LE 4 - Para Flashcards by

Ring stage trophozoites contains 2 chromatin granules
a. Plasmodium ovale
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium falciparum

d. Plasmodium falciparum

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mosquitoes
a. japanese b encephalitis
b. paragonimiasis
c. onchocerciasis
d. plague

a. japanese b encephalitis

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invades all red cells regardless of age
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium ovale
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium malariae

c. Plasmodium falciparum

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Preferred breeding place of aedes mosquito
a. Forest Gump
b. Rice fields
c. Forest swamps
d. Axils of abaca and banana

c. Forest swamps

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Mainstay of malarial diagnosis
a. Antigen capture test
b. Wrights stain
c. Giemsa stain
d. AOTA

c. Giemsa stain

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Flagellate form with the kinetoplast located at the posterior end of the organism
a. Amastigotes
b. Promastigotes
c. Trypomastigotes
d. Epimastigotes

c. Trypomastigotes

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Death from cardiac failure may precede CNS symptoms.
a. T. brucei rhodesiense
b. T. brucei gambiense
c. T. cruzi
d. None of the above

a. T. brucei rhodesiense

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An infected triatomine insect vector (or “kissing bug”) takes a blood meal and releases trypomastigotes in its feces near the site of the bite wound.
a. T. brucei rhodesiense
b. T. brucei gambiense
c. T. cruzi
d. None of the above

c. T. cruzi

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Found in muscles, nerve cells, and reticuloendothelial systems
a. Amastigotes
b. Promastigotes
c. Trypomastigotes
d. Epimastigotes

a. Amastigotes

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The flea is the intermediate host of this parasite.
a. Hymenolepis
b. Paragonimus
c. Dracunculus
d. Ascaris

a. Hymenolepis

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The most common manifestation of acute acquired toxoplasmosis
a. microphthalmia,
b. lymphadenopathy
c. petechial rashes
d. splenomegaly

b. lymphadenopathy

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Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding fire ants ?
a. injects venom repeatedly
b. does not cause severe life-threatening allergic reaction
c. causes burning and itchy lesion which develop into pustules
d. stings from the abdomen

b. does not cause severe life-threatening allergic reaction

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Formic acid (causes the paralysis) can be found at the base of the stinger.
a. Yellow Jacket Wasp
b. Fire Ant
c. Black Widow Spider
d. Arizona Bark Scorpion

a. Yellow Jacket Wasp

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May cause stabbing pain in the bite area.
a. Yellow Jacket Wasp
b. Fire Ant
c. Black Widow Spider
d. Arizona Bark Scorpion

c. Black Widow Spider

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During an attack, it latches onto the skin with its jaw, then stings from its abdomen
a. Yellow Jacket Wasp
b. Fire Ant
c. Black Widow Spider
d. Arizona Bark Scorpion

b. Fire Ant

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Treatment of choice for malaria in pregnant women
a. halofantrine
b. amodiaquine
C. mefloquine
d. fluoroquine

C. mefloquine

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Very pleomorphic older trophozoites
a. P vivax
b. P malariae
c. P ovale
d. P falciparum

d. P falciparum

Plasmodium falciparum infections are known for having very pleomorphic (variable in shape) older trophozoites compared to the other Plasmodium species that cause malaria in humans. P. falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can lead to complications and high mortality if not treated promptly and effectively.

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Asexual reproduction of toxoplasma is called
a. cryptozony
b. gametes
c. schizogony

c. schizogony

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Usual host of leshmania are the ff except
a. human
b. dog
c. fox
d. rodent

a. human

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Dark yellow course pigment
a. P ovale
b. P malariae
c. P falciparum
d. P vivax

a. P ovale

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Identify common and scientific name

CN: Brown Recluse Spider
SN Loxosceles reclusa

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Identify common and scientific name

CN: Black widow spider
SN Latrodectus mactans

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What is the typical initial sensation associated with a brown recluse spider bite?
a) Stabbing pain
b) Itchiness
c) Painlessness
d) Burning sensation

c) Painlessness

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What can happen to the skin after a brown recluse spider bite?
a) It turns blue
b) It becomes numb
c) It may redden, turn white, blister, and become painful
d) It develops a rash

c) It may redden, turn white, blister, and become painful

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In some cases of brown recluse spider bites, what may develop at the bite site? a) A tattoo b) An ulcer c) A bruise d) A pimple

b) An ulcer

What is the most common progression of symptoms after a brown recluse spider bite? a) Immediate severe pain b) Rapid healing with no symptoms c) Painlessness followed by blistering d) Swelling without any change in skin color

c) Painlessness followed by blistering

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a brown recluse spider bite? a) Blister formation b) Painless initial bite c) Skin turning purple d) Ulcer formation

c) Skin turning purple

What is a common characteristic of pain associated with a black widow spider bite? a) Burning sensation b) Itching c) Stabbing pain d) Numbness

c) Stabbing pain

How many red fang marks may be present at the site of a black widow spider bite? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three

c) Two

In addition to red fang marks, what is another common feature of a black widow spider bite? a) Blue discoloration of the skin b) Blister formation c) Numbness d) A nodule at the bite site

d) A nodule at the bite site

Which of the following statements is true regarding pain associated with a black widow spider bite? a) It is always excruciating b) It is typically painless c) It may be stabbing or painless d) It is characterized by itching

c) It may be stabbing or painless

What should you look for when assessing a possible black widow spider bite? a) Yellow discoloration of the skin b) One or two red fang marks, redness, tenderness, and a nodule c) Green-colored skin d) Presence of blisters

b) One or two red fang marks, redness, tenderness, and a nodule

81. All leishmania spp are transmitted by a. Anopheles Mosquito b. Tsetse fly c. Triatoma reduvid bug d. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

d. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

82. In the diagnosis of infection with L.donovani, these can be found later in the infection in the RES, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow a. Neilbodies b. Macrophages c. LD bodies d. Chromatidbodies

c. LDbodies

96. Rapidly growing intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii a. Bradyzoites b. Zygote c. Sporozoites d. Tachyzoites

d. Tachyzoites

97. Slowly multiplying intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii a. Sporozoites b. Bradyzoites c. Zygote d. Tachyzoites

b. Bradyzoites

98. In serological studies , a 16-fold increase IgG antibody in a second sample taken 21 days later indicates a. No infection b. Acute infection c. Chronic infection d. Reinfection

c. Chronic infection

Crabs A. paragonimiasis b. plague c. onchocerciasis d. japanese b encephalitis

A. paragonimiasis

2 Enlarged host cells A. P. Falciparum b. all of the choices are correct c P. Malariae D. P. Ovale and Vivax

D. P. Ovale and Vivax

3. Quartan nephrois is associated with a. P. Vivax b. P Falciparum c . P. Malariae D. P. Ovale

c . P. Malariae

Kissing bugs have the following characteristics, EXCEPT: A. Reaction to its bite is Sensitization B. They bite usually during the day C. They inflict painful bites D. Frequent site of bites is face

B. They bite usually during the day

5Level of maximum parasitemia up to 30,000uL of blood a. P Ovale b. P malariae c. P. Vivax d P. Falciparum

c. P. Vivax

6. the chigger mite is vector of which of the following infections? a. scrub thypus b. filariasis c. dengue d. thypoid fever

a. scrub thypus

7. Mainstay of malarial diagnosis A. Wright stains B. Giemsa stains C. AOTA D. Antigen capture test

B. Giemsa stains

8. The initial chagoma reaction at bite site with periorbital edema if bitten near the eye a. Romana's sign B. Winterbottom's sign C. Winter's sign D. Racoon sign

a. Romana's sign

9 48 hours asexual cycle in humans a. Plasmodium vivax b. Plasmodium falciparum c. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium malariae

a. Plasmodium vivax

10 the continuous cultivation of the erythrocytic phase undergoing schizoony is of critical importance in vaccine development TRUE FALSE

TRUE

11. one of the following arthropods does not cause envenomization a. caterpillar hairs b. tick c. kissing bugs d. ants

b. tick

12. Treatment of choice for malaria in pregnant women A. Halofantrine B. Amodiaquine C. Mefloquine D. Fluroquine

C. Mefloquine

13Maggots can produce condition called. A. sparganosis b myiasis c. creeping eruption d. larva currens

b. myiasis Myiasis is the condition caused by the infestation of the skin, wounds, or body cavities of a living host by fly larvae (maggots) that feed on the host's dead or living tissue, liquid body substances, or ingested food. It can occur in tropical and subtropical areas, as well as temperate zones.

14. Very pleomorphic older trophozoited A. P vivax b P malariae C. P Ovale D. P Falciparum

D. P falciparum Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite responsible for the most severe form of malaria, is known for having very pleomorphic (variable in shape) older trophozoites. This characteristic distinguishes it from other Plasmodium species, such as P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale, which cause malaria in humans but have different morphological features.

15. Centipedes do NOT demonstrate this characteristic A. The thinner the skin bitten, the larger the amount of venom absorbed B. They have 2 pairs of legs per segment C. They can cause death D. The amount of venom introduced depends on its size

B. They have 2 pairs of legs per segment

16. The infective stage of Trypanosoma transmitted by the insect vector A. Promastigote B. Trypomastigote C. Epimastigote D. Amastigote

B. Trypomastigote

17. Relapse in 5 years A. P Falciparum B. p ovale C. P vivax D. P malariae

C. P vivax Plasmodium vivax is known for having dormant stages (hypnozoites) in the liver that can reactivate and cause relapses of malaria months to years after the initial infection. This can potentially happen up to 5 years after the original infection, making P. vivax notorious for causing relapses.

18. Body lice are important vectors of a. all of the choices b. epidermic typhus c. louse borne relapsing fever d. trench fever

a. all of the choices

19. alternative drug for treatment of chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum malaria a. Amodiaquine b. fluoroquine c. halofantrine d. mefloquine

d. mefloquine

When the host's red blood cell hemoglobin is broken down, the globin part gives malarial pigment A. True B False

B False

21. Arthropods that have been shown to cause asthma in children are: A. House dust mite B. Cockroaches C. Both D. Neither

C. Both

22. Asexual reproduction of Toxoplasma is called A. Cryptozony B. Gametes C. Sporogony D. Schizogony

D. Schizogony

23. Usual host of leishmania are the following except: A. Human B. Dog C. Fox D. Rodent

A. Human

24. Blackwater fever is caused by? A. P. ovale B. P. malariae C. P. vivax D. P. falciparum

D. P. falciparum

25. One of the following arthropods role in the transmission of amoebiasis A. Cockroach B. Tick C. Crab D. Flea

A. Cockroach

26. Band shaped trophozites A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium vivax

C. Plasmodium malariae

27Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by A. Anopholes mosquito b. Triatoma reduvid bug c. simulium fly d. tsetse fly

b. Triatoma reduvid bug

28. one of the following statements is incorrect regarding fire ant.which is one? a. injects venom repeatedly b. does not caus severe life-threatening allergic reaction c. causes burning and itchy lesion which develop into pustules d. stings from the abdomen

b. does not caus severe life-threatening allergic reaction

29 one of the following arthropods does not cause envenomization. a. tick b. kissing bugs c. caterpillar hairs d. ants

b. tick

30. the copepod, a primitive crustacean, is an intermediate host of which parasite? a. dracunculus b. Diphyllobothrium c. both d. neither

c. both

31 L. Donovani causes a. Kala-azar b. Visceral leishmaniasis c. all of the choices are correct d. dumdum fever

c. all of the choices are correct

32. Dark yellow course pigment A. P. ovale B. P. malariae C. P. falciparum D. P. vivax

A. P. ovale

33. The flea is the intermediate host of this parasite. A. Hymenolepis B. Paragonimus C. Dracunculus D. Ascaris

A. Hymenolepis

34. Kissing bugs have the following characterisitics, except: A. Reaction to its bite is sensitization b. they bite usually during the day c. the inflict painful bites d. frequent site of the bite is face

b. they bite usually during the day

35.True of the methods of diagnosis of African Trypanosomiasis except A. High levels of both IM and spinal fluid proteins are characteristic B. Thick blood smears increase the chance of diagnosis C. Late in the infection, trypomastigotes are best found in the urine D. Animal inoculation in mice or young rats

C. Late in the infection, trypomastigotes are best found in the urine

36. Exhibits Maurer's cleft A. P Malariae B. P Falciparum C. P ovale D P Vivas

B. P Falciparum

37. True of fire ants, except: A. They suck blood B. They are venomous C. They cause allergic reactions D. They produce a necrotizing toxin

A. They suck blood

38 Rapidly growing intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii A. Bradyzoites B. Zygote C.Sporozoites D. Tachyzoites

D. Tachyzoites

39. Causative agent for Baghdad boil A. L. braziliensis B. L. donovani C. L. tropica D. L. mexicana

C. L. tropica

40 Causes american Typanosomiasis A. Tryponosoma brucei gambiense B. Tryponosoma donovani C. Tryponosoma brucei rhodensiensi D. Tryponosoma cruzi

D. Tryponosoma cruzi

41. Causes East African Trypanosomiasis: A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense B. Trypanosoma donovani C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D. Trypanosoma cruzi

C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

42. This organisms are seen as C-shaped trypomastigotes in stained tissue scraping of skin lesion A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma donovani

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

43. Naturally genetically determined partial immunity includes the following: A. G6PD deficiency B. Sickle cell disease C. All of the choices are correct D. Lack of duffy antigen for p. vivax

C. All of the choices are correct

4. Fleas A. Japanese B encephalitis B. Onchocerciasis C. Plague D. Paragonimiasis

C. Plague

45. Invades older red cells A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum

C. Plasmodium malariae

46. Cytoplasmic shuffner's dots A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium ovale and vivax C. AOTA D. Plasmodium malariae

B. Plasmodium ovale and vivax

47.Slowly multiplying intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii A. Sporozoites B. Bradyzoites C. Zygote D. Tahcyzoites

B. Bradyzoites

48. Diagnostic stage for Leishmania spp A. Epimastigote B. trypomastigotes C. Amastigotes D. Promastigote

C. Amastigotes

49. scorpions rarely stings human, but when they do, they introduce venom that is: A. Hemolytic b neurotoxic c.both d neither

c.both

50. bitten are becomes necrotic or gangrenous: a. loxosceles b latrodectus c both

A. Loxosceles Loxosceles spiders, commonly known as brown recluse spiders, have venom that can cause a reaction leading to necrosis or gangrene at the bite site. The venom contains enzymes that can destroy skin tissues and cause a condition known as loxoscelism, which is characterized by a localized necrotic wound. Latrodectus spiders, known as black widow spiders, produce venom that is neurotoxic, affecting the nervous system and causing symptoms such as pain, muscle cramps, and spasms, rather than necrotic wounds.

51P. Ovale has thick rings which adhere to red blood cells manifesting the severe type of disease a. true b false

b. False Plasmodium ovale does not typically manifest with thick rings adhering to red blood cells or cause the severe types of disease associated with this description. The characteristic of thick ring stages adhering to red blood cells is more commonly associated with Plasmodium falciparum, which is known for causing severe malaria, including cerebral malaria and other complications. P. ovale infections are generally milder compared to those caused by P. falciparum.

52. Ring stage trophozoites contains 2 chromatin granules A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum

B. Plasmodium falciparum

53. Only ring stages or gametocytes are seen in the peripheral blood infected with P. Falciparum a. true b. false

a. true

54. pre-erythrocyte cycle is 9 days a. plasmodium ovale b. plasmodium malariae c. plamosdium vivax d. plasmodium falciparum

a. plasmodium ovale

55. West african sleeping sickness is caused by A. Trypanosoma donovani B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Trypanosoma rhodesiense D. Trypanosoma gambiense

D. Trypanosoma gambiense

56 Erucism is a condition which results from A.tick bites B. the bite of fire ants C. Extreme fear of insects D. contact with poison hairs of caterpillars

D. contact with poison hairs of caterpillars

57 these are examples of arthropods undergoing complete metamorphosis, EXCEPT: a. beetles b. flies c. ants d. cockroaches

d. cockroaches

58 Treatment for Tryposomniasis in late disease when theres involvement of the CNS A. Nifurtimox B. Tetracycline C. Tryparsamide D. Antimony

C. Tryparsamide

59. mosquitoes a. japanese b encephalitis b. paragonimiasis c. onchocerciasis d. plague

a. japanese b encephalitis

60. The hematin part of the host's hemoglobin is split and digested A. True B. False

B. False

61To establish the diagnosis of trypanosomias, these are found in the fluid from bite site chancre or buffy coat of blood a. merozoites b bradyzoites c tachyzoites d trypomastigotes

d trypomastigotes

62. to maximize recover of parasites causing ectoparasitism specifically pediculus humanus corporis, examine the a. hairs of genital area b scalp c. discarded clothing d. body surface

c. discarded clothing

63. Toxoplasma are obligate endoparasitic protozoa under the class A. Sporozoa B. Kinetoplastida C. Spirocheta D. Protista

A. Sporozoa

64. Black flies A. Paragonimiasis B. Onchocerciasis C. Japanese B encephalitis D. Plague

B. Onchocerciasis Onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, is caused by the filarial worm Onchocerca volvulus, which is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected black flies (Simulium spp.).

65. Infective organisms are deposited on the skin in the feces of the bug and are rubbed into the wound when scratched A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D. Both T. brucei gambiencse and rhodesiense

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

66. This may spread to cause a disfiguring form, diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis (DCL) A. L. braziliensis B. L. tropica C. L. mexicana D. L. donovani

C. L. mexicana

67. invades all red cells regardless of age A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium malariae

C. Plasmodium falciparum

68. Vectors in which pathogens multiply and develop are called: A. paratenic hosts B. mechanical vectors C. biological vectors D. passive vectors

C. biological vectors

69. Black coarse pigment in developing trophozoites: A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium malariae

C. Plasmodium falciparum

70. Males of the sucking lice do not suck blood. They just feed on the tissue juices of the host. True False

False. Males of the sucking lice do not feed on blood or tissue juices; they typically do not feed at all and primarily exist to mate with females.

71. All leishmania spp are transmitted by A.Anopheles Mosquito B. Tsetse fly C. Triatoma reduvid bug D. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

D. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

72. Trypomastigotes multipy in the body fluids by A. sporogony B. both asexual and sexual reproduction C. binary fission D. schizogony

C. binary fission

73. The only definite host of toxoplasma gondii A. Dog B. Rat C. Bird D. Cat

D. Cat

74. These are examples of anthropods undergoing incomplete metamorphosis: A. All of the choices are correct B. Ants C. Louse D. Beetles

C. Louse

75the infective stage of toxoplasma gondii a. sporozoite b oocyte c. gametes d. oocyst

d. oocyst

76. the process of alowing uninfected bugs to feed on patient then later examin bug feces for parasite a. autodiagnosis b xenodiagnosis c. reverse diagnosis d misdiagnosis

b xenodiagnosis

77. drug of choice for treatment of all susceptible forms of malaria during the acute attack a. halofantrine b chloroquine c. fluoroquinine d. metfloquine

b chloroquine

78.the form of T. cruzi found multiplying in the heart a. epimastigote b. promastigote c. amastigote d. trypomastigote

c. amastigote

79. Enlarged lymph nodes in the posterior cervical chain caused by is called A. Romana's sign B. Winterbottom sign C. Winter sign D. Racoon Sign

B. Winterbottom sign

80. Incubation period is 28 days A. P. falciparum B. P. ovale C. P. vivax D. P. malariae

D. P. malariae

Which class of arthropods includes crabs, lobsters, shrimps, and copepods? a. Arachnida b. Hexapoda c. Chilopoda d. Crustacea

d. Crustacea

What is a characteristic feature of Crustacea? a. 4 pairs of legs b. 3 pairs of legs c. 6 or more pairs of walking legs d. 2 pairs per body segment

c. 6 or more pairs of walking legs

Which class of arthropods includes mites, ticks, scorpions, and spiders? a. Crustacea b. Arachnida c. Hexapoda d. Chilopoda

b. Arachnida

How many pairs of legs do arachnids typically have? a. 1 pair per body segment b. 2 pairs per body segment c. 3 pairs of legs d. 4 pairs of legs

d. 4 pairs of legs

Which class of arthropods includes mosquitoes, flies, lice, and bugs? a. Arachnida b. Hexapoda c. Crustacea d. Diplopoda

b. Hexapoda / Insecta

How many pairs of legs do insects (Hexapoda/ Insecta) typically have? a. 1 pair per body segment b. 2 pairs per body segment c. 3 pairs of legs d. 4 pairs of legs

c. 3 pairs of legs

Which class of arthropods includes centipedes? a. Diplopoda b. Pentatomida c. Chilopoda d. Crustacea

c. Chilopoda

What is the characteristic regarding the number of leg pairs per body segment in centipedes? a. 1 pair per body segment b. 2 pairs per body segment c. 3 pairs of legs d. Legless

a. 1 pair per body segment

Which class of arthropods includes millipedes? a. Hexapoda b. Chilopoda c. Diplopoda d. Pentatomida

c. Diplopoda

What is the characteristic regarding the number of leg pairs per body segment in millipedes? a. 1 pair per body segment b. 2 pairs per body segment c. 3 pairs of legs d. 4 pairs of legs

b. 2 pairs per body segment

Which class of arthropods includes tongue worms? a. Crustacea b. Pentatomida c. Arachnida d. Diplopoda

b. Pentatomida

What is the characteristic of Pentatomida? a. 4 pairs of legs b. 3 pairs of legs c. Legless d. 6 or more pairs of walking legs

c. Legless

82 The Copepod, a primitive crustacean, is an intermediate host of which parasite? A. Diphyllobothrium B. Both C. Dracunculus D. Neither

B. Both

83. Sausage type gametocytes A. P. ovale B. P. vivax C. P. falciparum D. P. malariae

C. P. falciparum

84. Fine, light brown scattered pigment A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium ovale

A. Plasmodium vivax

85. Female kills or destroys the male after mating A. Latrodectus B. Loxosceles C. both

A. Latrodectus

86. The leishmania spp that does not stay localized in the skin lesion but spread to the viscera eventually causing death A. L. brazilliensis B. L. donovani C. L. mexicana D. L. tropica

B. L. donovani

87. the vector transmits the infective organism by injecting metacyclic trypomastigotes from the salivary gland a. trypanosoma brucei gambiense b. trypanosoma cruzi c. both t. brucei gambiense and rhodesiense d. trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

c. both t. brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

88. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium spp. through the bite of which genus of mosquito A. Aedes B. Anopheles C. All of the choices are correct D. Culex

B. Anopheles

89. In the diagnosis of infection with L.donovani, these can be found later in the infection in the RES, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow A. Neil bodies B. Macrophages C. LD bodies D. Chromatid bodies

C. LD bodies

90. Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by the arthropod A. Phlebotomus bug B. Triatoma reduviid bug C. Tsetse fly D. Sandly E. Simulium fly

C. Tsetse fly

Which taxonomic group includes organisms with no legs and no antennae? a) Insecta b) Pentastomida c) Arachnida d) Crustacea e) Diplopoda

b) Pentastomida

Organisms with 3 pairs of legs and 1 pair of antennae belong to which taxonomic group? a) Insecta b) Pentastomida c) Arachnida d) Crustacea e) Diplopoda

a) Insecta

Which taxonomic group comprises organisms with no antennae but having 4 pairs of legs? a) Insecta b) Pentastomida c) Arachnida d) Crustacea e) Diplopoda

c) Arachnida

Organisms with 2 pairs of antennae and 4 or more walking legs are classified under which taxonomic group? a) Insecta b) Pentastomida c) Arachnida d) Crustacea e) Diplopoda

d) Crustacea

Which taxonomic group includes organisms with 2 pairs of legs per body segment and 1 pair of antenna? a) Insecta b) Pentastomida c) Arachnida d) Crustacea e) Diplopoda

e) Diplopoda

92. Clinical syndrome include severe pain of trunk and extremities, vomiting, abdominal pain resembling appendicitis A. Lactrodectus B. Loxosceles C. Both

A. Lactrodectus

Yellow Jacket Wasp

FIRE ANT

Millipede

Centipede Myriapods

CN and SN

HOUSE FLY / DOMESTIC FLY (MUSCA DOMESTICA)

Cockroach Blattodea sp

Vector for Trpanosoma cruzi is a. Reduviid bug b. Tsetse fly c. Sandfly d. Hard tick

a. Reduviid bug Trypanosoma cruzi, the causative agent of Chagas disease, is primarily transmitted to humans through the feces of reduviid bugs, also known as "kissing bugs".

Romana’s sign occurs in a. Babesiosis b. Leishmaniasis c. Trypanosomiasis d. Toxoplasmosis

c. Trypanosomiasis Romana's sign is characterized by unilateral swelling of the eyelids and is associated with acute Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi.

Vector for T. brucei gambiense is a. Reduviid bug b. Tsetse fly c. Sandfly d. House fly

b. Tsetse fly Trypanosoma brucei gambiense, one of the causative agents of African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness, is transmitted by the tsetse fly.

Enlarged posterior cervical lymph node a. Romana’s sign b. Winter sign c. Winterbottom’s sign d. DCL

c. Winterbottom’s sign Winterbottom's sign, the presence of swollen cervical lymph nodes, is associated with African trypanosomiasis, particularly the form caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.

Diagnostic stage of Leishmania spp. a. Amastigotes b. Promastigotes c. Trypomastigotes d. Epimastigotes

a. Amastigotes The amastigote stage of Leishmania spp. is the diagnostic stage found in the human host, typically within macrophages.

Causative agent of American trypanosomiasis: a. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense b. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense c. Trypanosoma cruzi d. None of the above

c. Trypanosoma cruzi Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of American trypanosomiasis, also known as Chagas disease.

Vector for L. donovani a. Tsetse fly b. Sandfly c. House fly d. House tick

b. Sandfly Leishmania donovani, the causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis, is transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.

Infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii a. Oocysts b. Tachyzoites c. Bradyzoites d. Trophozoites

a. Oocysts The oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii, shed in the feces of infected cats, are one of the infective stages for humans, along with tissue cysts containing bradyzoites found in undercooked meat.

9. Classical finding of the acute Chagas disease a. Romana’s sign b. Winter sign c. Winterbottom’s sign d. DCL

a. Romana’s sign Romana's sign, the swelling of the eyelids on the side of the face near the bite wound or where the bug feces were deposited or rubbed into the eye, is a classical finding of acute Chagas disease.

10. Toxoplasma is under the class a. Sporozoa b. Kinetoplastidea c. Mastigophora d. None of the above

a. Sporozoa Toxoplasma gondii belongs to the class Sporozoa, which includes parasitic protozoa characterized by their spore-forming capabilities.

1. This arachnid attaches itself in areas where skin meets clothing a. Chigger mites b. Sarcoptes scabie c. Spider d. Tick

a. Chigger mites. Chigger mites, which are the juvenile (larval) form of a type of mite, tend to attach themselves to humans in areas where skin meets clothing, such as waistbands, the edges of socks, and other tight-fitting areas. They cause intense itching and dermatitis, known commonly as chigger bites. These mites are known for seeking out such spots to feed after attaching to the host.

2. Centipedes have the following characteristics a. Have two pairs of legs per segment b. Can cause death c. The thinner the skin bitten, the larger the amount of venom absorbed d. Amount of venom introduced depends on the size of the centipede

d. Amount of venom introduced depends on the size of the centipede The amount of venom a centipede can inject is indeed dependent on the size of the centipede. Larger centipedes can inject more venom, potentially causing more pain and symptoms.

3. True of honey bee a. Usually pulled from wound b. Stinger unbarbed c. Not capable of multiple stings d. AOTA

a. Usually pulled from wound Honey bee stingers are barbed, and when they sting, the stinger, along with part of their abdomen, is left in the wound. This ultimately leads to the bee's death. The stinger is usually pulled from the wound by the bee's flight away, not by the person stung.

4. Cockroaches are carriers of pathogens they also: a. Drop their feces while walking or feeding b. Are nocturnally active c. Carry more pathogens than flies d. AOTA

d. AOTA (All of the Above) Cockroaches are indeed carriers of pathogens, drop their feces while walking or feeding, are nocturnally active, and can carry more pathogens than flies, making all the given options correct.

5. This arthropod is successfully removed with the mouth part remaining in the host, may result in granuloma formation a. Tick b. Sarcoptes scabie c. Chigger mite d. NOTA

a. Tick If a tick is improperly removed and the mouthparts remain in the skin, it can lead to granuloma formation as the body reacts to the foreign material.

1. Quartan nephrosis is associated with? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae

D. Plasmodium malariae Quartan nephrosis, a type of malaria-associated nephrotic syndrome, is specifically associated with infections by Plasmodium malariae, characterized by a 72-hour (quartan) fever cycle.

2. Relapse in 5 years A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae

A. Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium vivax is known for having dormant liver stages (hypnozoites) that can reactivate and cause relapses of malaria months or even years after the initial infection. Plasmodium ovale can also cause relapses but is less commonly associated with long-term relapses compared to P. vivax.

3. 48 hours asexual cycle in humans A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae

A. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale Both Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale have a 48-hour asexual cycle in humans, known as the tertian fever pattern, where fevers spike every second day.

4. Invades all red cells regardless of age A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae

B. Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium falciparum is known for its ability to invade red blood cells of any age, contributing to its virulence and the severe nature of the disease it causes.

5. Cytoplasmic Schuffner’s dots A. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. AOTA

A. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale Schuffner's dots are fine, red to orange granules seen in the cytoplasm of red cells infected with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, used as a diagnostic feature in microscopy.

LE 4 - Para Flashcards

(171 cards)