotracheitis virus) 2) Feline Calicivirus 3) Chlamydophila psittaci

Question 42

An older Shetland sheepdog has had lethargy, anorexia, and signs of bone pain for a few weeks. Bone marrow plasmacytosis and osteolytic bone lesions are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 42

Multiple myeloma

Question 43

Which signs are commonly noted in association with Bufo toad intoxication in the dog?

Answer 43

Neurologic signs (Seizures, ataxia,...), profuse salivation, brick-red mucous membranes, and cardiac arrhythmias

Question 44

In cats, what is the difference between urinary marking and urinary incontinence?

Answer 44

Marking: Urination for hierarchical purposes, usually involving small amounts of urine, commonly on vertical surfaces, and without an underlying medical problem. Urinary Incontinence: Inadvertent passage of urine as a clinical manifestation of illness (urinalysis/CBC/serum biochemistry profile/thyroxine level often abnormal).

Question 45

A puppy has a protozoal infection that has caused ascending hindlimb paralysis, polyradiculoneuritis, and granulomatous polymyositis. Acute and convalescent Toxoplasma titers are negative. What is the most likely etiology?

Answer 45

Neospora caninum

Question 46

Which percentage of feline mammary tumors are malignant?

Answer 46

90%

Question 47

Which of the following methods identifies pregnancy earliest in the female dog? A) Abdominal radiography (mineralization of fetal skeleton) B) Abdominal ultrasonography C) Careful abdominal palpation D) Serum relaxin assay

Answer 47

B) Abdominal ultrasonography Embryonic vesicles are visible sonographically at 20 days (after LH peak), vesicles are palpable at 25 days, serum relaxin levels (produced by placenta) are elevated at 30 days, and bone mineralization is apparent at 45 days.

Question 48

Which type of adult-onset valvular heart disease is most common in the cavalier King Charles spaniel?

Answer 48

Chronic myxomatous atrioventricular valve disease, also called chronic mitral and tricuspid valve insufficiency, or valvular endocardiosis.

Question 49

What is the most common skin tumor in the dog?

Answer 49

Mast cell tumor

Question 50

Name 2 medical indications for using household, granulated sugar in small animal practice.

Answer 50

1) Orally. For acute hypoglycemia (juvenile, insulinoma, ...) 2) Topically, for wound management 3) As an osmotic for reducing the size of a prolapsed organ prior to manual reduction (e.g. vagina, uterus)

Question 51

A dog owner forgets to give heartworm preventive for 4 months. What is your best option? A) Restart preventive and check an antigen (Ag) test next year B) Administer doxycycline for the next 3 months, then check an Ag test C) Give an adulticide now and 2 doses 24h apart in 1 month

Answer 51

A) Restart preventive and check an antigen (Ag) test next year (2010 recommendations, might want to recheck that...)(aka test first and restart preventive after? not sure tho)

Question 52

Which is true about inter-dog aggression in households? A) Owners can identify who is the aggressor and who is the victim in less than 25% of cases B) Owners report improvement with treatment in a majority of cases C) When 2 dogs fight, they are usually of different sexes

Answer 52

B) Owners report improvement with treatment in a majority of cases 69% of owners report overall improvement with treatment; 71% of owners can identify aggressor and victim, and 79% of cases involve same sex-pairs.

Question 53

In canine traumatic elbow luxation, the radius and ulna usually luxate in which direction in reference to the humerus?

Answer 53

Laterally

Question 54

A 10 month-old West Highland white terrier presents with reported painful mastication. On examination you note masticatory muscle atrophy and irregular thickening of the mandibles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 54

Craniomandibular osteopathy (lion jaw)

Question 55

What is the most common cause of nasal mycotic infections in cats?

Answer 55

Cryptococcus spp.

Question 56

A 6 year-old male castrated Pomeranian has patchy hair loss with hyperpigmentation of alopecic areas and no pruritus. Skin biopsy reveals excessive trichilemmal keratinization (''flame follicles''). What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 56

Alopecia X, an idiopathic (likely endocrine) disorder of adult dogs that is mainly of cosmetic, not medical, importance.

Question 57

A dog that has been receiving topical medication for otitis externa daily for 2 months is now showing signs of hyperadrenocorticism. What is the cause?

Answer 57

Chronic glucocorticoid therapy (iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism) from systemic absorption of the topical preparation.

Question 58

The owner of a 4 year-old domestic shorthaired cat has been feeding raw liver as the sole food source ''to make him stronger''. On physical exam, the cat shows lameness, rigid neck ventroflexion, and a dry, scaly haircoat. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 58

Vitamin A toxicosis

Question 59

A newborn kitten develops neonatal isoerythrolysis. What is the most likely reason? A) Kitten has type A blood and queen is type B B) Kitten has type B blood and queen is type A C) Kitten has either type A or type B blood and queen is type A

Answer 59

A) Kitten has type A blood and queen is type B Adult cats with type B blood have strong, native, anti-A alloantibodies that are passed on through the colostrum. A nursing kitten with type A blood therefore ingests antibodies that lyse its erythrocytes. The reverse (queen A, kitten B) occurs but anti-B antibodies are weak and the effect is much milder.

Question 60

Name 4 biochemical imbalances that commonly require treatment as part of managing severe diabetic ketoacidosis.

Answer 60

1) Acidemia/Acidosis 2) Hyperglycemia 3) Hypoglycemia 4) Hypokalemia 5) Hypomagnesemia 6) Hypophosphatemia 7) Ketosis

Question 61

Which breed of dog is conspicuously overrepresented with respect to developing gallbladder disease?

Answer 61

Shetland sheepdogs (Shelties)

Question 62

What is the most common species of bacteria found in feline pyothorax?

Answer 62

Pasteurella spp.

Question 63

What are 3 differences between tick paralysis as it occurs in the U.S. versus Australia?

Answer 63

1) Animal species affected (U.S.: dogs only; Australia = Dogs and cats) 2) Course after tick removal (U.S. = Rapid clinical improvement within less than 24h, Australia = initial worsening for 24-48h) 3) Patient's cranial nerve and autonomic nerve deficits (U.S. = Rare, Australia = Common and profound) 4) Tick life stage infecting (U.S. = adult ticks only, Australia = all stages) 5) Tick species (U.S.= Dermacentor, Australia = Ixodes)

Question 64

When reducing an elbow luxation, the elbow is flexed in order to rotate and hook which structure in the olecranon fossa?

Answer 64

The anconeal process of the ulna

Question 65

Why might a dog with heartworm disease - but no tick-borne diseases - potentially need to be treated with doxycycline?

Answer 65

Wolbachia spp. infection. These bacteria live inside adult heartworms, and elimination of the bacteria may compromise the worms (e.g. sterilize or kill Wolbachia bearing heartworms).

Question 66

What is the retinal pattern of the canine and feline fundus?

Answer 66

Holangiotic, meaning the retinal blood supply comes from central or cilioretinal arteries.

Question 67

Which family of dog breeds has a metabolic defect in biliary copper excretion?

Answer 67

Terriers. Notably Bedlington terriers in which it is proven to be an autosomal-recessive trait.

Question 68

Name the intravenous drug that leads to the breakdown of microtubules, causing platelet release from the megakaryocytes, and which is therefore used for treatment of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia?

Answer 68

Vincristine

Question 69

Normal hearing of environmental sounds in puppies usually develops by: A) 2-3 weeks B) 4-5 weeks C) 6-7 weeks D) 8-9 weeks

Answer 69

B) 4-5 weeks

Question 70

Name 3 key treatments used for initial stabilization of a gastric dilation-volvulus patient prior to surgery.

Answer 70

1) IV fluids 2) Oxygen supplementation 3) Gastric decompression 4) Management of any cardiac arrhythmias 5) Analgesia

Question 71

What is the primary route of elimination of digoxin on dogs and cats?

Answer 71

Renal

Question 72

A 3 year-old Maltese dog is presented to you because the owners have noticed fine, whole-body tremors for the last 4 months. The tremors seem to worsen with exercise and disappear during sleep. What is the recommended treatment?

Answer 72

Immunosuppression, typically with glucocorticoids. The presumptive diagnosis is idiopathic tremor syndrome (''white shaker dog''), a glucocorticoid-responsive, presumed autoimmune disruption of conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the CNS.

Question 73

What is the prognosis for dogs with trigeminal neuritis? A) Good, most cases self-resolve B) Guarded, secondary complications are common C) Poor, most cases do not recover

Answer 73

A) Good, most cases self-resolve Most recover spontaneously in about 3 weeks. Bilaterally affected dogs must be fed and watered by hand for the first 7-10 days. Treatment with corticosteroids is not necessary as it has not been shown to influence the rate of recovery.

Question 74

Name an NSAID that can be used in the treatment of transitional cell carcinomas of the urinary bladder.

Answer 74

Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibiting NSAIDs like piroxicam (Feldene) and meloxicam (Metacam). They are thought to reduce the size of some carcinomas by reducing angiogenesis and increasing apoptosis.

Question 75

Boxers commonly develop superficial corneal ulcers characterized by delayed healing, with a loose rim of epithelium at the ulcer margin. What is the name of this class of ulceration?

Answer 75

Indolent ulcer, or spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect (SCCED)

Question 76

Name 3 treatment options for chronic idiopathic chylothorax in the cat.

Answer 76

1) Low-fat diet 2) Oral administration of rutin, a nutritional supplement with putative macrophage-activating properties 3) Pericardiectomy 4) Periodic centesis 5) Pleurodesis 6) Pleuroperitoneal shunt placement 7) Thoracic duct ligation

Question 77

A middle-aged pointer dog is acutely paraplegic, with no history of trauma. Tomographic imaging shows mild spinal cord swelling from T11 to L3 without cord compression or mass effect. What is your treatment approach? A) Anticoagulation B) Laminectomy C) Nursing care

Answer 77

C) Nursing care The presumptive diagnosis from this information is fibrocartilaginous embolism; options (A) and (B) are thus contraindicated.

Question 78

A 14 year-old male castrated golden retriever dog has acute-inset, idiopathic vestibular disease. Which of the following is NOT likely? A) Circling B) Head tilt towards the side of the lesion C) Vertical nystagmus

Answer 78

C) Vertical nystagmus Which occurs only with central vestibular diseases (whereas idiopathic vestibular disease is a peripheral vestibular disorder)

Question 79

A Brittany spaniel ''came up lame'' on her left forelimb approximately 1 month ago, seemed fine for a while, but now stands with the elbow rotated medially. You note a decreased range of motion in the shoulder. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 79

Infraspinatus contracture. Injury to the infraspinatus muscle can lead to fibrosis and muscle shortening. Patients typically will return to a normal gait after surgical removal of the fibrous portion of the muscle.

Question 80

A 5 year-old spayed German shepherd presents with epiphora, temporal corneal neovascularization, and corneal pigmentation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 80

Chronic superficial keratitis (pannus)

Question 81

Which proportion of cats presented promptly for veterinary care after lily ingestion develops renal failure? A) Less than 15% B) 25-40% C) 50-70% D) More than 75%

Answer 81

A) Less than 15% The vast majority of cats that ingest lilies and are presented for veterinary care prior to the onset of clinical signs do well. They respond to treatment and/or ingested a dose that does not cause detectable renal insufficiency.

Question 82

What is the most common cause of recurrent conjunctivitis in cats?

Answer 82

Feline herpesvirus-1

Question 83

Which proportion (approximate) of canine mammary tumors are benign?

Answer 83

Approximately 50%

Question 84

If performing feline onychectomy, should you place the tourniquet proximal or distal to the elbow? Why?

Answer 84

Distal, to avoid damage to the radial, median or ulnar nerves

Question 85

Name 2 electrocardiographic findings that should prompt you to slow or stop an intravenous calcium infusion in a hypocalcemic dog or cat?

Answer 85

1) Bradycardia 2) Premature ventricular complexes 3) Shortening of the QT interval

Question 86

A dog's history, physical exam, and spinal radiographs suggest diskospondylitis. Name 4 diagnostic tests that are indicated to help confirm or rule out the diagnosis.

Answer 86

1) CBC 2) Urine culture and sensitivity 3) Brucella canis titer 4) Blood culture and sensitivity 5) Fine-needle aspiration of the disk space for cytology and culture 6) Surgical curettage of disk space for culture and sensitivity 7) Magnetic resonance imaging and/or computed tomography

Question 87

Insulin resistance, enlargement of the head and feet, and a protruding mandible are signs of which endocrinopathy in cats?

Answer 87

Acromegaly

Question 88

In a majority of dogs, how long does it take for vessel occlusion to occur after ameroid constrictor placement for a portosystemic shunt? A) 12-24 h B) 5-7 days C) 25-30 days D) 60-90 days

Answer 88

C) 25-30 days After one month, more than half of dogs have complete shunt occlusion; a further 1/4 of dogs have occlusion in the ensuing months, and the remainder have residual flow (partial attenuation)

Question 89

As a veterinarian at a sled dog race, you evaluate a dog with frostbite. The skin defect extends from the prepuce to the medial thigh. Which axial flap pattern is optimal for repairing this lesion?

Answer 89

Caudal superficial epigastric axial flap

Question 90

Name the preferred treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder in dogs. A) Monitor without intervention, as most cases are self-resolving B) Offer different activities C) Redirect the pet's compulsive behavior D) The owner should re-establish dominance using vocal reprimends

Answer 90

C) Redirect the pet's compulsive behavior Redirecting stereotypical behavior can distract the dog and help break the cycle of repetition. Any form of punishment (D) is deleterious. Routines (B) are beneficial, and early treatment (A) is recommended for greatest likelihood of successful outcomes.

Question 91

Of cytauxzoonosis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and canine monocytic ehrlichiosis, which is characterized by a fulminant, rapid course that includes neurologic signs in a majority of cases, and can affect humans?

Answer 91

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Question 92

An owner believes that his male puppy is female because urine is voided from the perineum. On physical exam, you identify that the prepuce and penis are malformed: a full-thickness cleft exposes the urethral lumen on the entire length of the prepuce and distal penis. Name this malformation.

Answer 92

Hypospadias. It is also called ''pseudohermaphroditism'', and animals may be genetically male, female, or intersex.

Question 93

A cat has been excessively grooming such that the entire caudal ventral abdomen is completely alopecic, Before making a final diagnosis of psychogenic alopecia, you perform a simple, therapeutic medical procedure (not involving the skin) in the exam room. Which one?

Answer 93

You express the anal sacs. Cats with abdominal or perineal pain may manifest their discomfort via excessive grooming of the abdomen.

Question 94

What are the top 3 differential diagnoses for a dog or cat with acute pelvic limb paraplegia and no history of trauma?

Answer 94

Intervertebral disc disease; Fibrocartilaginous embolism; and neoplasia (a tumor can be slowly compressive without causing clinical signs until vascular autoregulation is suddenly overwhelmed followed by rapid progression to paraplegia)

Question 95

A 14 year-old West Highland white terrier with chronic cough has loud pulmonary crackles and normal heart sounds on auscultation, cyanosis with exercise, and hypertrophied abdominal musculature. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 95

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis. The absence of a heart murmur and chronicity of signs make pulmonary edema less likely; the age and breed are very suggestive of pulmonary fibrosis.

Question 96

A 1 year-old Labrador retriever collapses after vigorously playing for 10 minutes. He is alert, but unable to rise. Patellar reflexes are absent, pain and withdrawal reflexes are intact. After 15 minutes, the dog recovers completely. What is the most likely breed-associated diagnosis?

Answer 96

Exercise-induced collapse in Labrador retrievers (Myasthenia gravis would be another ddx). There is no specific tx, other than restricting activity to prevent future collapse episodes, and the disease is non-progressive.

Question 97

Canine histiocytic sarcoma is an aggressive neoplasm of which cell line?

Answer 97

Macrophage (or antigen-presenting dendritic cell)

Question 98

You are presented with a dog whose face is covered with embedded porcupine quills. Regarding quill removal, name 3 complications to avoid.

Answer 98

1) Inadequate analgesia 2) Failing to remove all quills (general anesthesia for full oral examination is ESSENTIAL) 3) Quill breakage (grasp gently at base and pull without twisting) 4) Delayed removal (risk of infection and worsening of inflammation and pain)

Question 99

Name 3 treatments for severe hyperkalemia.

Answer 99

1) Calcium gluconate IV 2) Fluid therapy (dilutional plus volume reexpansion) 3) Insulin and dextrose IV 4) Sodium bicarbonate and of course 5) Treatment of underlying cause (relief of obstruction of urinary tract, treatment of hypoadrenal crisis, repair of ruptures urinary bladder, ...)

Question 100

A 9 year-old toy poodle has mitral regurgitation due to myxomatous valve disease; besides the murmur, there are no overt signs. Which treatment is best? A) Furosemide B) Pimobendan C) Sodium-restricted food D) Monitor without treatment

Answer 100

D) Monitor without treatment The other treatments are indicated only once the disease has reached the point of causing congestive heart failure (pulmonary edema)