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LE 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Main target for Epstein-Barr virus
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Mononuclear cells
D. Phagocytes

A

A. B lymphocytes
Explanation: Epstein-Barr virus primarily targets and infects B lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell), which play a crucial role in the immune response by producing antibodies.

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2
Q
  1. Control of CMV inclusion disease involves the following except
    A. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines
    B. Isolation of newborns with generalized CMV inclusion diseases from other newborns
    C. Screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibody
    D. Administration of human igm prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV
A

D. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV

Explanation: Control measures for Cytomegalovirus (CMV) inclusion disease typically include the development and use of vaccines, isolation practices to prevent spread, and screening of donors and recipients for CMV antibodies. Administration of human IgM from plasma pools is not a standard control measure for CMV inclusion disease.

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3
Q
  1. Core of double stranded DNA is composed of
    A. Tegument
    B. Protein coat
    C. Nucleocapsid
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

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4
Q

Viruses range in size from approximately
A. 1-25um
B. 1-25nm
C. 25-300um
D. 300nm-1um

A

D. 300nm-1um

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5
Q

The envelope form of herpes virus measures
A. 120 nm
B. 140 nm
C. 150 nm
D. 160 nm

A

C. 150 nm
Explanation: Herpesviruses are enveloped viruses, and their overall diameter, including the envelope, typically measures around 150 nm. This size allows for the accommodation of the viral capsid and the tegument layer between the capsid and the envelope.

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6
Q
  1. Infects mostly young children
    A. HSV 2
    B. HSV 1
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

B. HSV 1
Explanation: Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1) is more commonly associated with infections in young children, often leading to oral herpes, which can manifest as cold sores or fever blisters.

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7
Q
  1. Has animal vectors
    A. HSV 2
    B. HSV 1
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. None of the choices is correct
A

D. None of the choices is correct
Explanation: Neither HSV-1 nor HSV-2 is typically associated with animal vectors. These viruses are primarily transmitted through human-to-human contact.

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8
Q
  1. Sexually transmitted
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

B. HSV 2

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9
Q
  1. Infects mostly adults
    A. HSV1
    B. HSV2
    C. Both
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

Answer: B. HSV2
Explanation: Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2) is more commonly associated with sexual transmission and infects mostly adults, leading to genital herpes.

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10
Q
  1. Manifest as cold sores
    A. HSV1
    B. HSV2
    C. both
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV1
Explanation: HSV-1 is primarily associated with oral herpes, which commonly manifests as cold sores or fever blisters on the lips or around the mouth.

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11
Q
  1. Eczema herpeticum
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1

It is a severe disseminated infection that occurs in individuals with existing skin conditions, such as eczema.

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12
Q
  1. Associated with Herpetic whitlow
    A. None of the choices
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both
A

D. Both
Explanation: Herpetic whitlow can be caused by both HSV-1 and HSV-2. It is a painful infection of the finger or toe, characterized by lesions and blisters.

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13
Q
  1. Associated with herpes encephalitis
    A. None Of The Choices Are Correct
    B. HSV2
    C. HSV1
    D. Both Choices Are Correct
A

C. HSV1
Explanation: Herpes encephalitis is most commonly associated with HSV-1. It is a serious condition where the herpes virus infects the brain, leading to inflammation.

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14
Q
  1. Associated with cutaneous herpes
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1

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15
Q

Which virus can produce non-neutralizing antibodies?
A. Ebola Virus
B. Influenza Virus
C. Covid19 Virus
D. None of the above

A

C. Covid19 Virus
Explanation: The SARS-CoV-2 virus (COVID-19 virus) has been shown to elicit both neutralizing and non-neutralizing antibodies in infected individuals. Non-neutralizing antibodies bind to the virus but do not prevent its entry into cells, whereas neutralizing antibodies can block infection.

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16
Q

Which virus contains linear genome double-stranded DNA, non-segmented?
A. Retrovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Filovirus

A

B. Adenovirus
Explanation: Adenoviruses have a linear, non-segmented double-stranded DNA genome. They are known for causing a range of illnesses, from mild respiratory infections to gastroenteritis.

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17
Q

Which virus can replicate in-vitro only?
A. Epstein-Barr Virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Varicella-Zoster Virus
D. Human Herpes Virus

A

B. Cytomegalovirus

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18
Q

Which virus can usually be found in patients with proliferative disease?
A. Epstein-Barr Virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Varicella-Zoster Virus
D. Human Herpes Virus

A

D. Human Herpes Virus

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19
Q

Most Dangerous strain of Hepatitis Virus
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D

A

D. Hepatitis D

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20
Q

Hepatitis strand with no heterologous immunity except:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D

A

D. Hepatitis D

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21
Q
  1. Hepatitis strains with no homologous immunity
    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
A

C. Hepatitis C

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22
Q
  1. Hepatitis strains with unknown immunity
    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
A

D. Hepatitis D
Explanation: The concept of “unknown immunity” is not standard in virology. Immunity aspects for all hepatitis viruses (A, B, C, and D) have been studied to various extents. Hepatitis D’s unique dependency on Hepatitis B for infection complicates its immunity profile, but it is not “unknown.” This question might be seeking to highlight the complexity of HDV’s interaction with HBV, but as stated, it suggests a misunderstanding of immunological responses to these viruses.

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23
Q
  1. The following are double stranded DNA viruses, ЕХСЕРТ:
    A. Epstein barr virus
    B. Human immunodeficiency virus
    C. Hepadnavirus
    D. Varicella Zoster Virus
    E. None of the choices are correct
A

E. None of the choices are correct

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24
Q

Occurrence of virus in blood takes months to years
A. Viral Hep C
B. Viral Hep A
C. Viral Hep B
D. Both Hep B and C

A

D. Both Hep B and C

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25
Q

The herpes virus transmitted thru bites of old world monkeys or macaques
A. B Virus
B. Adenovirus
C. HIV
D. Influenza virus

A

A. B Virus

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26
Q

No homologous immunity
A. Hepa C
B. Hepa B
C. Hepa A
D. Hepa D

A

A. Hepa C

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27
Q

Promotes interferon production
A. Imiquimod
B. Tamiflu
C. Alpha interferon
D. Fortovase

A

C. Alpha interferon

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28
Q

Associated with keratitis
A. HSV1
B. HSV2
C. NOTA
D. AOTA

A

A. HSV1

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29
Q

Virus that is enveloped
A. NOTA
B. Adenovirus
C. Poliovirus
D. Herpesvirus

A

D. Herpesvirus

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30
Q

An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and provide adequate environment for microorganism to multiply and reproduce.
A. Host
B. Reservoir host
C. Definitive host
D. Fomite

A

D. Fomite

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31
Q
  1. Cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants
    a. Rotavirus
    b. Norovirus
    c. Adenovirus
    d. Astrovirus
A

a. Rotavirus

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32
Q
  1. Integrated genome material of viruses to host
    a. DNA integration
    b. RNA integration
    c. Retroviral integration
    d. Viral genome fusion
A

a. DNA integration

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33
Q
  1. Segmented dsRNA virus:
    a. Reovirus
    b. Bunyavirus
    c. Orthomyxovirus
    d. Picobirnavirus
A

a. Reovirus

Reoviridae
Rotavirus
Birnaviridae

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34
Q
  1. Transmitted via urine
    a. Cytomegalovirus
    b. Leptospira interrogans
    c. Hepatitis A virus
    d. Zika vírus
A

a. Cytomegalovirus

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35
Q
  1. Each of the following statements concerning Hepatitis A virus is correct except one:
    a. HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children
    b. Hepa A can cause sudden loss of liver function in some cases
    c. The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus in a cell culture
    d. The initial site of viral replication is the GIT
    e. Immunoglobulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons
A

c. The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus in a cell culture

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36
Q
  1. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following viruses
    a. Rhinoviruses
    b. Coronaviruses
    c. Enteroviruses
    d. Reoviruses
    e. Respiratory syncytial virus
A

c. Enteroviruses

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37
Q
  1. Enteroviruses are implicated in many diseases including
    a. GI disturbances
    b. Skin and mucous membrane lesions
    c. Conjunctivitis
    d. All of the choices are correct
A

d. All of the choices are correct

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38
Q
  1. All of the following are acceptable specimens for the isolation of enterovirus, except one
    a. Feces
    b. Urine
    c. Throat secretions
    d. Skin lesions
A

b. Urine

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39
Q
  1. Epidemic pleurodynia and myocarditis are both caused by
    a. Adenovirus
    b. Coxsackie A
    c. Coxsackie B
    d. Coronavirus
    e. RSV
A

c. Coxsackie B

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40
Q
  1. all of the following picornaviruses are resistant to the acidity of the stomach except:
    a. Echoviruses
    b. Polioviruses
    c. Rhinoviruses
    d. Coxsackie Virus A
A

b. Polioviruses

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41
Q
  1. The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterized by which of the following?
    a. Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes
    b. High levels of recombination
    c. Rapid adsorption and fusion from without via hydrophobic peptide
    d. High fidelity RNA replicase enzyme
A

A. Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes

The influenza virus is known for its segmented genome, which allows for genetic reassortment among its 8 RNA segments. This process contributes to the emergence of new viral strains and is a significant factor in the virus’s ability to cause pandemics.

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42
Q
  1. Genome of polio
    a. Single-stranded RNA
    b. Double-stranded RNA
    c. Single-stranded DNA
    d. Double-stranded DNA
A

a. Single-stranded RNA

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43
Q
  1. The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special “risk” sectors by:
    a. Proper hygiene
    b. Vaccination
    c. antiviral drugs.
    d. monoclonal antibodies
A

b. Vaccination

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following is a ds-segmented RNA virus
    a. coronavirus
    b. rotavirus
    c. adenovirus
    d. rhinovirus
A

b. rotavirus

Here are the primary families of dsRNA viruses known to have segmented genomes:

Reoviridae: This family includes rotaviruses, which are a common cause of acute gastroenteritis in children, as well as orbiviruses and coltiviruses, which can cause disease in animals and sometimes humans. Members of this family infect a wide range of hosts, including humans, animals, plants, and insects.

Birnaviridae: This family includes viruses such as Infectious bursal disease virus (IBDV) that affects chickens, and Infectious pancreatic necrosis virus (IPNV) that affects fish. These viruses typically have a bipartite (two-segment) genome.

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following is a naked RNA virus?
    a. Picornavirus
    b. Togavirus
    c. Paramyxovirus
    d. Coronavirus
A

a. Picornavirus

Icosahedral Naked Resistant
● Picornaviridae
● Astroviridae
● Caliciviridae
● Reoviridae

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46
Q
  1. The following paramyxoviruses originated from humans except one:
    a. Morbillivirus
    b. Rubellavirus
    c. Henipavirus
    d. Pneumovirus
A

c. Henipavirus

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47
Q
  1. Which member of the paramyxovirus family can cause a very serious croup?
    a. Parainfluenza virus
    b. Mumps virus
    c. Measles virus
    d. Nipah virus
    e. RSV
A

a. Parainfluenza virus

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48
Q
  1. The only virus with double stranded DNA
    a. RSV
    b. Rhinoviruses
    c. Adenoviruses
    d. Reoviruses
    e. enteroviruses
A

c. Adenoviruses

dsDNA viruses
Poxviridae
Asfaviridae
Iridoviridae
Herpesviridae
Adenoviridae
Polyomaviridae
Papillomaviridae

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49
Q
  1. Portal entry of poliovirus in mainly through
    a. lungs
    b. GIT
    c. nasal mucosa
    d. skin
A

b. GIT

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50
Q

Causes fusion of cell membrane and responsible for syncytial formation
a. F. glycoprotein
b. Outer Lipids
c. neraminidase
d. Hemagglutinin
e. M. protein

A

a. F. glycoprotein

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51
Q
  1. Which of the following agents can inactivate Prions?
    a. Formaldehyde
    b. Ionizing radiation
    c. Household bleach
    d. Urea
A

c. Household bleach

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52
Q
  1. All of the following are caused by Prions except:
    a. Kuru
    b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
    c. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
    d. None of the above.
A

c. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

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53
Q

28.
Kuru, occurred only in the highlands of new guinea and was spread by eating
a. Monkeys
b. Crocodiles
c. Guinea pigs
d. Dead relatives

A

d. Dead relatives

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54
Q

Which causes hemorrhagic fever and nephropathy in a 20 y.o Male, who had exposure to contaminated rodent droppings?
a. Bunyavirus
b. Paramyxovirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Flavivirus

A

a. Bunyavirus (Hantavirus)

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55
Q

An ether sensitive icosahedral capsid virus
a. Togavirus
b. Calcivirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Astrovirus

A

a. Togavirus

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56
Q
  1. Which among the viruses has the virions incorporate host cell ribosomes during maturation, which gives the particles a “sandy” appearance ?
    a. Arenaviridae
    b. Coronaviridae
    c. Reoviridae
    d. Flavivirus
A

a. Arenaviridae

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57
Q
  1. Which of the following is an enveloped ether sensitive and has a helical symmetry?
    a. Picornavirus
    b. Togavirus
    c. Paramyxovirus
    d. Coronavirus
A

c. Paramyxovirus

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58
Q
  1. The following are RNA tumor viruses except:
    a. Hepatitis B Virus
    b. Hepatitis C Virus
    c. Retroviruses
    d. Adenovirus
A

d. Adenovirus

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59
Q
  1. The following are DNA tumor viruses except:
    a. Herpesviruses
    b. Poxviruses
    c. Retroviruses
    d. Adenovirus
A

c. Retroviruses

DNA TUMOR VIRUSES
● Polyomavirus
● Papillomavirus
● Poxviruses
● Adenovirus
● Herpesviruses

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60
Q
  1. .Which of the following is a part of the Congenital Rubella Syndrome?
    a. Congenital heart disease
    b. Hypospadia
    c. Umbilical Hernia
    d. Polydactily
A

a. Congenital heart disease

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61
Q
  1. What family does poliovirus belong to
    a. picornavirus
    b. togavirus
    c. paramyxovirus
    d. coronavirus
A

a. picornavirus

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62
Q
  1. Which of the ff is a naked RNA virus
    a. picornavirus
    b. togavirus
    c. paramyxovirus
    d. coronavirus
A

a. picornavirus

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63
Q
  1. Which is naked icosahedral RNA virion
    a. togavirus
    b. rhabdovirus
    c. flavivirus
    d. reovirus
A

d. reovirus

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64
Q
  1. What virus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    a. EB virus
    b. HPV
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. Ether sensitive
A

a. EB virus

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65
Q
  1. Which of the ff is not an RNA virus
    a. togavirus
    b. parvovirus
    c. picornavirus
    d. flavivirus
A

b. parvovirus

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66
Q
  1. Which is not a characteristic of Rubella?
    a. Transmitted by arthropods
    b. Member of Togaviridae family
    c. Member of genus Rubivirus
    d. Causes the 3-day measles
A

a. Transmitted by arthropods

Rubella, also known as German measles or three-day measles, is not transmitted by arthropods but rather through respiratory droplets.

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67
Q
  1. What virus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
    a. EB Virus
    b. Human papillomavirus
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. HTL virus
A

a. EB Virus

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68
Q
  1. What virus is associated with oropharyngeal carcinoma?
    a. EB virus
    b. Human Papillomavirus
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. HTL virus
A

b. Human Papillomavirus

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69
Q
  1. A child came in with moderate grade fever with a maculo-papular rash & post-occipital lymphadenopathy. What is the causative virus?
    a. Dengue virus
    b. Rubeola virus
    c. Rubella virus
    d. Lassa Fever virus
A

c. Rubella virus

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Lentiviruses?
    a. Causes slowly progressive, chronic diseases
    b. Infects the cells of the immune system
    c. Cancer producing viruses
    d. Includes the causative agent of AIDS
A

c. Cancer producing viruses

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71
Q
  1. What virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma?
    a. EB virus
    b. Human papillomavirus
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. HTL virus
A

a. EB virus

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72
Q
  1. What virus is associated with genital squamous cell carcinoma?
    a. EB Virus
    b. Human papillomavirus
    c. HTL virus
    d. Human herpesvirus B
A

b. Human papillomavirus

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73
Q
  1. What virus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
    a. EB virus
    b. Human papillomavirus
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. HTL virus
A

a. EB virus

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74
Q
  1. What virus is associated with adult T cell leukemia?
    a. EB virus
    b. Human papillomavirus
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. HTL virus
A

d. HTL virus

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75
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with the Human Deficiency Virus which causes AIDS-related malignancies and the HTL virus
    a. Flaviviridae
    b. Retroviridae
    c. Papillomaviridae
    d. Herpesviridae
A

b. Retroviridae

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76
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
    a. Flaviviridae
    b. Retroviridae
    c. Papillomaviridae
    d. Herpesviridae
A

a. Flaviviridae

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77
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with the Human Deficiency virus which causes AIDS-related malignancies and the HTL virus?
    a. Flaviviradae
    b. Retroviridae
    c. Papillomaviridae
    d. Herpesviridae
A

b. Retroviridae

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78
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
    a. Flaviviridae
    b. Retroviridae
    c. Papillomaviridae
    d. Herpesviridae
A

a. Flaviviridae

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79
Q
  1. Which is NOT a tenet for viral carcinogenesis?
    a. Viruses are always complete carcinogen
    b. Viral strains may differ in oncogenic potential
    c. Viral markers are usually present in tumor cells
    d. Viruses are seldom complete carcinogens
A

a. Viruses are always complete carcinogen

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80
Q
  1. True regarding hepatitis A except
    a. Enveloped symmetrical RNA virus
    b. virus spreads probably by the bloodstream to the liver Ab to Hepa A virus that persists is also detectable late in the incubation period
    c. shares many characteristics of the picornavirus family
    d. AOTA
A

a. Enveloped symmetrical RNA virus

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81
Q
  1. The function of a viral capsid is
    A. providing binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell
    B. serving as vehicle of transmission from one host to another
    C. protection against the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct
A viral capsid provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell, serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another, and protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction.

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82
Q
  1. Lodges in the trigeminal ganglia
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1
Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1) is known to establish latency in the trigeminal ganglia after the primary infection.

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83
Q
  1. Predominantly transmitted through the oral fecal route
    A. Viral Hepatitis C
    B. Viral Hepatitis A
    C. Viral Hepatitis B
    D. Viral Hepatitis D
A

B. Viral Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is predominantly transmitted through the oral-fecal route, typically through ingestion of contaminated food or water.

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84
Q
  1. Primary infection of this herpes virus commonly causes exanthema subitum or roseola infantum
    a. HHV7
    b. HHV6
    c. HHV8
    d. EBV
A

b. HHV6
Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) is the primary cause of exanthema subitum (also known as roseola infantum), a common childhood disease characterized by a high fever followed by a rash.

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85
Q
  1. true regarding virus isolation, EXCEPT:
    a. examples of semi-continuous cells are human embryonic kidney and skin fibroblasts
    b. primary cell culture is the best cell culture systems available since they support the widest range of viruses
    c. very expensive and difficult to obtain reliable supply
    d. continuous cells are the most easy to handle with wide range of viruses supported
A

b. primary cell culture is the best cell culture systems available since they support the widest range of viruses

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86
Q
  1. The viral nucleocapsid is the combination of:
    A. Genome and Capsid
    B. Capsomere and Genome
    C. Capsid and Spikes
    D. Envelope and Capsid
A

A. Genome and Capsid
The nucleocapsid is the combination of the viral genome (DNA or RNA) and the capsid, which is the protein coat that encases the genome.

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87
Q
  1. Which of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation?
    A. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease
    B. the type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of that virus
    C. One virus type induces a single diseases syndrome
    D. A particular disease syndrome has a single viral cause
A

A. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease
Many viral infections do not result in clinical disease and can be subclinical, meaning they do not show symptoms. This is a fundamental aspect of viral pathogenesis.

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88
Q

8 has animal vectors
A. None of the choices is correct
B. HSV 2
C. HSV 1
D. All of the choices are correct

A

A. None of the choices is correct
HSV-1 and HSV-2 (Herpes Simplex Virus types 1 and 2) are primarily transmitted between humans and do not have animal vectors in their transmission cycle.

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89
Q

9 in serology criteria for diagnosing Primary infections includes ЕХСЕРТ:
A. high single titer of IgG (Total antibody)
B. Absence or slight increase in IgM
C. four-fold increase in titer of IgG or total antibody between acute and convalescent sera
D. seroconversion
E. presence of IgM

A

B. Absence or slight increase in IgM

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90
Q
  1. core of double stranded DNA is composed of
    a. all of the choices are correct
    b. nucleocapsid
    c. tegument
    d. protein coat
A

a. all of the choices are correct

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91
Q
  1. Target organ of HHV 7
    A. Lymphoid tissue
    B. Neuron
    C. Glands
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. Lymphoid tissue

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92
Q
  1. May be inactive in the sacral ganglia
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. both choices are correct
    D. none of the choices are correct
A

B. HSV 2

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93
Q
  1. Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?
    A. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA
    B. This genome is circular
    C. Their genome is segmented
    D. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA
A

D. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA

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94
Q
  1. Negative serologic marker in patients with disease of the biliary tract and toxic injury of the liver
    A. HbsAg
    B. Anti-HBs
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Anti-Hbc
A

C. All of the choices are correct

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95
Q
  1. There are no chronic complication noted
    a. Viral hepatitis D
    b. Viral hepatitis B
    c. Viral hepatitis C
    d. Viral hepatitis A
A

d. Viral hepatitis A

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96
Q
  1. Infects mostly adults
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both are correct.
A

C. HSV2

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97
Q
  1. Serologic marker which becomes positive as a result of vaccine type response
    A. Anti-HBc
    B. HBeAg
    C. Anti-HBs
    D. HbsAg
A

C. Anti-HBs

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98
Q
  1. Infects mostly young children
    a. HSV 1
    b. HSV 2
    c. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

a. HSV 1

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99
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses belong to family Flaviviridae?
    A. Hepatitis C virus
    B. Yellow fever virus
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Rubella virus
A

C. All of the choices are correct

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100
Q
  1. The Herpes virus transmitted through bites of old world monkeys or macaques
    A. Human Herpes Virus 7
    B. EBV
    C. B Virus
    D. Human Herpes Virus 8
A

C. B Virus
B Virus, also known as Herpesvirus simiae or Cercopithecine herpesvirus 1, is transmitted to humans primarily through bites and scratches from macaques, a type of Old World monkey.

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101
Q
  1. Enzyme neuraminidase is carried by which of the following viruses?
    A. Epstein-Barr Virus
    B. Adenovirus
    C. HIV
    D. Influenza virus
A

D. Influenza virus

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102
Q
  1. Viruses range in size from approximately
    A. 300 nm - 1 um
    B. 1 - 25 um
    C. 1 - 25 nm
    D. 25-300 um
A

A. 300 nm - 1 um
Ultramicroscopic size (20nm-450nm) diameter

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103
Q
  1. True of Hepatitis D infection
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. Both choices are correct
    C. Independent of co-existing HBV infection
    D. Simultaneous infection or co-infection with HBV
A

B. Both choices are correct

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104
Q
  1. No homologous immunity
    A. Viral hepatitis C
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis A
    D. Viral hepatitis D
A

A. Viral hepatitis C

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105
Q
  1. The following are double stranded DNA viruses, EXCEPT:
    A. Epstein barr virus
    B. Human immunodeficiency virus
    C. Hepadnavirus
    D. Varicella Zoster Virus
    E. None of the choices are correct
A

E. None of the choices are correct

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106
Q
  1. These agents are associated with disease such a Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease in humans, scrapie in sheep & bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in cattle
    a. Bacteriophage
    b. Viruses
    c. Prions
    d. Viroids
A

c. Prions

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107
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation
    A. One virus type indiuces a single disease syndrome
    B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease
    C. A particular disease syndrome has a single viral cause
    D. The type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of the virus
A

D. The type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of the virus

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108
Q

29.Promotes interferon production
a. Imiquimod
b. Tamiflu
c. Alpha Interferon
d. Fortovase

A

c. Alpha Interferon

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109
Q
  1. true of nasopharyngeal carcinoma except
    a. all are correct
    b. patient have high level of antibody to EBV
    c. infect female of chinese origin
    d. ebv dna is regularly found in nasopharyngeal cardinoma cell
A

c. infect female of chinese origin
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) is not specific to females of Chinese origin; it has a higher incidence in certain geographic regions, including Southeast Asia and North Africa, and affects both males and females. While there is a notable prevalence among individuals of Chinese (particularly Southern Chinese) origin, the statement as phrased suggests a specificity that is not accurate. NPC is associated with Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) infection across various demographics, not just Chinese females.

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110
Q
  1. Enveloped viruses have a _____ shape
    A. Complex
    B. Icosahedral
    C. Roughly spherical
    D. Helical
A

C. Roughly spherical

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111
Q
  1. Associated with herpes meningitis.
    A. HSV1
    B. HSV2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

C. Both choices are correct

112
Q
  1. Associated with Kerititis
    A. HSV1
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. HSV2
A

A. HSV1

113
Q
  1. Occurence of virus in blood takes months to years
    A. Viral Hep C
    B. Viral Hep A
    C. Viral Hep B
    D. Both Hep A & B
A

D. Both Hep B & C

114
Q
  1. The serologic marker is positive during early acute HBV infection.
    A. anti-Hbs
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. HbsAg
    D. Anti-Hbc
A

C. HbsAg

115
Q

37 Kaposi’s sarcoma associated herpes virus
A. Human herpes virus 8
B. Human herpes virus 6
C. Epstein barr virus
D. Human herpes virus 7

A

A. Human herpes virus 8

116
Q
  1. The following viruses are readily isolated for cell culture except:
    A. Adenovirus
    B. Coxsackie B virus
    C. Cytomegalovirus
    D. Rhinoviruses
    E. Parainfuenza
A

D. Rhinoviruses

117
Q
  1. Which of the following virus is enveloped?
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. Adenovirus
    C. Poliovirus
    D. Herpesvirus
A

D. Herpesvirus

118
Q
  1. Duration of immunity is unknown
    A. Viral Hepatitis A
    B. Viral Hepatitis C
    C. Viral Hepatitis D
    D. Viral Hepatitis B
A

B. Viral Hepatitis C

119
Q
  1. Associated with herpes encephalitis
    a. none of the choices are correct
    b. HSV2
    c. HSV1
    d. both choices are correct
A

c. HSV1

120
Q
  1. Has year round seasonal incidence
    A. Viral Hepatitis B
    B. Viral Hepatitis A
    C. Viral Hepatitis C
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

121
Q
  1. Target organ of HSV 1
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. Lymphoid Tissue
    C. Glands
    D. Neurons
A

D. Neurons
Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1) primarily targets neurons, where it can establish latency, particularly in sensory ganglia such as the trigeminal ganglia.

122
Q
  1. May have normal to slightly elevated immunoglobulin levels
    A. Both hepatitis B & C
    B. Viral hepatitis A
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral hepatitis B
A

A. Both hepatitis C and D

123
Q
  1. Papillomaviruses causes warts and cancer but how do they most
    A. Via scratches and breaks in the skin
    B. Are nosocomial and spread in hospitals often infect humans?
    C. Are airborne
    D. Are water borne
A

A. Via scratches and breaks in the skin
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infections most commonly occur through direct contact, often via minor scratches or breaks in the skin, allowing the virus to infect the epithelial tissues.

124
Q
  1. A virion lacks
    A. Polymerase
    B. ligase
    C. Replicase
    D. Lysozyme
A

D. Lysozyme
Virions, which are complete virus particles, do not contain lysozyme, an enzyme that breaks down the cell walls of bacteria. Viruses rely on host cell machinery for replication and do not use lysozyme in their life cycle.

125
Q
  1. Which is not a characteristic of viruses
    A. Exhibit high specificity for their respective host
    В. Contain DNA or RNA but never both
    C. Are obliged intracellular parasites
    D Are active both inside and outside of host cells
    E. Can infect bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, plants and animals
A

D. Are active both inside and outside of host cells
Viruses are not active outside of host cells. They are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they can only replicate and perform their life cycle functions within a host cell.

126
Q
  1. Target organ of Kaposi’s Sarcoma associated herpes virus
    A. Glands
    B. Lymphoid Tissue
    C. Neuron
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

B. Lymphoid Tissue
Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), also known as Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), primarily targets lymphoid tissue and is associated with several types of cancers, including Kaposi’s Sarcoma, which affects the skin and other organs.

127
Q
  1. No heterologous immunity
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

128
Q
  1. Serologic marker which is positive in patients with HBV infection in the remote past and in low level carriers
    A. anti-Hbs
    B. anti-HBc
    C. HbsAg
    D. HBeAg
A

B. anti-HBc

129
Q
  1. Which one of the following immunizations should be administered immediately after birth?
    a. Diptheria-pertussis tetanus (DPT) vaccine
    b. BCG vaccine
    c. Hepatitis B
    d. Hemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
A

b. BCG vaccine

130
Q
  1. viruses are limited in their host range because
    a. they can only absorb to cells with glycoprotein
    b. they can only replicate in certain types of cell
    c. they can only bind to cells that have opposite charge
    d. only certain cells are susceptible to viral infections
    e. they can only absorb to cells with proper receptors
A

d. only certain cells are susceptible to viral infections

131
Q
  1. Aims to look for sequences that have slight changes that varies between people or viruses:
    A. ELISA test
    B. Western Blotting
    C. RLFP
    D. PCR
A

D. PCR

132
Q

56 All of the follwing descriptions concerning viral multiplication and nucleic acids are true EXCEPT that
A. Viral mRNA, viral tRNA and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication
B. viruses contain DNA or RNA not Both
C. Viruses replicate only in living cells
D.The nucleic acid of a virus is surrounded by a protein coat.
E. viral m RNA, viral t RNA, and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication.

A

E. viral m RNA, viral t RNA, and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication.

133
Q

57 transmitted thru oral contact
A. None of the choices is correct
B. HSV 2
C. HSV 1
D. All of the choices are correct

A

C. HSV 1

134
Q

58 Main target for Epstein barr virus
A. phagocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. mononuclear cells

A

C. B lymphocytes

135
Q
  1. many virus infections result in immune pathology, this is caused predominantly by which of the following?
    a. antibody mediated reactions
    b. a cytokine storm
    c. a decline in function of the immune system
    d. a response of killer T cells (CD-8)
A

b. a cytokine storm

136
Q
  1. A naked virion of herpes measures
    A. 110 nm
    B. 115 nm
    C. 125 nm
    D. 120 nm
A

C. 125 nm

137
Q
  1. Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes polymerase chain reactions (PCR)
    A. Light microscopy
    B. Viral genome detection
    C. Antigen Detection
    D. Electron Microscope
A

B. Viral genome detection

138
Q
  1. What is the usual direction of “knowledge” in a cell
    a random
    b from RNA to DNA to protein
    c from protein to DNA
    d from DNA to RNA
    e from DNA to RNA to protein
A

e from DNA to RNA to protein

139
Q
  1. Has an incubation period of 50-180 days
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis D
    C. Viral hepatitis B
    D. Viral hepatitis C
A

C. Viral hepatitis B

140
Q
  1. Which of the following statements explains why viruses are only able to multiply in living cells?
    A. They have only enough genetic information for DNA replication
    B. Viruses are too small in size to multiply outside living cells
    C. Their binary fission is controlled by host cell genes
    D. DNA is only able to replicate inside living cells
    E. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication
A

E. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication

141
Q
  1. Epstein barr virus cause/s the following diseases except
    a nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    b kaposi sarcoma
    c hodgkin disease
    d infectious mononucleosis
A

b kaposi sarcoma

142
Q
  1. Many viruses can be grown in the laboratory. Which of the following statements about virus propagation is not true.
    A. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells
    B. Some mammalian viruses can be cultivated in hen’s eggs
    C. Some viruses can be propagated in cell free media
    D. Some human viruses can be grown in mice
A

A. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells

143
Q
  1. A protein containing partial with no detachable nucleic acid are known as:
    A. Protein
    B. Prions
    C. Viriods
    D. Virion
A

B. Prions

144
Q
  1. Manifest as cold sores
    A. None of the choices
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both
A

B. HSV1

145
Q
  1. Histological appearance inclusion bodies:
    A. Electron microscopy
    B. Viral genome detection
    C. Light microscopy
    D. Antigen detection
A

C. Light microscopy

146
Q
  1. Associated with Herpetic whitlow
    A. None of the choices
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both
A

D. Both

147
Q
  1. Eczema herpeticum
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1

148
Q
  1. Viruses belonging to which of the following groups are likely to establish latent infections?
    A. Influenza viruses
    B. Filoviruses
    C. Herpesviruses
    D. Caliciviruses
    E. Poxviruses
A

C. Herpesviruses

149
Q
  1. Elevation of animo transferases lasts for 1-6+ months
    A. viral hepatitis
    B. Both hepatitis A and B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral Hepatitis B
A

A. viral hepatitis

150
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to quantitate the infectious titer of viruses?
    A. Polymerase chain reaction
    B. Electron microscopy
    C. Hemagglutination
    D. Enzyme immunoassay
    E. Plaque assay
A

A. Polymerase chain reaction

151
Q
  1. The skin is an impenetrable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasions?
    a. Papillomavirus
    b. Influenza virus
    c. Rhinovirus
    d. Rotavirus
    e. Adenovirus
A

a. Papillomavirus
Papillomavirus, specifically Human Papillomavirus (HPV), can enter the body through small abrasions in the skin, leading to infections that may result in warts or, in some cases, cancers.

152
Q
  1. Virus of different families have varied geometric structures. which of the following is true
    A. the nucleic acid is commonly linear
    B. all viruses have the same basic geometry
    C. all virus have a lipid bilayer
    D. virus nucleocapsid are either icosahedral or helical
A

d. virus nucleocapsids are either icosahedral or helical
Viruses exhibit a variety of geometric structures in their nucleocapsids, with the most common shapes being icosahedral and helical. This diversity allows for a wide range of virus sizes and properties, accommodating their different modes of infection and replication.

153
Q
  1. Which of the following nucleic acid types are not found in viruses
    A. all of the choices are correct
    B. circular single stranded RNA
    C. linear double stranded DNA
    D. circular double stranded DNA
    E. linear single stranded RNA
A

A. all of the choices are correct
This statement is incorrect as presented because all the options listed (B, C, D, E) represent nucleic acid types that can be found in viruses. Viruses can have circular single-stranded RNA, linear double-stranded DNA, circular double-stranded DNA, and linear single-stranded RNA.

154
Q
  1. First step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage
    A. absorption
    B. penetration
    C. replicaion
    D. adsorption
    E. uncoating
A

D. adsorption
The first step in the infection of a host bacterial cell by a bacteriophage (phage) is adsorption, where the phage attaches to specific receptors on the surface of the bacterial cell.

155
Q
  1. viruses of different families have varied geometric structure which of the following is true
    a. the nuclei acid is commonly linear
    b. all viruses have the same basic geometry
    c. all viruses have a lipid bilayer
    d. virus nucleocapsid are either icosahedral or helical
A

d. virus nucleocapsids are either icosahedral or helical
Viruses exhibit a variety of geometric structures in their nucleocapsids, with the most common shapes being icosahedral and helical.

156
Q
  1. What is the most important factor for virus classification?
    A. How many proteins the virus has
    B. The geometry of the virus
    C. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA
    D. The disease of a virus causes
A

C. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA
The most important factor for virus classification is the chemistry of the nucleic acid (DNA or RNA), including its structure (single-stranded or double-stranded), and whether it is linear, circular, or segmented.

157
Q
  1. Sexually transmitted
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

B. HSV 2

158
Q
  1. Control of cytomegalovirus inclusion disease involves the following except
    a. Screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibody
    b. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines
    c. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV
    d. Isolation of newborns with generalized CMV inclusion diseases from other newborns
A

c. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV
The administration of human IgM for CMV control is not a standard practice. Control measures typically include screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibodies, development of vaccines, and isolation of infected newborns, but not the administration of human IgM in the manner described.

159
Q
  1. associated with cutaneous herpes
    a. HSV1
    a. HSV2
    b. both choices are correct
    c. none of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1

160
Q
  1. This can spread easily and can be resistant to acid and bile in the enteric tract
    a. enveloped viruses
    A. RNA viruses
    B. Naked viruses
    C. DNA viruses
A

B. Naked viruses
Naked viruses, which lack an envelope, are generally more resistant to environmental stresses such as acid and bile in the enteric tract. This resilience facilitates their spread, especially via the fecal-oral route.

161
Q
  1. Naked strand of RNA expressed only in the presence of Hepatitis B virus.
    A. adeno-associated virus
    B. Delta agent
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Sattelited viruses
A

B. Delta agent

162
Q

86 May affect neonates
A. VIral hepatitis D
B. VIral hepatitis B
C. VIral hepatitis C
D. VIral hepatitis A

A

B. VIral hepatitis B

163
Q
  1. Present in the saliva and/or semen.
    A. Both hepatitis A and B
    B. Viral hepatitis C
    C. Viral hepatitis A
    D. Viral hepatitis B
A

A. Both hepatitis A and B

164
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses has not been associated with human cancer?
    A. Hepa B virus
    B. Hepa C virus
    C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
    D. Varicella-Zoster virus
A

D. Varicella-Zoster virus

Varicella-Zoster virus, which causes chickenpox and shingles, has not been strongly associated with human cancer, unlike the other viruses listed, which have associations with various forms of cancer.

165
Q
  1. It has the highest mortality rate
    A. Viral Hepatitis D
    B. Viral Hepatitis C
    C. Viral Hepatitis B
    D. Viral Hepatitis A
A

A. Viral Hepatitis D
Viral Hepatitis D (HDV), especially when co-infecting with Hepatitis B Virus (HBV), is known to have a higher mortality rate compared to infections with HBV, HCV (Hepatitis C Virus), or HAV (Hepatitis A Virus) alone. HDV infection can lead to more severe liver disease, including fulminant hepatitis and a higher risk of developing cirrhosis and liver cancer.

166
Q
  1. What is the most common way for a virus to kill a cell?
    A. Induces apoptosis via caspases
    B. Fragments cellular DNA
    C. Totally blocks cellular transcription
    D. Dissolves the cellular membrane
A

A. Induces apoptosis via caspases

167
Q
  1. Mode of Action is to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
    A. Saquinovir
    B. Acyclovir
    C. Tamiflu
    D. Interferon
A

B. Acyclovir

168
Q
  1. what happens during the incubation period
    a. the period commonly last for a few hours
    b. virus is cleared from the body by the immune system
    c. virus replication happens in intracellular level
    d. period commonly last few days
A

c. virus replication happens in intracellular level

169
Q
  1. When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately, the situation is called.
    A. Lysis
    B. Synergism
    C. Symbiosis
    D. Lysogeny
A

D. Lysogeny

170
Q
  1. The enveloped form of herpes virus measures
    a. 150nm
    b. 120nm
    c. 160nm
    d. 140nm
A

a. 150nm

171
Q
  1. Virus particles present in the sample will be absorbed onto the grid by the antibody while the grid is coated with specific anti-sera
    A. Radioimmunoassay
    B. Immunofluorescence
    C. Viral Genome Detection
    D. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM)
    E. Classical Immune electron microscopy (IEM)
A

D. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM)

172
Q
  1. True regarding viral multiplication of bacteriophages. Except
    A. release occurs via cell lysis only
    B. Uncoating is necessary
    C. Multiplication is similar to animal viruses
    D. Only the nucleic acid enters the cytoplasm
A

B. Uncoating is necessary

173
Q
  1. target organ of HHV 6
    A. Glands
    B. Lymphoid tissue
    C. Neuron
    D. NOTA
A

B. Lymphoid tissue

174
Q
  1. The main criteria used to group viruses are structure, chemical composition, and what other characteristic
    A.Presence and type of envelope
    B.Overall viral size
    C.Area of host cell in which the virus multiplies
    D.Similarities in genetic makeup
    E.Type of capsid
A

A.Presence and type of envelope

175
Q
  1. There is occurence of the virus in the urine
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral hepatitis D
A

A. Viral hepatitis A

176
Q
  1. Abrupt onset of disease
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral hepatitis D
A

A. Viral hepatitis A

177
Q
  1. Which is not a characteristics of diseases caused by Prions?
    A. The disease is multisystemic
    B. Diseases are always fatal
    C. Host shows no inflammatory response
    D. The disease is confined to the nervous system
A

A. The disease is multisystemic
Prion diseases are primarily neurodegenerative and are confined to the nervous system rather than being multisystemic.

178
Q
  1. Which is Not a characteristic of Rubella?
    a. Transmitted by arthropods
    b. Member of Togaviridae family
    c. Member of genus Rubivirus
    d. Causes the 3-day measles
A

a. Transmitted by arthropods
Rubella is not transmitted by arthropods; it is spread through respiratory droplets.

179
Q
  1. which among the following disease is associated with a measle virus variant?
    A. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
    b. creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
    c. kuru
    d. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
A

d. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare and chronic form of progressive brain inflammation caused by a persistent infection with a mutated form of the measles virus.

180
Q

4.What virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma?
A. EB virus
B. Human Papillomavirus
C. Human herpesvirus 8
D. HTL virus

A

A. EB virus
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma, especially in endemic areas.

181
Q

5 What family does poliovirus belong to?
A. Picornavirus
B. Togavirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Coronavirus

A

A. Picornavirus
Poliovirus is a member of the Picornaviridae family.

182
Q
  1. What was practiced in the Eastern highlands of New Guinea that made Kuru endemic in that area?
    A. Eating the brain of pigs
    B. Eating the brain of Guinea pigs
    C. Eating the brain of dead relatives
    D. Eating the brain of crocodiles
A

C. Eating the brain of dead relatives
Kuru was transmitted among the Fore people of Papua New Guinea through ritualistic cannibalism, specifically the consumption of the brains of dead relatives.

183
Q
  1. Which is an example of Hantaviruses are transmitted not by arthropods but by persistently infected rodents, via aerosols of contaminated excreta?
    A. Bunyavirus
    B. Paramyxovirus
    C. Picornavirus
    D. Flavivirus
A

A. Bunyavirus
Hantaviruses, which are part of the Bunyaviridae family, are transmitted to humans through aerosolized virus from rodent urine, droppings, or saliva.

184
Q
  1. what will immunofluorescence and immunoperoxidase detects?
    A. detection of virus antigens
    B. detection of virus specific antibodies
    C. detection of virus nucleic acids
    D. detects for antigen-antibody reactions
A

A. detection of virus antigens
Immunofluorescence and immunoperoxidase techniques are used for the detection of virus antigens in samples.

185
Q
  1. Which among the following does Japanese encephalitis virus belong to?
    A. Togavirus
    B. Arenavirus
    C. Rhabdovirus
    D. Flavivirus
A

D. Flavivirus
Japanese encephalitis virus is a member of the Flavivirus genus.

186
Q
  1. What virus is associated with Genital Squamous cell carcinoma
    A. EB Virus
    B. Human Papillomavirus
    C. HTL Virus
    D. Human Herpesvirus B
A

B. Human Papillomavirus
Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is strongly associated with the development of genital squamous cell carcinoma.

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is ether resistant,naked and has Icosahedral type of symmetry?
    A. Picornavirus
    B. Togavirus
    C. Paramyxovirus
    D. Coronavirus
A

A. Picornavirus
Picornaviruses are naked, ether-resistant, and have icosahedral symmetry.

188
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characterisite of Retroviruses?
    A. Infection does not kill cells
    B. Many members are tumor viruses
    C. Does not activate expression of cell genes
    D. May transduce cellular oncogenes
A

A. Infection does not kill cells
Retroviruses can indeed kill cells, particularly when they are cytocidal. While some retroviruses are associated with tumor formation and can integrate into the host genome (potentially activating or transducing cellular oncogenes), not all retroviruses are non-cytocidal. The statement “Infection does not kill cells” does not fully represent the diversity of retroviral infections, as some can lead to cell death, contradicting the provided context.

189
Q
  1. Which does not describe Prions?
    A.These are conventional infectious agents
    B. These are uncoventional infectious agents
    C. Causes Degenerative Central Nervous System diseases
    D. Causes transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies
A

A. These are conventional infectious agents
Prions are unconventional infectious agents, known for causing degenerative CNS diseases and transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.

190
Q
  1. Which of the following is a naked RNA virus?
    A. Picornavirus
    B. Togavirus
    C. Paramyxovirus
    D. Coronavirus
A

A. Picornavirus
Picornaviruses are naked RNA viruses.

191
Q

15.What family of Virus does the causative agent of German measles belong to?
A. Picornavirus
B. Togavirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Coronavirus

A

B. Togavirus
The causative agent of German measles (Rubella) belongs to the Togaviridae family.

192
Q
  1. Which is naked Icosahedral RNA virion
    A. Togavirus
    B. Rhabdovirus
    C. Flavivirus
    D. Reovirus
A

D. Reovirus
Reoviruses are naked, icosahedral RNA viruses.

193
Q
  1. Which of the following disease is associated with the Polyomavirus?
    A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
    B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
    C. Kuru
    D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
A

A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is associated with the JC Polyomavirus.

194
Q
  1. What condition in humans develops gradually, with progressive dementia, ataxia, and myoclonus, and leads to death in 5-12 months?
    A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
    B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
    C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
    D. Kuru
A

A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is characterized by rapid neurodegeneration, leading to severe dementia, ataxia, and myoclonus, usually resulting in death within a year.

195
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with hepatocelluar carcinoma?
    A. Hepadnaviridae
    B. Retroviridae
    C. Papillomaviridae
    D. Herpesviridae
A

A. Hepadnaviridae
The Hepadnaviridae family, particularly the Hepatitis B virus, is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.

196
Q
  1. To what enveloped RNA virus does the cause of Lassa Fever belong to?
    A. Arenaviridae
    B. Coronaviridae
    C. Reoviridae
    D. Flavivirus
A

A. Arenaviridae
Lassa fever is caused by the Lassa virus, which belongs to the Arenaviridae family.

197
Q
  1. A 20 y/o male came in for difficulty of swallowing solids and fluids, agitated with a history of being bitten by his pet dog 1 week ago. What is the causative agent for this case?
    A. Togavirus
    B. Rhabdovirus
    C. Flavivirus
    D. Paramyxovirus
A

B. Rhabdovirus
Rationale: The clinical presentation of difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), agitation, and a history of being bitten by a dog suggests rabies. The causative agent of rabies is the Rabies virus, which belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, thus making Rhabdovirus the correct answer.

198
Q
  1. How long is the manifestation of disease from infection of Prions?
    A. Few seconds to hours
    B. Few hours to days
    C. Variable can be acute most of the time
    D. Months to decades
A

D. Months to decades
Rationale: Prion diseases, also known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs), have a prolonged incubation period that can range from months to decades before symptoms appear. This long latency period is characteristic of prion diseases.

199
Q
  1. What virus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
    A. EB virus
    B. Human papillomavirus
    C. Human herpesvirus 8
    D. HTL virus
A

A. EB virus
Rationale: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is strongly associated with the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which is a member of the herpesvirus family. EBV infection is a major risk factor for developing this type of cancer.

200
Q
  1. What statement is True regarding Rubella virus?
    A. a naked RNA virus
    B. ether-resistant
    C. has helical symmetry
    D. ether sensitive
A

D. ether sensitive
Rationale: The Rubella virus (Togaviridae) , which causes rubella (German measles), is an enveloped virus that is sensitive to ether. This property is due to the lipid envelope that surrounds the virus, which can be disrupted by ether.

201
Q

25.A 4 y.o child came in due to 5 days high grade fever temporarily controlled by paracetamol. He showed increased sleepiness, abdominal and bone pains and is dehydrated. Initial CBC showed WBC of 3 and platelet of 150,000. What is the family of viral causative agent for this case?
A. Togavirus
B. Arenavirus
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Flavivirus

A

D. Flavivirus
Rationale: The clinical presentation suggests a severe febrile illness with hematologic abnormalities, which could be indicative of dengue fever, caused by the Dengue virus. The Dengue virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family, making Flavivirus the correct answer.

202
Q
  1. Which of the following agents can inactivate Prions?
    A. Formaldehyde
    B. lonizing radiation
    C. Household bleach
    D. Urea
A

C. Household bleach
Rationale: Prions are extremely resistant to conventional methods of inactivation. However, certain protocols including the use of household bleach (sodium hypochlorite) at a specific concentration have been shown to be effective in deactivating prions.

203
Q

27 which the only ether sensitive icosahedral RNA virus?
A. togavirus
B. picornavirus
C. astrovirus
D. reovirus

A

A. togavirus
Rationale: Togaviruses are enveloped viruses that are sensitive to ether due to their lipid envelope. This property distinguishes them from other icosahedral RNA viruses in this list.

204
Q
  1. Which causes hemorrhagic fever and nephropathy in a 20 y.o M who had exposure to contaminated rodent droppings?
    A. Bunyavirus
    B. Paramyxovirus
    C. Picornavirus
    D. Flavivirus
A

A. Bunyavirus
Rationale: Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) is associated with exposure to rodent droppings and is caused by certain viruses within the Bunyaviridae family, making Bunyavirus the correct answer.

205
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an RNA virus
    A. Togavirus
    B. Parvovirus
    C. Coronavirus
    D. Picornavirus
A

B. Parvovirus
Rationale: Parvovirus is a DNA virus, distinguishing it from the other options, which are all RNA viruses. This makes Parvovirus the correct answer for the virus that is not an RNA virus.

206
Q

30.Which of the following is an enveloped ether sensitive and has a helical symmetry?
A. Picornavirus
B. Togavirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Coronavirus

A

C. Paramyxovirus
Rationale: Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, ether-sensitive viruses with helical symmetry. This group includes viruses that cause diseases such as measles, mumps, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), making Paramyxovirus the correct answer.

207
Q
  1. What compound is highly effective in decontaminating medical supplies against Prions?
    A. Guanidine thiocyanate
    B. Formaldehyde
    C. Urea
    D. Household bleach
A

D. Household bleach
Rationale: Household bleach (sodium hypochlorite) is known to be effective in decontaminating surfaces and medical supplies from prions, which are highly resistant to most forms of disinfection. Guanidine thiocyanate, formaldehyde, and urea are not as effective in inactivating prions.

208
Q
  1. What virus is associated with oropharyngeal carcinoma?
    a. EB virus
    b. Human Papillomavirus
    c. Human herpesvirus 8
    d. HTL virus
A

b. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
Rationale: Human Papillomavirus, especially HPV types 16 and 18, is strongly associated with oropharyngeal carcinoma, particularly cancers of the tonsils and base of the tongue.

209
Q
  1. Which among the viruses has the virions incorporate host cell ribosomes during maturation, which gives the particles a “sandy” appearance ?
    a. Arenaviridae
    b. Coronaviridae
    c. Reoviridea
    d. Flavivirus
A

a. Arenaviridae
Rationale: Arenaviridae virions incorporate host cell ribosomes during maturation, which gives the viral particles a characteristic “sandy” appearance under electron microscopy.

210
Q
  1. Which of the following etiologic agents is associated with Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ?
    A. Polyomavirus
    B. JCV
    C. Prions
    D. Measles virus variant
A

C. Prions
Rationale: Prions are the etiologic agents associated with neurodegenerative diseases such as Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. These are proteinaceous infectious particles that cause disease by inducing abnormal folding of normal cellular prion proteins.

211
Q
  1. Which of the following is a part of the Congenital Rubella Syndrome?
    A. Congenital heart disease
    B. Hypospadia
    C. Umbilical Hernia
    D. Polydactily
A

A. Congenital heart disease
Rationale: Congenital heart disease, such as patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis, is a common manifestation of Congenital Rubella Syndrome, along with cataracts and deafness.

212
Q
  1. Which among the following viruses has a helical capsid, ether-sensitive?
    A. Togavirus
    B. Orthomyxovirus
    C. Flavivirus
    D. Picornavirus
A

B. Orthomyxovirus
Rationale: Orthomyxoviruses, which include the influenza viruses, have a helical capsid and are ether-sensitive due to their lipid envelope. This property is used in virology to distinguish enveloped from non-enveloped viruses.

213
Q

37 What does the Dengue test determine?
A. Detection of virus antigens
B. Detection of virus-specific antibodies
C. Detection of virus nucleic acids
D. Detects for Antigen-Antibody reactions

A

D. Detects for Antigen-Antibody reactions

214
Q
  1. What test determines the surface antigen of Hepatitis B?
    A. Immunoassays
    B. Detection of virus-specific antibodies
    C. Detection of virus nucleic acids
    D. Hemagglutination assay
A

A. Immunoassays
Rationale: Immunoassays, such as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), are commonly used to detect the surface antigen (HBsAg) of Hepatitis B virus, indicating an active infection.

215
Q
  1. Which of the following have a complex or unknown Capsid symmetry?
    A. Picornavirus
    B. Togavirus
    C. Paramyxovirus
    D. Coronavirus
A

D. Coronavirus
Rationale: Coronaviruses have a complex or “unknown” capsid symmetry due to their unique structure, characterized by the club-like spikes that emanate from their surface, giving them a crown-like appearance under electron microscopy.

216
Q
  1. Which is an example of an ether resistant virus?
    A. Picornavirus
    B. Togavirus
    C. Paramyxovirus
    D. Coronavirus
A

A. Picornavirus
Rationale: Picornaviruses, which include poliovirus, coxsackievirus, and rhinovirus, are non-enveloped viruses and thus are resistant to ether. Ether typically disrupts the lipid envelopes of viruses, so non-enveloped viruses are unaffected.

217
Q
  1. What is the sole member of the Genus rubivirus under the famiy of Togaviridae that causes generalized maculopapular rash and occipital lymphadenopathy?
    A. Dengue virus
    B. Rubeola virus
    C. Rubella virus
    D. Lassa Fever virus
A

C. Rubella virus
Rationale: Rubella virus, the sole member of the genus Rubivirus within the family Togaviridae, causes rubella (also known as German measles), characterized by a generalized maculopapular rash and occipital lymphadenopathy.

218
Q
  1. Which is NOT a tenet for viral carcinogenesis?
    A. Viruses are always complete carcinogen
    B. Viral strains may differ in oncogenic potential
    C. Viral markers are usually present in tumor cells
    D. Viruses are seldom complete carcinogens
A

A. Viruses are always complete carcinogen
Rationale: This statement is not true as a tenet for viral carcinogenesis. Viruses are seldom complete carcinogens; they may act as part of a multistep carcinogenesis process, where they initiate the cancerous process but other factors, such as genetic predisposition and environmental factors, also play a crucial role.

219
Q
  1. What do Polymerase Chain Reaction or PCR detects?
    A. Immunoassays
    B. Detection of virus-specific antibodies
    C. Detection of virus nucleic acids
    D. Hemagglutination assay
A

C. Detection of virus nucleic acids
Rationale: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a molecular technique used to amplify and detect specific DNA or RNA sequences, making it a powerful tool for identifying the presence of virus nucleic acids in samples.

220
Q
  1. What virus is associated with Adult T cell Leukemia?
    A. EB virus
    B. Human Papillomavirus
    C. Human herpesvirus 8
    D. HTL virus
A

D. HTL virus
Rationale: Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATL) is associated with Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1), often referred to as HTL virus in this context.

221
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
    A. Flaviviridae
    B. Retroviridae
    C. Papillomaviridae
    D. Herpesviridae
A

A. Flaviviridae
Rationale: The Hepatitis C virus, a member of the Flaviviridae family, is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis B virus, although not a member of the Flaviviridae family, is also associated with hepatocellular carcinoma but belongs to the Hepadnaviridae family.

222
Q

46.A child came in with moderate grade fever with a maculo-papular rash and post-occipital lymphadenopathy.
What is the causative virus?
A. Dengue virus
B. Rubeola virus
C. Rubella virus
D. Lassa Fever virus

A

C. Rubella virus
Rationale: The symptoms described are characteristic of rubella, caused by the Rubella virus, which leads to a maculopapular rash and post-occipital lymphadenopathy.

223
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Lentiviruses?
    A. Causes slowly progressive, chronic diseases
    B. Infects the cells of the immune system
    C. Cancer producing viruses
    D. Includes the causative agent of AIDS
A

C. Cancer producing viruses
Rationale: Lentiviruses, a subgroup of retroviruses, are known for causing slowly progressive, chronic diseases and infecting cells of the immune system. They are not typically associated with cancer production; this characteristic is more closely associated with other virus families like Papillomaviridae and Herpesviridae.

224
Q

48.What virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?
A. EB virus
B. Human Papillomavirus
C. Human herpesvirus 8
D. HTL virus

A

C. Human herpesvirus 8
Rationale: Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).

225
Q
  1. What is the characteristic of the diseases caused by prions in nervous system?
    A. Neurodegeneration and spongiform changes
    B. Caseation necrosis of brain matter
    C. Deposition of fibrinoid material in the gray matter
    D. Chronic calcification changes in the brain
A

A. Neurodegeneration and spongiform changes
Rationale: Diseases caused by prions in the nervous system, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and kuru, are characterized by neurodegeneration and spongiform changes in the brain, leading to a sponge-like appearance due to the formation of vacuoles.

226
Q
  1. Which virus family is associated with the Human Deficiency virus which causes AIDS-related malignancies and the HTL virus
    A. Flaviviradae
    B. Retroviridae
    C. Papillomaviridae
    C. Herpesviridae
A

B. Retroviridae
Rationale: The Retroviridae family includes the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which causes AIDS, and the Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV), associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma, both of which can lead to AIDS-related malignancies.

227
Q

51 possibly the second most common viral cause of gastroenteritis which is 7-15% of all endemic causes
A. calicivirus
B. enterovirus
C. adenovirus
D. astrovirus
E. reovirus

A

C. adenovirus

228
Q
  1. all statements are true regarding calciviruses EXCEPT:
    A. like norwalk type viruses, vomiting is the prominent feature of disease
    B. small RNA viruses, characteristic surface morphology consisting of hollows particles 35 nm in diameter
    C. diagnosed by electron microscopy only often difficult to diagnose because of small size
    D. majority of children have antibodies against calciviruses by age of six
    E. associated mainly with epidemic outbreaks of gastroenteritis, although occasionally responsible for endemic cases
A

D. majority of children have antibodies against calciviruses by age of six
Rationale: This statement is not true; it is more accurate for viruses like rotavirus due to widespread exposure and vaccination in some cases. Caliciviruses, particularly noroviruses, can infect individuals of all ages, and immunity is not always long-lasting or fully protective.

229
Q
  1. The following paramyxoviruses originated from humans except one:
    A. Morbillivirus
    B. Rubellavirus
    C. Henipavirus
    D. Pneumovirus
A

B. Rubellavirus
Rationale: Rubellavirus, the causative agent of rubella or German measles, is not a member of the Paramyxoviridae family. It belongs to the Togaviridae family. Morbillivirus (measles virus), Henipavirus (Nipah and Hendra viruses), and Pneumovirus (Respiratory Syncytial Virus) are part of the Paramyxoviridae family.

230
Q
  1. Infects adults and children and considered as epidemic viral gastroenteritis
    A. Rotavirus
    B. Norwalk agent and Calicivirus
    C. Astroviruses and Retrovirus
    D. AOTA
A

B. Norwalk agent and Calicivirus
Rationale: Norwalk virus (a member of the Norovirus genus) and other caliciviruses are known for causing epidemic viral gastroenteritis in both adults and children.

231
Q

55 Each of the following statements concerning Hepatitis A Virus is correct EXCEPT ONE:
A. The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus in cell culture
B. The initial site of viral replication is the GIT
C. Immunoglobulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons
D. HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children
E. Hepa A can cause sudden loss of liver function in some cases

A

A. The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus in cell culture
Rationale: Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) diagnosis is typically made through the detection of specific IgM antibodies in the blood, not by isolating the virus in cell culture, which is difficult and not routinely done for clinical diagnosis.

232
Q

56 all of the following picornaviruses are resistant to the acidity of the stomach except:
A. Echoviruses
B. Polioviruses
C. Rhinoviruses
D. Coxsackie Virus A
E. Coxsackie Virus B

A

B. Polioviruses

Rationale: While most picornaviruses are resistant to the acidic environment of the stomach, allowing them to infect the gastrointestinal tract and spread via the fecal-oral route, the clarification provided indicates that poliovirus can be inactivated by stomach acid after prolonged incubation. This makes poliovirus the exception among the options given, as it has a relative sensitivity to gastric acidity compared to the other picornaviruses listed, which are generally resistant to such conditions.

233
Q
  1. Ivana, a 7 month old girl is taken to the emergency room because of fever and persistent cough. rales are heard in her left chest on physical examination. an infiltrate in her left lung is seen on the chest radiograph. pneumonia is diagnosed. which of the following is the most likely cause?
    a. coxsackievirus
    b. respiratory syncytial virus
    c. rhinovirus
    d. rotavirus
    e. orthomyxovirus
A

b. respiratory syncytial virus
Rationale: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is a common cause of pneumonia in infants and young children, characterized by fever, persistent cough, and infiltrates seen on chest radiographs.

234
Q
  1. All of the following are acceptable specimens for the isolation of enterovirus, EXCEPT ONE:
    A. Skin lesion
    B. Feces
    C. CSF
    D. Urine
    E. Throat secretions
A

D. Urine

235
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of aseptic meningitis of viral etiology
    A. Orthomyovirus
    B. Paramyxivirus
    C. Enterovirus
    D. Coronavirus
    E. RSV
A

C. Enterovirus
Rationale: Enteroviruses are the most common cause of aseptic meningitis of viral etiology, causing a significant number of cases worldwide.

236
Q

60 Major pandemics are associated with antigenic shifts- when viral H or N or both changes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE
Rationale: Major pandemics, especially of influenza, are associated with antigenic shifts, which involve significant changes in the viral hemagglutinin (H) or neuraminidase (N) proteins, or both. This can lead to the emergence of a virus to which the population has little to no immunity, resulting in widespread disease.

237
Q
  1. The predominating complaint is flaccid paralysis from lower motor neuron damage
    A. Mild poliomyelitis
    B. Paralytic poliomyelitis
    C. Aseptic meningitis
    D. Non paralytic poliomyelitis
    E. Progressive poliomyelitis
A

B. Paralytic poliomyelitis
Rationale: Paralytic poliomyelitis is characterized by flaccid paralysis resulting from lower motor neuron damage. This severe form of polio can lead to permanent paralysis in some limbs.

238
Q
  1. All three types of influenza virus exhibit antigenic drift. However, which of the following will indergo antigenic shift?
    A. Infleunza A
    B. All of the choices are correct
    C. Influenza C
    D. Influenza B
A

A. Influenza A
Rationale: Only Influenza A viruses are known to undergo both antigenic drift and antigenic shift. Antigenic shift can lead to pandemics by generating a significantly different virus to which the population has little or no immunity.

239
Q

63 Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with picornaviruses EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis
B. meningitis
C. mononucleosis
D. myocarditis

A

C. mononucleosis
Rationale: Mononucleosis is typically associated with the Epstein-Barr virus (a herpesvirus), not picornaviruses. Picornaviruses can cause hepatitis (A), meningitis, and myocarditis among other syndromes.

240
Q
  1. Epidemic pleurodynia and mycarditis are both caused by
    A. RSV
    B. Coronavirus
    C. Group B Coxsackievirus
    D. Adenovirus
    E. Group A Coxsackievirus
A

C. Group B Coxsackievirus
Rationale: Group B Coxsackieviruses are known to cause epidemic pleurodynia (Bornholm disease) and myocarditis, among other conditions.

241
Q
  1. All statements are TRUE regarding rotavirus pathogenesis EXCEPT:
    A. infect villi of lareg intestine
    B. enterocytes are replaced by crpyt cells
    C. multiply in enterocytes
    D. crypt cells have different sodium and glucose transport features that lead to fluid loss in the small intestine
    E. disrupts cellular transport systems in endoplasmic reticulum in particular
A

A. infect villi of large intestine
Rationale: Rotavirus primarily infects the villi of the small intestine, not the large intestine. This infection leads to diarrhea due to malabsorption and destruction of enterocytes, which are replaced by crypt cells with different transport features.

242
Q

66 Which of the following is a ds-segmented RNA virus
A. coronavirus
B. rotavirus
C. adenovirus
D. rhinovirus
E. RSV

A

B. rotavirus
Rationale: Rotavirus is a double-stranded RNA virus that is segmented, belonging to the Reoviridae family. It is a leading cause of severe diarrhea among infants and young children globally.

243
Q
  1. Which member of the paramyxovirus family can cause very serious croup?
    A. Parainfluenza virus
    B. Mumps virus
    C. Measles virus
    D. Nipah virus
    E. RSV
A

A. Parainfluenza virus
Rationale: Parainfluenza virus, particularly types 1 and 2, can cause croup (laryngotracheobronchitis), which is a very serious condition characterized by a distinctive barking cough, stridor, and difficulty breathing.

244
Q
  1. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following viruses
    A. RSV
    B. Enterovirus
    C. Rhinoviruses
    D. Coronoviruses
    E. Reoviruses
A

B. Enterovirus
Rationale: Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by Enterovirus 70 and Coxsackievirus A24. These viruses lead to sudden onset of eye pain, redness, and hemorrhage.

245
Q
  1. The first candidate polio vaccine was based on one serotype of a live attenuated virus was developed by
    A. Hillary Koprowski
    B. Albert Sabin
    C. Maurice Hillerman
    D. Jonas Salik
A

A. Hillary Koprowski
Rationale: Hillary Koprowski developed the first successful oral polio vaccine using a live attenuated virus. However, it was Albert Sabin’s oral vaccine that became more widely used and known for controlling polio.

246
Q
  1. True regarding hepatitis A except
    A. enveloped symmetrical RNA virus
    B. virus spreads probably by the bloodstream to the liver Ab to Hepa A virus that persists is also detectable late in the incubation period
    C. shares many characteristics of the picornavirus family
    D. AOTA
A

A. enveloped symmetrical RNA virus
Rationale: Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is a non-enveloped, symmetrical RNA virus. It is indeed part of the Picornaviridae family and shares many characteristics with picornaviruses, but being enveloped is not one of them.

247
Q
  1. Causes fusion of cell membrane and responsible for syncytial formation
    A. F. glycoprotein
    B. Outer Lipids
    C. neraminidase
    D. Hemagglutinin
    E. M. protein
A

A. F. glycoprotein
Rationale: The F (fusion) glycoprotein is responsible for the fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane, leading to syncytial formation, where multiple cells fuse to form a single cell with multiple nuclei. This is characteristic of certain viruses like respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

248
Q
  1. The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterized by which of the following?
    A. Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes
    B. High levels of recombination
    C. Rapid adsorption and fusion from without via a hydrophobic peptide
    D. High fidelity RNA replicase enzyme
A

A. Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes
Rationale: Influenza A virus has a segmented RNA genome consisting of 8 segments, which allows for genetic reassortment when two different strains of the virus infect the same cell. This reassortment is a major mechanism behind the antigenic shift, leading to new influenza virus subtypes.

249
Q
  1. true regarding coronavirus except
    a. high frequency of recombination
    b. notoriously difficult to propagate in culture
    c. budding into ER and golgi
    d. cytoplasmic replication
    e. exocytosis is thought to mediate infection
A

E. exocytosis is thought to mediate infection
Rationale: Coronavirus infection and replication involve entry into the cell, replication in the cytoplasm, and release of new virions by budding into the ER and Golgi apparatus, followed by exocytosis. However, exocytosis is not thought to mediate infection; rather, it’s a part of the virus release process from infected cells.

250
Q
  1. Surface glycoprotein is absent in most viruses except
    a. mumps virus
    b. measles virus
    c. parainfluenza virus
    d. RSV
    e. picornaviruses
A

d. RSV

251
Q
  1. All of the following association are true EXCEPT ONE:
    A. severe generalized disease of infants are caused by some group B coxsackieviruses
    B. Mumps virus can cause meningitis
    C. Poliovirus can cause paralytic disease
    D. Astrovirus causes gastroenteritis only in adults
A

D. Astrovirus causes gastroenteritis only in adults
Rationale: Astroviruses can cause gastroenteritis in both children and adults, but they are more commonly associated with gastroenteritis in young children, not exclusively in adults.

252
Q
  1. portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly through
    A. lungs
    B. GIT
    C. nasal mucosa
    D. skin
A

B. GIT
Rationale: Poliovirus primarily enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract (GIT), where it infects and replicates before spreading to other parts of the body, including the nervous system in cases of paralytic disease.

253
Q
  1. which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is correct
    A. they are the most frequent causative agent of the common cold
    B. they do not survive on environmental surface
    C. there are three antigenic types
    D. they share phyiochemical similarities with coronaviruses
A

A. they are the most frequent causative agent of the common cold
Rationale: Rhinoviruses are indeed the most frequent causative agents of the common cold, responsible for a significant percentage of all colds in both children and adults.

254
Q
  1. Both HA and NA are present in this/these virus/es
    A. RSV
    B. Measles
    C. Parainfluenza
    D. AOTA
A

C. Parainfluenza

Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA)

255
Q
  1. Rotavirus and Norwalk virus are distinctly different viruses.
    However, they share which one of the following characteristics?
    A. A double stranded RNA genome
    B. They induce generally mild disease ion young children
    C. Infection patterns show no seasonal variation
    D. Fecal-oral mode of transmission
    E. They mainly cause disease in infants and young children
A

D. Fecal-oral mode of transmission
Rationale: Both Rotavirus and Norwalk virus (a type of Norovirus) share the fecal-oral mode of transmission. They are transmitted by the ingestion of contaminated food or water and person-to-person contact.

256
Q

80.Which of the following viruses belongs to family caliciviridae?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis D virus
E. Hepatitis C virus

A

C. Hepatitis E virus
Rationale: Hepatitis E virus belongs to the family Hepeviridae, not Caliciviridae. None of the hepatitis viruses listed belong to the Caliciviridae family, which includes noroviruses and sapoviruses, known for causing gastroenteritis.

257
Q
  1. True regarding mumps virus
    A. Human is only natural host
    B. Lifelong immunity after single infection
    C. ssRNA (Negative sense)
    D. HN spikes: Possess both HA and NA activity
    E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All of the choices are correct
Rationale: Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus with the following characteristics: humans are its only natural host, it typically confers lifelong immunity after a single infection, it is a single-stranded RNA virus with negative sense, and its HN spikes possess both hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) activity.

258
Q
  1. True regarding SARS except
    A. In Pneumonia, cause of death is lung failure
    B. All of the chices are correct
    C. Infection is mediated by human angiotensin converting enzyme 2 receptor
    D. Virus is transmitted by respi and fecal routes
    E. Low expression in lung alveolar epithelial cells and intestinal enterocytes
A

E. Low expression in lung alveolar epithelial cells and intestinal enterocytes
Rationale: SARS-CoV (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus) is known for its high expression in lung alveolar epithelial cells, which is a major site of infection and replication, contributing to the severe respiratory symptoms observed in infected individuals. This statement is incorrect in the context of SARS pathology.

259
Q
  1. CD155 is a receptor for both alpha herpes virus and
    A. Echovirus
    B. Coxsackieviruses B
    C. Poliovirus
    D. Enterovirus
    E. Coxsackievirus A
A

C. Poliovirus
Rationale: CD155 (also known as the poliovirus receptor) is a receptor for poliovirus, facilitating its entry into cells. It is not a receptor for alpha herpesviruses.

260
Q
  1. Live poliovirus vaccine produces not only IgM and IgG antibodies in the blood but also secretory IgA antibodies in the intestine enabling mucosal immunity.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True
Rationale: The live oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) induces a strong immune response, including the production of IgM and IgG antibodies in the blood and secretory IgA antibodies in the intestine, providing both systemic and mucosal immunity.

261
Q
  1. Removing the type 3 strain from OPV will eliminate vaccine-associated poliomyelitis in recipients caused by this serotype.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

Removing the type 2 strain from OPV will eliminate vaccine-associated poliomyelitis in recipients caused by this serotype.

262
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is correct?
    A. There is no vaccine against mumps
    B. Passive immunization is the only means of preventing the disease
    C. The testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved
    D. The diagnosis is made only on clinical grounds, since the virus cannot be grown in cell culture and serologic test are inaccurate
    E. Second episodes of mumps can occur, since there are 2 serotypes
A

C. The testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved
Rationale: Mumps virus can cause inflammation of the testes (orchitis), ovaries (oophoritis), and pancreas (pancreatitis) in addition to its well-known effect on the salivary glands. There is a vaccine against mumps, and the diagnosis can be supported by laboratory tests including virus isolation and serologic tests.

263
Q
  1. Herpangina is a severe febrile pharyngitis that caused certain group B Coxsackieviruses which is self-limiting and most frequent in small children?
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True
Rationale: Herpangina, caused by certain group B coxsackieviruses, is a self-limiting illness characterized by severe febrile pharyngitis, and it is most common in young children.

264
Q
  1. The type-specific antigen (A,B, and C) of influenza viruses is found in which viral constituent?
    A. Major nonstructural protein
    B. Nucleocapsid
    C. Hemmagglutinin
    D. Neuraminidase
    E. Polymerase complex
A

C. Hemmagglutinin
Rationale: The type-specific antigen of influenza viruses is found in the hemagglutinin (HA) protein. HA is responsible for binding the virus to the cell that is being infected and varies among different strains of influenza viruses, contributing to their antigenic diversity.

265
Q
  1. Enteroviruses are implicated in many diseases including:
    A. Gl disturbances
    B. Skin and mucous membrane lesions
    C. Conjunctivitis
    D. Upper Respiratory Tract Infections
    E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All of the choices are correct
Rationale: Enteroviruses are implicated in a wide range of diseases, including gastrointestinal disturbances, skin and mucous membrane lesions, conjunctivitis, and upper respiratory tract infections.

266
Q
  1. the only virus with double stranded DNA
    a. RSV
    b. Rhinoviruses
    c. Adenoviruses
    d. Reoviruses
    e. enteroviruses
A

C. Adenoviruses
Rationale: Adenoviruses are among the viruses with a double-stranded DNA genome. RSV, rhinoviruses, reoviruses, and enteroviruses all have RNA genomes, with reoviruses having a double-stranded RNA genome.

267
Q
  1. Found in the gut but NOT normally associated with gastrioenteritis
    A. Astrovirus and SRV
    B. Enteroviruses 68-71 and Hepatitis A virus
    C. Adenoviruses 40 41
    D. Coronavirus
    E. Rotavorus and Reovirus
A

B. Enteroviruses 68-71 and Hepatitis A virus
Rationale: While enteroviruses 68-71 and Hepatitis A virus can be found in the gut, they are not primarily associated with gastroenteritis. Enteroviruses 68-71 are more associated with respiratory illnesses and neurological disease, and Hepatitis A virus causes liver infection.

268
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes rotavirus
    A. Tests for detection of antigen are rarely useful
    B. Culture is the routine method of confirming infection
    C. person-to-person transmission is rare
    D. It is rarely a nosocomial pathogen
    E. Multiply in enterocytes
A

E. Multiply in enterocytes

Rationale: Rotavirus multiplies in the enterocytes of the small intestine, leading to gastroenteritis. This aspect of its pathogenesis is well-documented, and the virus is known for its efficient person-to-person transmission and as a common cause of nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections, especially in pediatric settings.

269
Q
  1. This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children. It causes infections that are often severe and may be life threatening, especially in infants
    A. Norwalk Virus
    B. Adenovirus
    C. Echovirus
    D. Rotavirus group B
    E. Rotavirus group A
A

E. Rotavirus group A
Rationale: Rotavirus group A is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children worldwide, causing severe and potentially life-threatening infections.

270
Q
  1. This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children. It causes infections that are often severe and may be life threatening, especially in infants
    A. Norwalk Virus
    B. Adenovirus
    C. Echovirus
    D. Rotavirus group B
    E. Rotavirus group A
A

E. Rotavirus group A
Rationale: Rotavirus group A is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children worldwide, causing severe and potentially life-threatening infections.

271
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct?
    A. The virus strains in the influenza vaccine do not vary from year to year
    B. The influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus
    C. As with some other live vaccines, the influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women
    D. Booster doses of vaccine are not recommended
    E. Drugs that inhibit neuraminidase are active only against influenza A.
A

B. The influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus

Rationale: The influenza vaccine is formulated each year to contain the strains most likely to circulate in the upcoming flu season, often including multiple serotypes to provide broad protection.

272
Q
  1. Coxsackie virus A21, which attaches to CD55, requires this coreceptor for entry into the cell surface
    A. B2 Microglobulin
    B. B1 integrin
    C. B2 integrin
    D. VCAM-1
    E. ICAM - 1
A

E. ICAM - 1
Rationale: Coxsackievirus A21 uses ICAM-1 (Intercellular Adhesion Molecule 1) as a receptor for entry into cells. ICAM-1 is a cell surface protein that is involved in the inflammatory response.

273
Q
  1. Peter Parker, a 24-year-old man enjoyed a meal of raw oysters.
    Twenty four hours later, he became ill, with a sudden onset of vomiting, diarrhea, and headache. The most likely cause of his gastroenteritis is
    A. Rotavirus
    B. Echovirus
    C. Norwalk Virus
    D. Hepatitis A Virus
    E. Astrovirus
A

C. Norwalk Virus
Rationale: Norwalk virus, a type of norovirus, is a common cause of acute gastroenteritis following the consumption of contaminated food or water, including raw oysters. It is known for causing sudden onset of vomiting and diarrhea.

274
Q
  1. Killed polioviurs vaccine induces humoral antibodies and induce local intestinal immunity so that virus is still able to multiply in the gut
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False
Rationale: The killed poliovirus vaccine (inactivated polio vaccine, IPV) induces humoral antibodies but does not induce local intestinal immunity as effectively as the oral polio vaccine (OPV). Therefore, the virus can still multiply in the gut of individuals vaccinated with OPV but not those vaccinated with IPV.

275
Q
  1. The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special “risk” sectors by:
    A. Proper hygiene
    B. Vaccination
    C. antiviral drugs.
    D. monoclonal antibodies
A

B. Vaccination
Rationale: Vaccination is the primary method for controlling influenza, especially in “risk” groups such as the elderly, healthcare workers, and those with chronic health conditions.

276
Q
  1. Gastrointestinal viruses that are common in infants, children, and adults
    I. Reovirus
    II. Rotavirus A
    Ill. Adenovirus 40,41; Coxsackie A24 virus
    IV. Norwalk virus; Calicivirus
    V. Astrovirus; Rotavirus B

A. I,II, V
B. III, IV, V
C. II, III, IV
D. I, IV, V
E. 1, 11, III

A

D. I, IV, V

I. Reovirus
IV. Norwalk virus; Calicivirus
V. Astrovirus; Rotavirus B

MICRO/PARA (15 decks)

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