LATG Tests Flashcards
1
Q
Which term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of a phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?
A
Additive
2
Q
Which drug is often combined with benzodiazepine tranquilizers to induce a dissociative state and provide pain relief and sedation?
A
Ketamine
3
Q
In which species does the administration of morphine frequently induce vomiting and defecation?
A
Dogs
4
Q
What is the most common side effect of NSAIDSs?
A
Gastro irritation
5
Q
In which species is atropine not effective to reduce salivation under anesthesia?
A
Rabbits
6
Q
What do high concentrations of neutrophils usually indicate?
A
active baterial infection
7
Q
In which technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?
A
Computed Tomography
8
Q
Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?
A
Luciferin
9
Q
Which disease of rodents affects the salivary glands and the Harderian glands?
A
Sialodacryoadenitis
10
Q
What is the definition of virulence?
A
Pathogenicity of an organism
11
Q
What is a major advantage of flexible isolators compared to rigid isolators?
A
Less expensive to manufacture
12
Q
What function does a transfer sleeve serve?
A
Connect the supply cylinder to isolator entry port
13
Q
If a genetically modified mouse is dying and cannot be saved, it is important to attempt to save which of the following?
A
Gonads
14
Q
Which of the following order of steps should be followed to produce gene-targeted animals?
A
• Injection of superovulating hormone (PMSG); injection of egg-releasing hormone (hCG); mating with stud male; harvesting of embryo
15
Q
If a transgene is integrated in one of the chromosomes of a pair, the animal is said to be:
A
Hemizygous
16
Q
If only one allele is mutated using CRISPR/Cas9, what is the resulting animal known as?
A
Mosaic animal
17
Q
How do restriction enzymes cut DNA in a sample into several smaller pieces?
A
They bind at specific base pair sequences and cut the DNA at those sites
18
Q
How has qPCR made environmental testing possible?
A
Only a tiny amount of RNA is needed for a valid measurement
19
Q
Which of the following is NOT an example of a monosaccharide
A
Sucrose
20
Q
What breaks down dietary fiber?
A
BActeria
21
Q
Ferrets and cats must have a diet containing which organic acid?
A
Taurine
22
Q
Which condition can newborns with phenylketonuria (PKU) develop?
A
Mental retardation
23
Q
Which of the following is used to represent an estimate of the reasonable level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without adverse effects?
A
Threshold limit value
24
Q
Regulations and standards for USDA- regulated species are specified in which of the following?
A
Animal Welfare Act
25
What is one of the main factors that determine the number of sentinels used?
Expected morbidity of the agents being monitored
26
How soon after exposure should a sentinel be tested for a specific pathogen?
3 to 6 weeks post exposure
27
Which of the following is NOT provided by data obtained from microbial monitoring?
Confirmation of the validity of study results
28
Which USDA publication clarifies the intent of the Animal Welfare Act?
Animal care policy manual
29
PHS policy assurance is resubmitted every:
5 years
30
Which statement is FALSE regarding actions taken after a USDA inspection?
Elements on an inspection report can be negotiated after the exit briefing
31
Which of the following is NOT included in the general provisions of the GLP regulations?
Sterilization procedures
32
Which of the following is often referred to as the Worker Right-to-Know legislation?
OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard
33
Which statement regarding the disposal of low-level radioactive waste is FALSE?
The Agreement States are responsible for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste in all states.
34
Which statement is FALSE regarding post-approval monitoring programs?
There are many state regulations with specific requirements for post-approval monitoring programs.
35
Which group does NOT generally play a role in developing the animal facility's security plan?
Grants and programs
36
The secretion of antibodies occurs during which step of the acquired immune response
Response
37
Which cells of the immune system develop into plasma cells?
Bcells
38
What cells do SCID mice lack:
T and B cells
39
Which statement applies to chronic immune complex diseases?
There is an accumulation of antigen-antibody complexes in the bloodstream.
40
Many different organisms can grow in a(n) ___ agar, but differences in their reactions can be observed
Differential agar
41
Bacteria staining pink with Gram stain are called _________.
Gram negative
42
Bacteria staining Purple with cell wall Gram stain are called _________.
Gram positive
43
Three shapes of bacteria
Cocci, bacilli, spiral
44
Mosquitoes are vectors for the transmission of which of the following parasites?
Heartworms
45
What kind of parasites are nematodes
Round worms
46
What kind of parasitres are Trematodes
Flukes
47
What kind of parasites are cestodes
Flatworms
48
At necropsy, which finding is most likely in an animal infected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?
Scarred lungs
49
Which of the following is least likely to cause intestinal inflammation in mice or rats?
Mycoplasma spp.
50
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of feline respiratory disease?
Dry cough
51
Which disease may result in the sudden death of large numbers of fish in the aquaria?
Gas bubble diease
52
Which disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?
Mycobacteriosis
53
Mycobacteriosis in fish is thought to spread through which of the following?
Cannibalism of dead tank mates
54
Which method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?
Cellophane tape test
55
Which imaging modality uses molecules that produce a certain light wavelength when exposed to ultraviolet light?
Fluorescence
56
The use of ivermectin should be avoided or carefully controlled in which group of animals
Certain dogs
57
Which factor is an advantage of barbiturate agents?
Time to loss of consciousness
58
What is one precaution that must be considered when using urethane as an anesthetic agent?
Protective equipment
59
When using rebreathing anesthesia systems, which of the following reaches the animal's lungs?
A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases
60
In rebreathing systems, the exhaled gases pass through a canister that absorbs which of the following?
Carbon dioxide
61
What is the tidal volume for most laboratory animals?
15-20ml/kg
62
What does an ultrasonic Doppler flow detector measure?
Blood pressure
63
If results from a study can be replicated in some animal studies but not in others, the study lacks:
generality.
64
The confidence level is an index of:
Certainty
65
The probability that the difference observed in the data happened by chance and is due to normal distribution rather than to the experimental treatment is known as the:
P-value
66
What is a serious complication associated with the use of the anesthetic tribromoethanol
Intestinal ileus
67
Which measure is unnecessary when using an open-drop chamber to anesthetize an animal?
Ensure that enough oxygen is delivered to sustain the animal's metabolic needs.
68
Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?
Glucose
69
Which tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?
Lymph node
70
How is rumen stasis generally treated?
Administration of warmed saline and electrolytes
71
Which of the following is a common fungal infection in zebrafish?
Pseudoloma neurophilia
72
What are the three steps involved in an acquired immunity response to a foreign substance?
Recognition, amplification, and resolution
73
When wild type females are bred to hemizygous males, what percentage of the resulting pups can be expected to have the transgene?
50%
74
Which statement is FALSE regarding the collection and purification of DNA?
Collecting DNA involves physically breaking open some cells.
75
The deficiency of which essential micromineral results in impaired glucose metabolism?
Chromium
76
Which of the following techniques uses a radioisotope to provide images of in vivo biological processes?
Positron emmision tomography (glucose)
77
Electrophoresis is a technique used to___________ the DNA fragments.
Separate
78
Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting which part of the gastrointestinal system?
small intestine
79
What do depressed levels of neutrophils usually indicate?
Active viral infection
80
What do increased levels of neutrophils usually indicate?
ACtive bacterial infection
81
Sentinel animals should be at least what age?
8-12 weeks
82
Stud males should be what age:
3-8months
83
What is the first class of immunoglobulins to be synthesized by a fetus or newborn in response to an antigen?
IgM
84
Most abundant immunoglobulin
IgG
85
What is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder
From disease or cancer
86
Light levels of __________foot-candles at _______meter(s) above the floor are adequate for most routine care procedures.
30,1
87
What does the specific gravity of urine measure?
Kidneys ability to concentrate urine
88
Which of the following is the best definition of tidal volume?
Tidal volume
89
What best defines the term “variable” as used in the biomedical research field?
It represents anything that can affect the results of a study.
90
Which of the following statements apply to the pinworm Aspiculuris tetraptera?
It can only be detected following necropsy
91
The USDA APHIS Annual Report of Enforcement is based in part on which of the following?
Annual reports submitted to USDA by registered facilities
92
What technique is most used to detect Helicobacter spp.?
PCR (polymerase chain reaction
93
What best describes gamma radiation?
type of electromagnetic radiation.
94
What can the multiplex fluorescent immunoassay detect?
Presence of viral antibodies
95
What is a common method used to detect exposure to viral pathogens?
ELISA
96
Levels of light photo intensity above ______ foot- candles can cause retinal damage in some albino animals.
75
97
What must be absent from the diet of an animal to be used for fluorescent imaging?
cellulose?
98
During magnetic resonance imaging, which ions realign with the magnetic field
Hydrogen
99
Toxocara canis is which type of parasite?
ascarid
100
An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:
cutaneous capillaris
101
In which three species should penicillin not be used or used only for short periods of time?
rabbits, g pigs, gerbils
102
Which enzyme works with gastric acid to break down protein in the digestive system?
Pepsin
103
Steroids belong in which group of organic compounds?
Lipids
104
Which reflex is maintained if ketamine is the sole anesthetic agent used?
Larygneal
105
A drug interaction that results in reduced effect of one or both drugs is called:
antagonistic
106
For which condition are cephalosporins often used?
Conditions that have shown resistance to other antibiotics
107
What makes rabbits prone to blockages caused by hairballs?
small pyloric lumen
108
What should be used to clear Clostridium pilliforme from equipment?
antisporicidal sterilant
109
Guinea pigs housed on wire floors may have inflamed, swollen, and painful feet due to infection with which organism?
S, Aureus
110
Which of the following is described as the cessation or reduction in the motility of a ruminant's stomach due to indigestion caused by a change within the animal?
Rumen stasis
111
Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?
staph hyicus
112
What is the term for the stainless steel container in which materials and supplies are sterilized before placing in the isolator?
supply cylinder
113
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate sterilization method for gnotobiotic systems?
carbon dioxide
114
Which statement is true of axenic animals as compared to animals with normal microflora?
lower white blood cell counts
115
Which statement applies to haploid cells?
germ cells
116
In which process does a eukaryotic cell nucleus split into two identical cells, followed by the division of the parent cell into two daughter cells?
Mitosis
117
Which statement is TRUE regarding mitosis and meiosis?
Mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells, and meiosis results in four haploid daughter cells.
118
Cloning DNA is accomplished by either polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or by using:
bacteria
119
Which statement regarding isoflavone is FALSE?
Isoflavones may strengthen the immune response
120
Exposure to which of the following is a potential hazard related to the use of lasers during surgery?
aerosols and gases
121
Which type of sampling can be used in place of bedding sentinels?
envrionmental dust
122
To be compliant with OLAW, what document should be the basis of the IACUC review of the institution's program for the use and care of animals?
The guide
123
Where should a laboratory animal technologist obtain specific information regarding regulations on the transport of research animals?
The regulatory documents
124
Which agency is responsible for issuing permits for importing or exporting wild species?
US fish and wildlife services
125
What should be the IACUC's first step in responding to a report of noncompliance?
Identify the underlying causes.
126
Which document states that an animal facility must develop a disaster plan?
The guide
127
When charging for services by time and materials, how are total labor costs calculated?
An hourly rate is multiplied by the number of service hours provided over a period of time.
128
In case phone lines and cell towers are down, which of the following may be needed?
prearranged meeting site
129
Which parasiticide is used to treat pinworms in rodents?
fenbendazole
130
Which type of bedding is required in GLP studies?
certified
131
Serology is testing of serum for the presence or absence of:
antibodies
132
Which of the following represents a difference between the Animal Welfare Act and the PHS Policy?
PHS Policy covers mice, rats, and birds.
133
Which disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?
Ich
134
Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?
aminoglycosides
135
Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?
aminoglycosides
136
Which procedure determines the level of mRNA transcripts in a sample?
quant rt-pcr
137
Which organization accredits research institutions with high-quality programs that meet federal laws and guidelines?
AAALAC
138
Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
linoleic acid
139
Which micromineral is an important component of Vitamin B12?
cobalt
140
Which micromineral is an important component of Vitamin B12?
cobalt
141
Why are foundation colonies generally maintained in the defined flora state instead of in the axenic state?
litter size optimize
142
Which statement best describes diploid cells?
chomes. exsist in pairs
143
How many days does it generally take for an animal to develop an immune response to an agent?
10-14
144
Which organization has developed standards and guidelines to help prevent the transmission of zoonoses through importation of animals?
The World Organization for Animal Health
145
Which statement best describes the intent of the "mirror principle"?
Your employees will generally react toward you the way you act toward them.
146
If it becomes necessary for the supervisor to get involved in a conflict between two employees, a good approach is to:
have them describe in writing specific actions they find objectionable.
147
What purpose do subsidies serve?
To reduce costs to run the facility
148
Among the following facilities, which one is generally thought to be at the lowest risk of being targeted by animal rights activists?
Facility housing only fish and amphibians
149
Which task can wait until after staff are allowed to return to the facility?
Assessing the disaster plan
150
How often should a research facility using regulated species update their USDA registration?
3 years
151
Who makes unannounced facility inspections at least once a year?
Veterinary medical officers from APHIS
152
Which agency is responsible for issuing permits for importing or exporting wild species?
US fish and wildlife services FWS
153
Which statement is FALSE regarding post-approval monitoring programs?
There are many state regulations with specific requirements for post-approval monitoring programs.
154
As a radioactive substance decays, the energy and particles that are emitted are referred to by which term?
radiation
155
Which type of radiation is electromagnetic radiation generated non-radioactively?
Xrays
156
What is a method by which an animal can be given passive immunity?
giving the animal preformed antibodies
157
In AIDS, the HIV virus destroys which of the cells involved in the immune response?
Th cells and macrophages
158
The major histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) are found on the surface of which cells?
t cells
159
What best describes a transgenic animal?
An animal whose chromosomes contain DNA from an external source
160
What is a transgene?
The fragment of DNA that is introduced into the nucleus of a cell
161
If fertilized eggs are required, along with egg donor females, which animals are required?
stud males
162
Which of the following is NOT a dietary macromineral?
copper
163
Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
linoleic acid
164
Which carbohydrate classification is also known as starch?
Polysaccharide
165
Insufficient dietary fiber in rabbits can cause which of the following?
Trichobezoars
166
Which species are carriers of B. bronchiseptica and so should not be housed in the same areas as guinea pigs?
Rabbits
167
Which of the following clinical signs in NOT associated with Aleutian disease in ferrets?
ocular discharge
168
What treatment is recommended for dogs diagnosed with canine parvovirus?
Intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and analgesics
169
What causes most of the illness of pasteurellosis in ruminants?
bacterial endotoxin
170
What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?
Microsporidiosis
171
Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?
PRRSV
172
Which disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?
mycobacteriosis
173
Which disease in fish can be successfully treated with repeated dilute formalin baths?
ich
174
A goat that is staggering and kicking their belly most likely has which condition?
grain overload
175
Which is a clinical sign of coccidiosis?
Altered liver function
176
At necropsy, which finding is most likely in an animal infected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?
Scarred lungs
177
Helicobacter spp. are most commonly diagnosed with which technique
PCR
178
Which mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in facilities in the United States and Canada?
Mouse norovirus
179
Which tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?
lymph node
180
Which method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?
cellophane tape test
181
Which of the following is an example of a contrast medium?
Gadolinium
182
In which technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?
Computed tomography
183
Who is typically responsible for space management in a facility?
The manager in collaboration with the veterinarians and senior scientific staff
184
Which management function most directly affects accomplishment of the mission of the institution and animal care program?
goal setting
185
Under which circumstance does cost containment need to be considered
When year-to-date expenses exceed what was budgeted
186
What purpose do subsidies serve?
To reduce costs to run the facility
187
When charging for services by time and materials, how are total labor costs calculated?
An hourly rate is multiplied by the number of service hours provided over a period of time.
188
Which USDA publication clarifies the intent of the Animal Welfare Act?
Animal Care Policy Manual
189
Which statement best describes AAALAC's program status evaluation?
It is a confidential peer review process
190
Which of the following is/are part of the IACUC inspection criteria?
All records required by the AWA and PHS must be available for review.
191
What is the most important component of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) right-to-know program?
Employee training and information program
192
Which documents are available through FOIA and E-FOIA?
USDA inspection reports and PHS letters of assurance
193
What does southern blot detect
DNA
194
What does northern blot detect
RNA
195
What does western blot detect
Protein
196
A ___________ is a flexible plastic tube used to add material to or remove material from the
isolator.
transfer sleeve
197
What does the specific gravity of urine reflect?
kidney’s ability to concentrate or dilute urine
198
Which of the following laboratory animals has been used as an animal model for the overt form of leprosy?
armadillo Dasypus novemcinctus
199
What is the genus and species of the gray short tailed opossum?
Mondelphis domestica
200
Mice and rats are related and belong to which suborder?
myomorpha
201
is the most commonly used phenothiazine tranquilizer.
acepromazine, acetylpromazine
202
What are two alternatives methods that can be used to reduce or eliminate the noise that typically is used in traditional fire alarms?
Low frequency sounds or long wavelength red flashing lights
203
Biochemical markers used to monitor genetic integrity include:
proteins
204
What is a main factor for determining the number animals used as sentinels?
expected morbidity of the agents being monitored
205
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta and offers protection to the newborn during the first few weeks of life?
IgG
206
What best defines the term antibody titer?
A measurement of the amount of antibody present
207
Fusing a plasma cell with a tumor cell gives creates ________ that are used to produce__________.
hybridomas; monoclonal antibodies
208
Which scenario applies to the production of chimeras?
Embryos are harvested at the blastocyst stage
