LE 1 Flashcards

Question

What is the maximum duration for the symptoms of a Brief Psychotic Disorder? a) 1 day b) 1 week c) 1 month d) 6 months

Answer 1

c) 1 month Rationale: For a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder, symptoms must be present for at least 1 day but less than 1 mont

Answer 2

c) Brief Psychotic Disorder Rationale: After the episode of Brief Psychotic Disorder, the individual returns to his or her usual level of functioning.

Answer 3

b) An external life stress Rationale: Brief Psychotic Disorder can be precipitated by an external life stress.

Answer 4

b) At least 1 month but less than 6 months Rationale: Schizophreniform Disorder is characterized by the same active phase symptoms of schizophrenia, but it lasts between 1 and 6 months.

Answer 5

d) Schizophreniform Disorder Rationale: Schizophreniform Disorder lacks the prodromal or residual phase features of social or occupational impairment.

Answer 6

b) Duration of symptoms Rationale: The key distinguishing factor is the duration of the symptoms, with Schizophreniform Disorder lasting between 1 to 6 months and Schizophrenia requiring symptoms to persist for at least 6 months.

Answer 7

c) At least 2 weeks Rationale: Individuals with Schizoaffective Disorder have delusions or hallucinations for at least 2 weeks without the presence of significant mood symptoms.

Answer 8

b) Duration of psychosis in relation to mood symptoms Rationale: In Schizoaffective Disorder, the psychotic symptoms must be present without significant mood symptoms for at least 2 weeks, which is not a requirement in Mood Disorder with psychotic features.

Answer 9

c) Both a and b Rationale: Schizoaffective Disorder is characterized by both the active phase symptoms of schizophrenia and the presence of a manic or depressive syndrome.

Answer 10

c) Use of psychoactive or other substances Rationale: This disorder is characterized by symptoms of psychosis resulting from the use of psychoactive or other substances.

Answer 11

a) Cocaine Rationale: Cocaine, among other psychoactive substances, can lead to psychotic symptoms and thereby cause Substance/Medication-Induced Psychotic Disorder.

Answer 12

d) The direct effect of a substance or medication Rationale: The key distinguishing feature of this disorder is that the psychotic symptoms are directly caused by a substance or medication, rather than other underlying factors.

Answer 13

c) The cause of the psychotic symptoms Rationale: Psychotic Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition is characterized by hallucinations or delusions that arise as a result of a specific medical condition, while Substance/Medication-Induced Psychotic Disorder is due to the use of psychoactive substances or medications.

Answer 14

a) Meningitis Rationale: Conditions like meningitis can lead to psychosis, thus categorizing it under Psychotic Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition.

Answer 15

b) Migraine headaches Rationale: While migraines can have neurological symptoms, they typically do not result in psychosis like the other listed conditions can.

Answer 16

b) Excessive speech Rationale: Features of catatonia include motor abnormalities such as mutism, posturing, negativism, and catalepsy, but not excessive speech.

Answer 17

d) All of the above Rationale: Catatonia can be associated with various mental disorders, including schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and major depressive disorder, as well as other medical conditions.

Answer 18

b) Waxy flexibility where the individual maintains postures for extended periods Rationale: Catalepsy, associated with catatonia, involves a type of rigidity where a person's limbs remain in whatever position they're placed.

Answer 19

c) Manic Episode Rationale: Bipolar I Disorder is characterized by at least one manic or mixed manic-depressive episode.

Answer 20

b) Four episodes in 12 months Rationale: Rapid cycling in Bipolar I Disorder is defined by at least four episodes within a 12-month span.

Answer 21

d) Euphoric Rationale: The current episode types for Bipolar I Disorder include manic, hypomanic, depressed, or mixed, but not euphoric.

Answer 22

a) Bipolar

Answer 23

c) Severity of associated impairment Rationale: Both manic and hypomanic episodes have similar symptom criteria, but the main distinction is the severity of impairment caused, which is more pronounced in mania.

Answer 24

a) Manic Episode Rationale: Bipolar II Disorder is characterized by hypomanic and major depressive episodes

Answer 25

b) 4 days Rationale: A hypomanic episode in Bipolar II Disorder requires a minimum duration of 4 days.

Answer 26

c) The bipolar equivalent to dysthymic disorder Rationale: Cyclothymic Disorder is a milder, chronic mood disorder seen as the bipolar counterpart of dysthymic disorder.

Answer 27

d) 2 years Rationale: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by multiple depressive and hypomanic episodes over at least a 2-year span.

Answer 28

d) Bipolar Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition Rationale: Bipolar Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition is diagnosed when

Answer 29

a) Major Depressive Episodes Rationale: While Cyclothymic Disorder does feature mood disturbances, it doesn't reach the severity of major depressive episodes.

Answer 30

c) Substance/Medication-Induced Bipolar Disorder Rationale: Substance/Medication-Induced Bipolar Disorder is identified when mood disturbances result from substance intoxication, withdrawal, or medication use.

Answer 31

c) Mood disturbance directly caused by a general medical condition Rationale: Bipolar Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition is diagnosed when there's evidence that a significant mood disturbance is the direct consequence of a general medical condition.

Answer 32

b) Elevated mood Rationale: Major Depressive Disorder is characterized by a depressed mood. Elevated mood is more characteristic of mania or hypomania, which are seen in bipolar disorders.

Answer 33

b) Nearly everyday Rationale: Major Depressive Disorder requires symptoms to be present most of the day, nearly every day for at least two weeks.

Answer 34

a) Normal bereavement Rationale: Normal bereavement may share some symptoms with Major Depressive Disorder, but it doesn't meet the criteria for a depressive disorder diagnosis.

Answer 35

c) At least 2 years Rationale: Persistent Depressive Disorder is characterized by a depressed mood that lasts for at least 2 years.

Answer 36

c) Persistent Depressive Disorder Rationale: Persistent Depressive Disorder, also known as Dysthymia, is a chronic form of depression that's less severe than Major Depressive Disorder but lasts longer.

Answer 37

b) Two Rationale: For a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder, the individual must have a depressed mood for most of the day, on most days, accompanied by at least two other depression symptoms.

Answer 38

c) 1 week before menses Rationale: Symptoms of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder occur roughly a week before the menses and remit after the menstrual cycle.

Answer 39

c) Manic episodes Rationale: Manic episodes are not a characteristic of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder. They are associated with bipolar disorders.

Answer 40

a) After the menstrual cycle Rationale: The symptoms of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder remit after the menstrual cycle is over.

Answer 41

b) Alcohol Rationale: Alcohol is a depressant and can induce depressive symptoms, especially when consumed in large quantities or over extended periods.

Answer 42

b) When the substance or medication is discontinued Rationale: The depressive symptoms caused by substance or medication use typically remit once the substance or medication is discontinued, though some lingering effects might require further treatment.

Answer 43

c) Hypothyroidism Rationale: Hypothyroidism can lead to various symptoms, including fatigue, weight gain, and depression, making it a medical condition that could potentially lead to a depressive disorder.

Answer 44

a) When the mood disturbance is a direct result of a medical condition. Rationale: The key distinction of this disorder is that the depression directly results from another medical condition.

Answer 45

a) Recurrent depressive episode

Answer 46

c) It is nonrecurrent. Rationale: The short-duration depressive episode, a subtype of Other Specified Depressive Disorder, is characterized by a depressed mood lasting from 4 to 14 days and is nonrecurrent.

Answer 47

b) Short-duration depressive episode

Answer 48

a) Peripartum depression Rationale: Peripartum depression occurs around parturition or within 1 month after giving birth.

Answer 49

b) Atypical depression Rationale: Atypical depression is marked by a depressed mood associated with weight gain and hypersomnia.

Answer 50

d) Melancholia Rationale: Melancholia is described as a severe form of major depression characterized by notable hopelessness, anhedonia (lack of pleasure or interest in most activities), and psychomotor retardation.

Answer 51

a) Depression that occurs at a particular time of the year, usually winter. Rationale: Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) is a subtype of Unspecified Depressive Disorder where the mood disturbance occurs typically during the winter months.

Answer 52

c) Children older than age 6 and younger than age 18 Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is specifically diagnosed in children older than age 6 and younger than age 18, characterized by severe temper tantrums and chronic irritability.

Answer 53

b) Severe temper tantrums Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is characterized by severe temper tantrums, chronic irritability, and an angry mood.

Answer 54

a) It is a form of bipolar disorder. Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is not a form of bipolar disorder; instead, it is a depressive disorder characterized by chronic irritability in children.

Answer 55

c) Sudden intense fear with heart racing Rationale: Panic disorder is characterized by sudden, intense feelings of fear or terror that come on unexpectedly.

Answer 56

b) Fear of spiders Rationale: Fear of specific entities, like spiders, is more indicative of a specific phobia. The other options are common symptoms of a panic attack.

Answer 57

c) Can arise suddenly without a clear trigger Rationale: Panic attacks can come on suddenly and are not always linked to specific triggers or situations.

Answer 58

c) Avoidance of situations where escape might be hard during an anxiety attack Rationale: While many associate agoraphobia with a fear of open spaces, it's more about avoiding situations where a person thinks they might have a panic attack and can't get away easily.

Answer 59

c) Often a result of panic disorder but can occur independently Rationale: While agoraphobia can be a consequence of panic disorder, it can also develop in individuals who have never had a panic attack.

Answer 60

c) Using public transportation Rationale: People with agoraphobia might avoid situations like using public transportation because they fear they might have a panic attack in such settings where escape could be difficult.

Answer 61

c) Intense fear of a particular object or situation Rationale: A specific phobia is an excessive fear of a specific object or situation, such as snakes, heights, or flying.

Answer 62

d) Specific phobia Rationale: A fear of flying is a type of specific phobia where the individual has an excessive fear of a particular situation, in this case, flying.

Answer 63

c) Results in severe anxiety or is avoided Rationale: When exposed to the phobic stimulus, individuals with specific phobia either feel severely anxious or go to great lengths to avoid the stimulus altogether.

Answer 64

c) Intense fear of social situations where one might be judged or embarrassed. Rationale: Social Anxiety Disorder or Social Phobia is primarily characterized by the fear of being embarrassed, humiliated, or judged in social situations.

Answer 65

b) Avoid social situations or endure them with great distress. Rationale: People with Social Anxiety Disorder tend to avoid social situations that trigger their anxiety or endure such situations with considerable distress.

Answer 66

c) Generalized. Rationale: When the phobic stimuli include most social situations, it is specified as generalized social phobia or generalized Social Anxiety Disorder.

Answer 67

b) Chronic excessive worry. Rationale: GAD is characterized by persistent, excessive worry about various things that is hard to control.

Answer 68

b) Muscle tension and restlessness. Rationale: GAD is accompanied by various symptoms, including muscle tension, physical restlessness, concentration problems, and irritability.

Answer 69

b) Shortness of breath during panic attacks. Rationale: While GAD is an anxiety disorder, it doesn't typically manifest with panic attacks. Shortness of breath during panic attacks is more indicative of Panic Disorder.

Answer 70

c) Hyperthyroidism. Rationale: Hyperthyroidism can manifest with symptoms of anxiety, thus potentially leading to the diagnosis of an Anxiety Disorder due to another medical condition.

Answer 71

a) Caffeine. Rationale: High doses of caffeine can lead to symptoms of anxiety. In contrast, Vitamin C, water, and fiber are not typically associated with anxiety.

Answer 72

c) Children. Rationale: While Separation Anxiety Disorder can technically occur in people of any age, it's predominantly diagnosed in children.

Answer 73

c) Separation from attachment figures or home. Rationale: Separation Anxiety Disorder is characterized by excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or major attachment figures.

Answer 74

d) Separation Anxiety Disorder. Rationale: One of the manifestations of Separation Anxiety Disorder is the fear that something bad will happen to a loved one if the child is not with them.

Answer 75

c) Refusing to speak in specific situations while speaking normally in others. Rationale: Selective Mutism is characterized by consistent failure to speak in specific social situations (e.g., at school) despite speaking in other situations (e.g., at home).

Answer 76

b) Selective Mutism. Rationale: While it might be related to anxiety, Selective Mutism is distinct in its manifestation, where an individual, often a child, refuses to speak in certain settings, despite being able to speak in others.

Answer 77

c) High anxiety in certain social situations. Rationale: Selective Mutism is believed to be an extreme form of Social Phobia, where the individual is so anxious they cannot speak in specific settings.

Answer 78

b) Unwanted intrusive thought. Rationale: Obsessions are repetitive and intrusive thoughts or images that are unwelcome and distressing to the individual.

Answer 79

c) To reduce anxiety caused by obsessions. Rationale: Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that individuals with OCD often feel compelled to perform, usually to reduce the anxiety caused by the obsessive thought.

Answer 80

c) Compulsion. Rationale: Repeatedly checking something is a repetitive behavior, which is characteristic of compulsions in OCD, especially if it's driven by an intrusive thought (obsession) of potential harm.

Answer 81

a) Intensity of the belief. Rationale: Body Dysmorphic Disorder is characterized by distress about an imagined or minor defect in appearance. If the belief reaches a delusional intensity, it might be diagnosed as delusional disorder, somatic type.

Answer 82

c) Body Dysmorphic Disorder. Rationale: Body Dysmorphic Disorder is characterized by an intense focus and distress over perceived or minor defects in one's physical appearance.

Answer 83

b) Physical appearance. Rationale: Body Dysmorphic Disorder revolves around distressing and impairing preoccupation with perceived physical defects, whether imagined or slight.

Answer 84

b) Risk of fire due to accumulated items. Rationale: Hoarding Disorder involves the compulsive accumulation of items, and the inability to discard them can lead to hazards like fires.

Answer 85

c) Accumulating items irrespective of their utility. Rationale: Hoarding Disorder is characterized by the compulsive accumulation of items regardless of their actual value or utility.

Answer 86

d) Hoarding Disorder. Rationale: The described behavior is characteristic of Hoarding Disorder, where there is a strong compulsion to keep items and a significant distress or difficulty in discarding them, even when they clutter living spaces.

Answer 87

b) Repetitive pulling out of one's hair. Rationale: Trichotillomania is characterized by the repeated act of pulling out one's own hair, leading to noticeable hair loss.

Answer 88

c) Head. Rationale: Trichotillomania involves hair-pulling and can affect any body area with hair, including the head, eyebrows, and pubic region. The head is a common area where the hair pulling is noticeable.

Answer 89

c) Repeatedly pulling out one's own hair. Rationale: Trichotillomania, also known as Hair-Pulling Disorder, is specifically characterized by the act of pulling out one's own hair repetitively.

Answer 90

c) Compulsive picking at one's skin. Rationale: Excoriation Disorder is primarily characterized by the compulsive act of picking at one's skin, sometimes leading to physical damage.

Answer 91

c) Skin picking. Rationale: Individuals with Excoriation (Skin-Picking Disorder) frequently pick at their skin, which can lead to scars over time.

Answer 92

d) Excoriation Disorder. Rationale: Excoriation Disorder is specifically about compulsively picking at one's skin, often leading to skin damage.

Answer 93

c) Cocaine. Rationale: Cocaine can induce formication, a sensation that resembles insects crawling on or under the skin, leading to compulsive skin picking.

Answer 94

c) Substance/Medication-Induced OCD. Rationale: When obsessions or compulsions are a direct result of a substance or medication, they are classified under Substance/Medication-Induced Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

Answer 95

b) Substance/Medication-Induced OCD. Rationale: The onset of obsessive thoughts or compulsive behaviors due to the initiation of a new medication is indicative of Substance/Medication-Induced OCD.

Answer 96

b) Streptococcal infection. Rationale: Some cases of obsessive or compulsive behavior have been associated with prior streptococcal infections, though the exact mechanisms are still under research.

Answer 97

a) Evidence of a general medical condition leading to OCD symptoms. Rationale: The diagnosis requires evidence that the obsessive or compulsive behaviors are a direct consequence of a specific medical condition.

Answer 98

c) Obsessional jealousy. Rationale: Obsessional jealousy is characterized by repeated and often unfounded thoughts about a partner's potential infidelity.

Answer 99

b) Karo. Rationale: Karo is a cultural syndrome where individuals believe that their genitalia are retracting and will eventually disappear.

Answer 100

b) Body-focused repetitive behavior disorder. Rationale: Body-focused repetitive behavior disorder includes compulsive behaviors like nail biting or lip chewing, which are not done to alleviate anxiety from specific obsessions like in traditional OCD.

Answer 101

b) Infancy or early childhood. Rationale: Reactive Attachment Disorder primarily appears in infancy or early childhood and is related to abnormal caregiving experiences.

Answer 102

c) Grossly pathological caregiving. Rationale: Reactive Attachment Disorder arises due to severe abnormalities in caregiving, leading to difficulties in forming relationships.

Answer 103

d) Reactive Attachment Disorder. Rationale: Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by significant difficulties in forming attachments, especially in early childhood.

Answer 104

c) Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder. Rationale: Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder primarily manifests in children as a deep-seated fear of interacting with unfamiliar adults, generally due to traumatic experiences.

Answer 105

c) A traumatic upbringing. Rationale: This disorder is typically linked to a traumatic or abusive background.

Answer 106

b) Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder. Rationale: Unlike other disorders, Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder represents an absence of the typical caution or fear children display towards unfamiliar adults.

Answer 107

b) Witnessing a violent event. Rationale: PTSD often results from experiencing or witnessing traumatic, violent, or life-threatening events.

Answer 108

c) Months or even years after the trauma. Rationale: While symptoms generally manifest shortly after the event, they can sometimes appear much later.

Answer 109

d) Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) Rationale: PTSD is characterized by a triad of symptoms: re-experiencing the trauma, avoidance, and hyperarousal.

Answer 110

c) ASD symptoms last for less than 1 month. Rationale: While both disorders can develop after exposure to similar traumatic events, Acute Stress Disorder is characterized by a duration of symptoms that is less than 1 month.

Answer 111

c) Acute Stress Disorder. Rationale: Acute Stress Disorder presents with immediate symptoms following trauma but typically does not last beyond a month.

Answer 112

b) Acute Stress Disorder. Rationale: If Acute Stress Disorder symptoms persist and are not treated, they can potentially develop into PTSD.

Answer 113

c) Adjustment Disorder. Rationale: Adjustment Disorders are maladaptive reactions to clearly defined life stressors.

Answer 114

b) Symptoms of both anxiety and depression. Rationale: "With mixed anxiety and depressed mood" suggests that the individual displays both anxiety and depression symptoms.

Answer 115

d) Adjustment Disorder. Rationale: Adjustment Disorders can emerge from identifiable life changes or stressors, like a divorce.

Answer 116

b) It involves extreme bitterness, anger, or intense withdrawal. Rationale: This disorder is marked by prolonged and severe symptoms that are more intense than typical grief.

Answer 117

c) Persistent Complex Bereavement Disorder. Rationale: Persistent Complex Bereavement Disorder represents an intense, extended, and complicated grieving process.

Answer 118

b) A person grieves the death of a loved one with profound bitterness and withdrawal for two years. Rationale: This disorder represents a chronic and intense grieving process that exceeds typical bereavement.

Answer 119

a. Inability to recall personal information after a stressful event. Rationale: Dissociative amnesia is primarily characterized by memory loss of significant personal information, typically related to trauma.

Answer 120

c. Dissociative amnesia. Rationale: Dissociative amnesia involves forgetting personal information, while other aspects of knowledge and skills remain intact.

Answer 121

b. A traumatic car accident. Rationale: Dissociative amnesia is usually triggered by traumatic events.

Answer 122

d. Dissociative fugue. Rationale: Dissociative fugue involves sudden and unexpected travel away from home with partial or complete memory loss about one's identity.

Answer 123

b. Sudden unexpected travel. Rationale: While both disorders involve memory loss, dissociative fugue uniquely includes the aspect of unexpected travel.

Answer 124

d. Dissociative fugue. Rationale: The sudden travel and loss of memory about one's identity after a traumatic event is indicative of dissociative fugue.

Answer 125

c. Possessing two or more distinct identities that control behavior. Rationale: The main feature of dissociative identity disorder is the presence of multiple identities that control a person's behavior.

Answer 126

b. Multiple personality disorder. Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder was formerly known as multiple personality disorder.

Answer 127

d. Dissociative identity disorder. Rationale: Switching between distinct identities with separate memories is a hallmark of dissociative identity disorder.

Answer 128

b. Depersonalization. Rationale: Depersonalization involves an altered sense of one's physical being, including feeling as if observing oneself from a distance.

Answer 129

c. Derealization. Rationale: Derealization is characterized by experiencing the environment as unreal or distorted.

Answer 130

b. Forgetting significant personal information. Rationale: Memory loss, especially of personal information, is a symptom of dissociative amnesia, not depersonalization/derealization disorder.

Answer 131

c. The misinterpretation of physical symptoms as a known medical disorder. Rationale: Somatic Symptom Disorder is characterized by persistent worry about somatic signs that are misunderstood as a known medical condition.

Answer 132

c) Somatic Symptom Disorder Rationale: Somatic Symptom Disorder was formerly recognized as hypochondriasis in older diagnostic classifications.

Answer 133

b) Significant anxiety about physical symptoms. Rationale: Somatic Symptom Disorder is characterized by heightened anxiety and persistent concern about physical symptoms which the patient might misinterpret as a known medical illness.

Answer 134

c) Frequently visit multiple healthcare professionals for the same symptoms. Rationale: Individuals with Somatic Symptom Disorder often seek multiple medical opinions due to their intense anxiety about physical symptoms.

Answer 135

c) Intense fear of having an illness despite minimal symptoms. Rationale: The hallmark of Illness Anxiety Disorder is the fear of having a serious illness despite having few or no physical symptoms.

Answer 136

d) Illness Anxiety Disorder Rationale: Illness Anxiety Disorder was introduced as a distinct diagnostic category in DSM-5, primarily centered on the fear of illness.

Answer 137

b) Illness Anxiety Disorder Rationale: Individuals with Illness Anxiety Disorder often seek medical tests and assurances due to their fear of having a disease, even when physical symptoms are minimal or non-existent.

Answer 138

c) Unexplained voluntary or motor sensory deficits. Rationale: Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder is characterized by unexplained voluntary or motor sensory deficits which imply a neurological condition, though no such condition may be present.

Answer 139

c) Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder Rationale: In Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder, the unexplained deficits are believed to arise as a result of psychological conflict.

Answer 140

c) Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder Rationale: Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder can manifest as physical symptoms that suggest a neurological disorder but which arise after psychological stressors and without a corresponding medical explanation.

Answer 141

c) Factitious Disorder Rationale: Factitious Disorder involves intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, often without any external incentives.

Answer 142

b) Factitious Disorder imposed on another Rationale: Munchausen syndrome by proxy, where one person induces symptoms in another, has been renamed as Factitious Disorder imposed on another in DSM-5.

Answer 143

c) The motivation for exhibiting the symptoms. Rationale: Factitious Disorder is characterized by the intentional production of symptoms without external incentives, while malingering involves producing symptoms for external benefits, such as financial gain or avoiding work.

Answer 144

c) Pseudocyesis Rationale: Pseudocyesis is a condition wherein a person believes they are pregnant and may even exhibit signs of pregnancy, but they are not actually pregnant.

Answer 145

c) Intentional avoidance or refusal to eat despite having an appetite. Rationale: Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by a significant weight loss due to restricted food intake, not by binge-eating, regurgitation, or consumption of non-nutritive substances.

Answer 146

b) Usually overestimates their body size. Rationale: Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa typically have a distorted body image and fear of gaining weight. They often perceive themselves as overweight even if they are underweight

Answer 147

d) An intense fear of gaining weight. Rationale: While other disorders may involve binge-eating or vomiting, the intense fear of gaining weight and body image disturbance is a hallmark of Anorexia Nervosa.

Answer 148

a) Binge eat and then use methods to avoid weight gain. Rationale: Bulimia Nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by behaviors like vomiting or excessive exercise to prevent weight gain.

Answer 149

c) Inducing vomiting after binge eating episodes. Rationale: One of the compensatory behaviors associated with Bulimia Nervosa is the act of vomiting after binge eating to prevent weight gain.

Answer 150

b) Eating a large amount of food in a short time with a feeling of loss of control. Rationale: Binge eating in Bulimia Nervosa refers to the rapid consumption of large amounts of food accompanied by feelings of loss of control.

Answer 151

c) Binge Eating Disorder does not regularly involve inappropriate behaviors to prevent weight gain after binge episodes. Rationale: While both disorders involve binge-eating episodes, Bulimia Nervosa typically involves behaviors like vomiting or excessive exercise after bingeing, whereas Binge Eating Disorder does not.

Answer 152

b) Once a week. Rationale: Binge Eating Disorder involves at least one binge-eating episode per week, which differentiates it from other eating disorders.

Answer 153

c) The absence of regular compensatory behaviors like vomiting after bingeing. Rationale: Binge Eating Disorder involves binge-eating without the regular use of compensatory behaviors like vomiting, which differentiates it from Bulimia Nervosa.

Answer 154

c) Eating non-nutritive substances, like dirt or hair. Rationale: Pica is characterized by the consumption of non-nutritive, non-food substances over a period of at least one month, which is developmentally inappropriate.

Answer 155

c) Young children or individuals with intellectual disabilities. Rationale: While Pica can occur in any age group, it is most commonly diagnosed in young children, especially those with developmental conditions like autism, and in individuals with intellectual disabilities.

Answer 156

b) Soil or clay. Rationale: Pica involves the consumption of non-food substances. Examples include soil, clay, paper, cloth, wool, hair, and others.

Answer 157

c) Regularly regurgitating food, re-chewing it, and then either swallowing or spitting it out. Rationale: Rumination Disorder is characterized by the repeated regurgitation of food. The individual may re-chew the regurgitated food, and then either swallow or spit it out. This is not due to a medical condition but rather is a repeated behavior.

Answer 158

c) Shortly after birth or in early childhood. Rationale: While Rumination Disorder can occur at any age, it commonly begins shortly after birth or in early childhood.

Answer 159

b) The intentional nature of regurgitating the food in Rumination Disorder. Rationale: While both Rumination Disorder and gastroesophageal reflux involve regurgitation of food, the former is an intentional behavior, whereas the latter is a medical condition where stomach contents involuntarily move up into the esophagus.

Answer 160

d) A lack of interest in food or limited range of preferred foods, leading to insufficient nutrition or energy intake. Rationale: Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder is defined by a persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional or energy needs because of a disinterest in eating or distaste for certain textures, smells, colors, or tastes of food.

Answer 161

b) A lack of distorted body image or fear of weight gain. Rationale: Both disorders involve restricted food intake, but individuals with Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder do not have concerns about body shape or weight.

Answer 162

b) Distaste for certain textures or colors of food. Rationale: Those with Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder might avoid certain foods due to their sensory characteristics, such as texture, smell, or color, rather than concerns about body image or weight.

Answer 163

c) Inability to maintain bowel control Rationale: Encopresis primarily refers to a child's inability to control their bowel movements, leading to involuntary soiling.

Answer 164

b) Inability to maintain bladder control Rationale: Enuresis specifically refers to the involuntary release of urine, particularly during nighttime in bed.

Answer 165

c) Difficulty in falling asleep or staying asleep Rationale: Insomnia disorder is characterized primarily by persistent problems falling and staying asleep.

Answer 166

c) Hypersomnolence Disorder Rationale: Hypersomnolence Disorder is when a person experiences excessive sleepiness despite having prolonged or adequate sleep.

Answer 167

a) Sleepwalking Rationale: Parasomnias are characterized by unusual behaviors during sleep, and sleepwalking is one of its manifestations.

Answer 168

c) Sleep attacks and sudden muscle weakness Rationale: Narcolepsy is chiefly characterized by sudden and uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep, often accompanied by muscle weakness or cataplexy.

Answer 169

b) Involuntary leg movements during sleep Rationale: Restless Legs Syndrome is characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move the legs, particularly during periods of rest or sleep.

Answer 170

b) Alcohol Rationale: While alcohol might help some people fall asleep faster, it can disrupt the sleep cycle and lead to fragmented sleep.

Answer 171

b) Working a regular night shift Rationale: Shift work type is specifically caused by working during the night and sleeping during the day, which disrupts the body's natural circadian rhythm.

Answer 172

d) b and c Rationale: Obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea is commonly characterized by frequent snoring due to partial or complete blockages of the upper airway and also by excessive daytime sleepiness because the sleep interruptions prevent adequate rest.

Answer 173

a) Regular pauses in breathing during sleep due to brain signal failure Rationale: Central sleep apnea involves disruptions in breathing during sleep caused by a failure of the brain to transmit the appropriate signals to the muscles that control breathing, leading to periodic pauses in breathing.

Answer 174

b) Elevated CO2 levels Rationale: Sleep-related hypoventilation is characterized by decreased breathing, which can subsequently lead to elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood during sleep. This is due to inadequate ventilation and the failure to effectively remove all the carbon dioxide produced within the body.

Answer 175

c) Marked delay or inability to ejaculate during sexual activity Rationale: Delayed ejaculation specifically deals with a delay or inability to ejaculate, distinguishing it from other sexual dysfunctions.

Answer 176

b) An issue with maintaining or achieving an erection. Rationale: Erectile Disorder specifically pertains to problems with erections, not desire, ejaculation, or pain.

Answer 177

c) Diminished intensity or absence of orgasmic sensations. Rationale: Female Orgasmic Disorder focuses on issues related to the orgasmic experience in females, not the other symptoms mentioned.

Answer 178

b) Reduced or absent sexual fantasies or actions. Rationale: Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder is about a lack or reduced interest in sexual activities or fantasies.

Answer 179

c) Pain anticipation or actual pain during sexual activities. Rationale: The primary issue with Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder is pain, especially during penetration.

Answer 180

c) Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder. Rationale: Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder is characterized by a lack or diminished interest in sexual fantasies or desires in males.

Answer 181

d) Premature or Early Ejaculation. Rationale: Premature or Early Ejaculation is when ejaculation occurs too quickly, either before or right after penetration.

Answer 182

c) Substance/Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction. Rationale: This category specifically accounts for dysfunctions induced by substances or medications.

Answer 183

d) Other Unspecified Sexual Dysfunction. Rationale: This category is for sexual disorders that arise due to a medical condition but don't fit into other specific categories.

Answer 184

d) Gender Identity Disorder Rationale: Gender Dysphoria used to be called Gender Identity Disorder before the name was changed to better reflect the nature of the disorder and reduce stigma.

Answer 185

b) A persistent discomfort with one's biological sex. Rationale: While other choices might be associated behaviors or misconceptions, the core of Gender Dysphoria is a consistent discomfort with one's assigned sex at birth.

Answer 186

c) Age groups: children, adolescents, and adults. Rationale: The distinction in Gender Dysphoria is often made based on age, with specific diagnostic criteria for children and another set for adolescents and adults.

Answer 187

c) Refusal to comply with rules or requests Rationale: ODD is characterized by symptoms like anger, irritability, defiance, and especially refusal to comply with rules. The other options are symptoms of different disorders.

Answer 188

c) Intermittent Explosive Disorder Rationale: IED is characterized by sudden episodes of impulsive, aggressive, violent behavior or angry verbal outbursts.

Answer 189

c) Bullying other children Rationale: Conduct Disorder is characterized by aggressive behaviors like fighting and bullying.

Answer 190

c) Pyromania Rationale: The central feature of Pyromania is the repeated and intentional setting of fires due to an impulse, with an associated feeling of pleasure.

Answer 191

d) Kleptomania Rationale: Kleptomania is characterized by the recurring theft or stealing of items without any particular need or motive. The action is driven by an impulse rather than any external incentives.

Answer 192

a) Bipolar Disorder Rationale: Substance-induced disorders pertain to psychiatric disorders that can arise due to the consumption of psychoactive substances. Among the options, only Bipolar Disorder can be induced by certain substances.

Answer 193

c) Symptoms arising when the substance use is reduced or discontinued after prolonged use. Rationale: Withdrawal syndrome represents a set of symptoms that occur due to the reduction or cessation of a substance that the body has become dependent upon.

Answer 194

d) Substance intoxication or withdrawal. Rationale: Delirium is an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention and cognition. It can be caused by substance intoxication or withdrawal, among other causes.

Answer 195

d) Vitamin C Rationale: Substance use disorders in DSM-5 classify substances that can lead to addiction. Vitamin C is not a psychoactive substance and doesn't lead to addiction.

Answer 196

a) Recurrent tobacco use causing significant impairment. Rationale: Tobacco use disorder, like other substance use disorders, is diagnosed based on a pattern of behaviors where the recurrent use of the substance leads to significant impairment or distress.

Answer 197

c) Heroin Rationale: Heroin is an opioid. Opioids are a class of drugs that include both legal (like some prescription pain relievers) and illegal drugs.

Answer 198

b) Alcohol withdrawal Rationale: Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that involves sudden and severe mental or neurological changes.

Answer 199

c) Chronic alcohol use Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome arises due to a deficiency in vitamin B1 (thiamine) often seen in people who consume large amounts of alcohol.

Answer 200

b) An acute and reversible syndrome due to recent alcohol ingestion. Rationale: Alcohol intoxication represents the immediate and temporary effects of alcohol consumption, which can lead to impaired judgment, coordination, mood changes, and other symptoms.

Answer 201

c) It does not involve the consumption of a substance. Rationale: Gambling Disorder is classified under substance-related disorders in the DSM-5, but it does not involve the consumption of a psychoactive substance. Instead, it pertains to compulsive gambling behaviors.

Answer 202

b) Significant financial difficulties. Rationale: Gambling Disorder involves compulsive gambling which can lead to significant social and financial issues, including massive debts or financial ruin.

Answer 203

c) A compulsion to gamble, leading to an inability to stop or cut down. Rationale: One of the hallmarks of Gambling Disorder is the compulsive need to gamble, even in the face of negative consequences, and the inability to control or stop the behavior.

Answer 204

b) Memory Rationale: Korsakoff's syndrome, often associated with chronic alcohol use, primarily affects memory and can lead to significant memory deficits.

Answer 205

c) Heightened sense of smell Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition that can develop from chronic alcohol use. Its classic triad of symptoms includes ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion.

Answer 206

c) Alcohol-induced hyperactivity disorder Rationale: There isn't a classification known as "alcohol-induced hyperactivity disorder" in the DSM-5. The other disorders listed can potentially be induced by alcohol use.

Answer 207

b. Sleep deprivation Rationale: Delirium can be caused by various factors including substance intoxication/withdrawal, medications, medical conditions, and sleep deprivation. Among the options, only sleep deprivation is listed as a cause.

Answer 208

c. Delirium Rationale: Delirium is characterized by an acute disturbance in attention and awareness, which differentiates it from other neurocognitive disorders.

Answer 209

c. Acute onset and fluctuating course Rationale: Delirium is known for its acute onset and its fluctuating course throughout the day. It is not primarily associated with long-term cognitive decline, sleep disorders, or inherited traits.

Answer 210

c. Severity of the decline Rationale: Mild Neurocognitive Disorder is characterized by a decline in cognitive function that is more than what's expected from normal aging but not severe enough to interfere significantly with daily activities.

Answer 211

a. Significant impairment in daily functioning Rationale: Mild Neurocognitive Disorder involves a mild or modest decline in cognitive function, but it doesn't result in significant impairment in daily functioning.

Answer 212

c. Major Neurocognitive Disorder Rationale: A diagnosis of Mild Neurocognitive Disorder can, in some cases, progress and become more severe, leading to a diagnosis of Major Neurocognitive Disorder (or what's commonly known as dementia).

Answer 213

d. Lewy Body Disease Rationale: Lewy Body Disease is characterized by the presence of hallucinations alongside dementia symptoms.

Answer 214

b. Vascular Dementia Rationale: Vascular Dementia is characterized by a stepwise progression in cognitive deterioration, often resulting from events like vessel thrombosis or hemorrhage.

Answer 215

c. Prion Disease Rationale: Prion Disease is caused by slow-growing transmissible prion proteins. These abnormal proteins can lead to significant brain damage and neurocognitive decline.

Answer 216

c) Unwarranted suspicion Rationale: Individuals with Paranoid Personality Disorder often harbor unwarranted suspicions and tend to mistrust others without adequate reason.

Answer 217

c) Ascribe evil motives to others Rationale: Individuals with this disorder tend to mistrust others and may attribute malevolent intentions to others without evidence.

Answer 218

b) Threatening Rationale: Due to their pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, these individuals may misconstrue neutral or benign events as threatening.

Answer 219

c) Unwarranted suspicion Rationale: Paranoid Personality Disorder is characterized by unwarranted suspicion, hypersensitivity, and a tendency to blame others.

Answer 220

d) Avoidance of close or competitive relationships Rationale: Individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder often display shyness, seclusiveness, and avoid close relationships.

Answer 221

b) Odd beliefs Rationale: While both disorders may exhibit aloofness, Schizotypal Personality Disorder includes slight losses of reality testing and odd beliefs.

Answer 222

b) Attention-seeking Rationale: OCPD is characterized by rigidity, overconscientiousness, and overdutifulness. Attention-seeking behavior is more related to Histrionic Personality Disorder.

Answer 223

b) Self-dramatization Rationale: Histrionic Personality Disorder is characterized by self-dramatization, attention-seeking, and seductive behaviors.

Answer 224

a) Oversensitivity to stress Rationale: Individuals with Avoidant Personality Disorder have low energy levels, are easily fatigued, and are oversensitive to stress.

Answer 225

b) Blame others for their problems Rationale: Antisocial Personality Disorder individuals often blame others and show no guilt, along with being selfish, callous, and impulsive.

Answer 226

a) Grandiosity Rationale: Narcissistic Personality Disorder is characterized by feelings of grandiosity, entitlement, and a need for admiration.

Answer 227

c) Suicidal tendencies Rationale: Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by impulsiveness, chaotic sexuality, suicidal tendencies, and self-mutilation.

Answer 228

c) Entirely reliant on others Rationale: Dependent Personality Disorder is characterized by passive and submissive behavior where the person becomes entirely dependent on others.

Answer 229

D) Paraphilia

Answer 230

C) Exhibitionism Rationale: Exhibitionism is characterized by an individual gaining sexual arousal from exposing their genitals to an unsuspecting stranger. The behavior described matches this definition.

Answer 231

D) Voyeurism Rationale: Voyeurism involves achieving sexual satisfaction from secretly observing others in intimate situations.

Answer 232

A) Frotteurism Rationale: Frotteurism is the act of achieving sexual arousal by rubbing against a non-consenting person, typically in crowded places.

Answer 233

B) Pedophilia Rationale: Pedophilia is characterized by a sexual attraction primarily or exclusively towards prepubescent children.

Answer 234

D) Sexual Masochism Rationale: Sexual Masochism involves obtaining sexual pleasure from receiving pain or humiliation.

Answer 235

B) Sexual Sadism Rationale: Sexual Sadism is characterized by gaining sexual satisfaction from causing pain or humiliation to another individual.

Answer 236

B) Fetishism Rationale: Fetishism is when an individual's sexual arousal is linked to a specific inanimate object.

Answer 237

C) Transvestism Rationale: Transvestism involves individuals gaining sexual arousal specifically from cross-dressing.

Answer 238

c) Rhythmic tremor, rigidity, and akinesia. Rationale: Neuroleptic or Other Medication-Induced Parkinsonism is characterized by rhythmic tremor, rigidity, akinesia, or bradykinesia. This is in contrast to other disorders that may present with motor restlessness or involuntary dyskinetic movements.

Answer 239

a) Hyperthermia. Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by symptoms like muscle rigidity, dystonia, and notably, hyperthermia. Hyperthermia (increased body temperature) is one of the distinctive symptoms of this syndrome.

Answer 240

b) Slow, sustained contracture of musculature. Rationale: Medication-Induced Acute Dystonia is primarily characterized by a slow, sustained contraction of the muscles, which can result in postural deviations.

Answer 241

b) Motor restlessness with constant movement. Rationale: Akathisia is characterized by a feeling of motor restlessness. Patients with this condition feel an inner urge to move constantly and may manifest as fidgeting, pacing, or inability to remain seated.

Answer 242

c) Involuntary movement of the lips, jaw, and tongue. Rationale: Tardive Dyskinesia is primarily characterized by involuntary dyskinetic movements, particularly of the facial muscles like the lips, jaw, and tongue.

Answer 243

c) A patient experiences withdrawal symptoms after suddenly stopping fluoxetine. Rationale: Antidepressant Discontinuation Syndrome arises following the abrupt cessation of an antidepressant drug. This can lead to a variety of withdrawal symptoms, depending on the specific medication and the patient's physiology.

Answer 244

c) Changes in blood pressure or diarrhea. Rationale: While many medications can lead to various side effects, some can cause physiological changes such as alterations in blood pressure or gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea.