LE 3 Reviewer

Question 1

These anesthetics involve injecting the medication at some point along the nerve(s) that run to and from the region to achieve loss of pain sensation or muscle paralysis, except:

Answer 1

Topical Anesthesia

Question 2

It is the stage of anesthesia characterized by loss of pain sensation and with the patient still conscious and able to communicate.

Answer 2

Analgesia Stage

Question 3

It is an example of a medication injected into the skin at the site of the procedure to achieve numbness for procedures like suturing.

Answer 3

Lidocaine

Question 4

It is the phase where anesthetic is discontinued to regain consciousness, movement, and ability to communicate of the patient.

Answer 4

Recovery

Question 5

Which of the following nursing actions should be performed when caring for a patient on general anesthesia? Select all that apply.

Answer 5

Prepare the emergency cart.
Raise side rails.
Monitor vital signs and ECG reading.
Check liver and kidney function tests prior to administration.

Question 6

Which of the following is not true regarding narcotic agents?

Answer 6

Diazepam ampules for IV administration can be dispensed using a regular doctor’s prescription

Question 7

Which of the following statements is not true about Acetaminophen?

Answer 7

It can reduce underlying inflammation and swelling of the joint in arthritis.

Question 8

What should you assess prior to administration of analgesics? Select all that apply

Answer 8

PQRST

Question 9

The following statements are true about pain medications except:

Answer 9

Opioids are safe to use in pregnant women and
lactating mothers.

Question 10

It is an opioid antagonist that can be used during an emergency situation when a person’s breathing slows down due to opioid overdose.

Answer 10

Naloxone

Question 11

Which of the following statements is true about opioid receptor agonists?

Answer 11

Opioid receptor agonists produce a dose- dependent respiratory depression.

Question 12

You’re teaching a 20-year old patient with asthma about the use of bronchodilators. You should teach the patient:

Answer 12

to take a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist
for acute bronchospasm

Question 13

The most effective bronchodilator drugs are:

Answer 13

beta2 agonists

Question 14

Which of the following drugs is a short-acting beta2 agonist:

Answer 14

beclomethasone dipropionate

Question 15

Which of the following drugs is a short-acting beta2 agonist:

Answer 15

Salbutamol

Question 16

Which anticholinergic agent is used to treat patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Answer 16

Ipratropium bromide

Question 17

The following statements are true when considering inhalation as route of administration for bronchial asthma drugs, except:

Answer 17

The effect is rapid but side effects are more serious

Question 18

Which of the following types of drugs are prescribed to reduce inflammation of the airways in patients with asthma and COPD:

Answer 18

Corticosteroids

Question 19

Leukotriene receptor antagonists are effective in the prophylaxis of which respiratory condition?

Answer 19

Exercise-induced asthma

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true about topical decongestants?

Answer 20

Topical decongestants act locally on the alpha- adrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscle in the nose, causing the arterioles to constrict.

Question 21

Which of the following statement about respiratory drugs is false:

Answer 21

High doses of expectorant medicines can have an antiemetic effect.

Question 22

The following drugs are inhalation long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists, except:

Answer 22

Terbutaline

Question 23

What will you assess in patients undergoing treatment with methylxanthines? Select all that apply.

Answer 23

Peak Flow readings
Knowledge on drug therapy
Oxygen saturation
Respiratory rate and rhythm

Question 24

The following drugs are systemic decongestants, except:

Answer 24

Tetrahydrozoline

Question 25

The following the statements is true about administration of calcium except:

Answer 25

If extravasation occurs, stop IV infusion immediately and apply cold, moist compress.

Question 26

A patient with an active liver disease has been admitted to the ward. Patient reported a history of bronchial asthma. Which of the following drug is contraindicated to the patient:

Answer 26

Zileuton

Question 27

This type of drug is anti- inflammatory agents available in both inhaled and systemic formulations for the short- and long-term control of asthma symptoms.

Answer 27

Corticosteroids

Question 28

Which drug is an antagonistic antimuscarinic drug that acts as a bronchodilator by competitively blocking the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the parasympathetic (cholinergic) receptors:

Answer 28

ipratropium bromide

Question 29

Which of the following drugs are mast cell stabilizers? Select all that apply.

Answer 29

Nedocromyl Cromolyn sodium

Question 30

This type of drug helps make mucus easier to cough up and is used for the relief of symptoms caused by productive coughs from many disorders.

Answer 30

Expectorants

Question 31

Systemic decongestants can cause severe hypertensive crisis when taken with this type of drugs:

Answer 31

MAO inhibitors

Question 32

Which leukotriene modifier’s absorption is decreased by food, requiring that the drug be given 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals?

Answer 32

Zafirlukast

Question 33

This type of drug provides relief from nasal allergies including hay fever:

Answer 33

Antihistamines

Question 34

Which of the following is not true about beta2-adrenergic agonists:

Answer 34

Beta2-adrenergic agonists increase levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate through the stimulation of beta2-adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscle, resulting in bronchoconstriction.

Question 35

Which of the following is an example of low molecular weight Heparin?

Answer 35

Enoxaparin

Question 36

Spironolactone is contraindicated in this condition:

Answer 36

Hyperkalemia

Question 37

Which of the following is/are advantages about nasal decongestants? Select all the apply.

Answer 37

Rapid symptom relief Minimal adverse effects

Question 38

Systemic decongestants should be use cautiously with patients who have the following conditions except:

Answer 38

Hyperthermia

Question 39

An adult patient was rushed to the emergency room due to an acute severe asthma attack. Which of the following drugs should you administer first?

Answer 39

Albuterol

Question 40

Which of the following is/are normal side effects of Albuterol? Select all that apply:

Answer 40

Tremors Insomnia Tachycardia

Question 41

A patient with hypertension is taking a new medication and is now reporting continuous dry cough. Which of the following is likely to be the cause?

Answer 41

Enalapril

Question 42

Amlodipine, Verapamil, and Diltiazem belong to which class of drugs?

Answer 42

Calcium Channel Blockers

Question 43

Administration of antihypertensive agents to control blood pressure should be accompanied by nonpharmacologic strategies. When you conduct your client teaching, which of the following is least likely to be included?

Answer 43

Use of multiviltamins

Question 44

Which is the most important nursing action before you administer any type of antihypertensive medication?

Answer 44

Check the patient’s blood pressure.

Question 45

A 55-year old patient is advised to take Metoprolol 50 mg/tab 1 tab BID p.o. What should you include in the health teaching?

Answer 45

Check the pulse rate before taking the drug.

Question 46

Which of the following diuretics has hyperkalemia as an adverse effect?

Answer 46

Spironolactone

Question 47

Ototoxicity may occur with this treatment.

Answer 47

Furosemide

Question 48

What is/are the recommended first line of treatment for patients with hypertension and chronic kidney disease? Select all that apply.

Answer 48

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers ACE inhibitors

Question 49

Which of the following statements is not true about dihydropyridines?

Answer 49

They are used more as antiarrhythmic medications and less for HTN treatment compared to non-dihydropyridines.

Question 50

You are about to administer Furosemide 40 mg IV to a patient. Upon checking the patient’s blood pressure, it was 140/90 mmHg. What will you do?

Answer 50

Administer Furosemide 40 mg intravenously.

Question 51

You are about to administer Metoprolol 100 mg tab to a patient. Upon checking the patient’s pulse rate, it was 40 beats per minute. What will you do?

Answer 51

Withhold the drug and assess further.

Question 52

Which of the following is not true about combination therapy for hypertension?

Answer 52

ACE inhibitors and Angiotensin Receptor Blockers make a good combination

Question 53

Which of the following is not a side effect of Furosemide?

Answer 53

Pulmonary toxicity

Question 54

When educating a patient on a new beta blocker prescription, which of the following safety information is most critical?

Answer 54

Beta blockers can not be stopped abruptly due to risk of severe (even fatal) rebound hypertension

Question 55

What is the antidote for overdose of warfarin?

Answer 55

Vitamin K

Question 56

Which of these drugs can be given sublingually to relieve angina?

Answer 56

Isosorbide dinitrate

Question 57

The patient is bradycardic and you are asked to administer atropine. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of atropine?

Answer 57

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

Question 58

Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for digitalis toxicity?

Answer 58

An 80-year old client with CHF.

Question 59

Which of the following is a contraindication for digoxin administration?

Answer 59

Pulse rate of 108 beats/min

Question 60

When a medication has a positive inotropic effect, what does it mean?

Answer 60

Increases force of cardiac contraction

Question 61

These antiarrhythmics increase the refractory period of the AV node by slowing the influx of calcium ions, thus decreasing the ventricular response and decreasing the heart rate.

Answer 61

Class IV - Calcium Channel Blockers

Question 62

When administering an antiarrhythmic agent, which of the following assessment parameters is the most important for the nurse to evaluate?

Answer 62

ECG

Question 63

What is/are the most common side effect/s associated with nitrates? Select all that apply:

Answer 63

headache Hypotension

Question 64

A 49-year-old woman came to the emergency room complaining of episodes of chest pain on exertion during the last two days. Physical signs were: blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 85 bpm, respiration 15 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation revealed a regular rhythm with no abnormal cardiac sounds or murmurs. An ECG was unremarkable. Diagnosis of exertional angina was made and a therapy with sublingual nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate was ordered. Which of the following adverse effects might most likely occur in this patient?

Answer 64

Postural hypotension

Question 65

Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet aggregation?

Answer 65

Aspirin

Question 66

What drug would likely be prescribed for a patient with atherosclerosis in the legs (intermittent claudication) causing pain, cramping, and weakness in calf muscles when walking?

Answer 66

Cilostazol

Question 67

How can heparin be administered? Select all that apply.

Answer 67

IV SQ

Question 68

A pregnant woman needs a lipid-lowering agent. What would be the best class of lipid-lowering agent for pregnant women?

Answer 68

Bile acid sequestrants

Question 69

When should statins be taken to maximize its therapeutic effects?

Answer 69

At night

Question 70

Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take before administering digoxin?

Answer 70

Check serum potassium level.

Question 71

You are the nurse taking care of a patient hospitalized for a deep vein thrombosis. You are reviewing his discharge medications, and counsel him about the benefits and risks associated with Rivaroxaban. Which of the following is a major possible adverse effect associated with this drug?

Answer 71

Bleeding

Question 72

You are a nurse in a primary care setting. One of your patients is diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia, and after failing to see cholesterol improvements with diet and exercise, is started on atorvastatin. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?

Answer 72

HMG-CoA reductase inhibition

Question 73

This drug acts an adrenergic agonist that acts on the alpha-2 receptor and is used to lower blood pressure in patients with hypertension.

Answer 73

Clonidine

Question 74

Carisoprodol is an antispasmodic agent. Which of the following should be excluded in the health teaching of a patient taking this drug?

Answer 74

Tell client that the drug may cause gastrointestinal upset so it should be taken on an empty stomach.

Question 75

Phenylephrine is an adrenergic drug that is used as a nasal decongestant. Which receptor does it act on?

Answer 75

Alpha-1

Question 76

Which of the following statements is not true about activated charcoal?

Answer 76

Decreases the absorption of oral medications so give the medication within 2 hours after giving the drug

Question 77

When administering digestive drugs, is it necessary for the nurse to?

Answer 77

If dairy products are consumed, take enzymes 15 minutes prior to meal.

Question 78

Which of the following drug/s is/are antidiarrheals?

Answer 78

Loperamide, Diphenoxylate, Kaolin and pectin

Question 79

A 70 year old debilitated patient is receiving kaolin and pectin. Which of the following is a common side effect of this type of antidiarrheal to elderly patients?

Answer 79

Constipation

Question 80

A 70 year old debilitated patient is receiving kaolin and pectin. Which of the following is a common side effect of this type of antidiarrheal to elderly patients?

Answer 80

Constipation

Question 81

TRUE OR FALSE: Dehydrocholic acid is used to stimulate defecation

Answer 81

FALSE

Question 82

A female elderly patient is receiving laxative due to chronic constipation. A nurse should implement the following procedure, except?

Answer 82

Crush enteric coated tablets to increase absorption of the drug.

Question 82

A female elderly patient is receiving laxative due to chronic constipation. A nurse should implement the following procedure, except?

Answer 82

Crush enteric coated tablets to increase absorption of the drug.

Question 83

The following drug/s is/are used to decrease nausea thus reducing the urge to vomit?

Answer 83

Cannabinoids, Antihistamines

Question 84

When giving instruction to an adult patient on giving antiemetics for motion sickness, it is important to tell the patient to?

Answer 84

Take the drug at least 30 to 60 minutes before travel.

Question 85

Which of the following drugs prevents peptic ulcers caused by NSAIDs in patients at high risk for complications resulting from gastric ulcers?

Answer 85

Misoprostol

Question 86

You are taking care of a 17-year old patient who is taking an antacid for his treatment of peptic ulcer. The following are important nursing considerations except?

Answer 86

Administer antacids along with H2-receptor antagonists for better patient outcome.

Question 87

Which antiulcer drug works by binding gastrin, acetylcholine, and histamine to receptors on the parietal cells, thus secretion of acid is reduced?

Answer 87

Cimetidine

Question 88

H2 receptor antagonists should be used cautiously with which of the following?

Answer 88

60 year old male patient with acute kidney disease

Question 89

TRUE OR FALSE: Proton pump inhibitors increase secretion of gastric acid.

Answer 89

FALSE

Question 90

Which of the following statements is true about proton pump inhibitors?

Answer 90

Prolonged use has been associated with higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia.

Question 91

This antiulcer drug is given orally in enteric coated formulas to bypass the stomach because they're highly unstable in acid

Answer 91

Omeprazole

Question 92

Misoprostol should be used cautiously with whose patient?

Answer 92

25 year old married patient

Question 93

Which of the following is the principal extracellular fluid electrolyte necessary for homeostasis?

Answer 93

Sodium

Question 94

TRUE OR FALSE: Potassium is the major positive charge ion in the ECF

Answer 94

FALSE

Question 95

Hypokalemia is a normal occurrence in conditions that increase potassium excretion or depletion. Select all conditions that increase potassium excretion or depletion.

Answer 95

Chronic kidney disease

Question 96

Some medications can increase potassium levels in the blood and should be used cautiously with patients taking these drugs, except?

Answer 96

Furosemide

Question 97

Which of the following patients may have increased inability to use vitamins in the body thus needing supplementation? Select all that apply.

Answer 97

50-year old male patient with liver cirrhosis, 40-year old female with acute glomerulonephritis

Question 98

You are assigned to a 65-year old patient admitted due to multiple electrolyte imbalances secondary to severe dehydration. The patient is receiving IV magnesium upon handover and your notice that the IV is tender and warm to touch. Which of the following is your best action?

Answer 98

Stop infusion immediately.

Question 99

This fat-soluble vitamin is essential for protection of fatty acids and promotes formation and functioning of RBCs, muscles and other tissues.

Answer 99

Vitamin E

Question 100

What is the recommended daily allowance for calcium in male and female patients?

Answer 100

800-1,200 mg

Question 101

A 25 year old male patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and was prescribed with anti-TB drugs is assigned to you. Knowing the possible side effects of isoniazid and other TB drugs, which supplement is necessary to include in his treatment plan:

Answer 101

Vitamin B6

Question 102

A 25 year old male patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and was prescribed with anti-TB drugs is assigned to you. Knowing the possible side effects of isoniazid and other TB drugs, which supplement is necessary to include in his treatment plan:

Answer 102

Vitamin B6

Question 103

This enteral formula has predigested nutrients and is easier to digest therefore better tolerated in patients with GI disease.

Answer 103

Oligomeric and monomeric formulas

Question 104

Which of the following is a metabolic complication to parenteral nutrition? Select all that apply.

Answer 104

Refeeding syndrome, Hepatic steatosis