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0- MICRO/PARA > LE3-Micro > Flashcards

LE3-Micro Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following specimens for culture of Salmonella typhi will have the highest sensitivity?
    a. Urine
    b. Blood
    c. Intestinal secretions
    d. Bone marrow
A

d. Bone marrow

Bone Marrow: Culturing from bone marrow is considered the gold standard for diagnosing typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi. It remains the most sensitive method, even in patients who have already started antibiotic therapy.

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2
Q
  1. Swarming growth on blood agar
    a. E. coli
    b. Proteus mirabilis
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Shigella dysenteriae
    e. Serratia marcescens
A

b. Proteus mirabilis

Proteus mirabilis: Known for its swarming growth pattern, where it rapidly spreads across the surface of the agar plate.

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3
Q
  1. Medium-sized colonies that appear buff in color on blood agar
    a. E. coli
    b. Proteus mirabilis
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Shigella dysenteriae
    e. Serratia marcescens
A

d. Shigella dysenteriae

Shigella species can form medium-sized colonies on blood agar, which may appear as a pale, translucent, or buff color.

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4
Q
  1. Non-motile; no gas from dextrose; colorless and transparent
    a. E. coli
    b. Proteus mirabilis
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Shigella dysenteriae
    e. Serratia marcescens
A

d. Shigella dysenteriae

Non-motile, does not produce gas from dextrose, and can form colorless, transparent colonies on certain media.

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5
Q
  1. Metallic sheen on differential media
    a. E. coli
    b. Proteus mirabilis
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Shigella dysenteriae
    e. Serratia marcescens
A

a. E. coli

Known for producing a metallic sheen on EMB agar, which is a result of the strong acid production from lactose fermentation.

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6
Q
  1. Soluble pigments; blue green and fluorescing
    a. E. coli
    b. Proteus mirabilis
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Shigella dysenteriae
    e. Serratia marcescens
A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Characteristically produces blue-green pigments (pyocyanin and pyoverdine) and exhibits fluorescence under UV light.

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7
Q
  1. This organism has been described as an infrequent cause of nosocomial infections of the urinary tract and wounds and rare cases of bacteremia.
    A. P.mirabilis
    B. S.marcescens
    C. P.retgerri
    D. M.morgani
A

B. S.marcescens

S. marcescens (Serratia marcescens): Known for causing nosocomial infections, including urinary tract infections, wound infections, and, less frequently, bacteremia.

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8
Q
  1. This enteric bacteria can produce lobar pneumonia with extensive hemorrhagic necrotizing consolidation of the lung which produces “currant jelly” sputum from hemoptysis and abscess formation.
    A. Klebsiella sp.
    B. Enterobacteria sp.
    C. Proteus sp.
    D. Serratia sp.
A

A. Klebsiella sp.

Klebsiella pneumoniae, a species within the Klebsiella genus, is well-known for causing severe, aggressive forms of pneumonia, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. The “currant jelly” sputum is a classic clinical feature associated with Klebsiella pneumonia, resulting from the combination of blood (hemoptysis) and mucoid material.

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9
Q

19 This bacteria is Gram positive, endospore forming anaerobe found in the stool of many healthy adults, infection is usually precipitated by the extended use of antibiotics especially fluroquinolones
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Campylobacter

A

A. Clostridium difficile

Clostridium difficile (C. difficile): This bacterium is a well-known cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea and more serious intestinal conditions such as pseudomembranous colitis. The disruption of normal gut flora by antibiotics, particularly broad-spectrum antibiotics like fluoroquinolones, can lead to an overgrowth of C. difficile.

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10
Q
  1. This following is true of the antigenic structure of enterobacteriaceae
    a. antibodies to O antigens are predominantly IgG
    b. H antigens may intefere with agglutination by O antisera and they may be associated with virulence
    c. H antigens are located on flagella and are denatured or removed by heat or alcohol
    d. O antigens are susceptible to heat and alcohol and usually are detected by bacterial agglutination
A

c. H antigens are located on flagella and are denatured or removed by heat or alcohol

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following shigella specie will present a positive ornithine carboxylase
    A. S. Flexneri
    B. S. Dysenteriae
    C. S. Sonnei
    D. S. Boydii
A

C. S. Sonnei

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12
Q
  1. Enteric bacteria can be characterized by the following, except
    a. gram negative rod
    b facultative anaerobes and aerobes
    c. catalase negative, oxidase negative
    d. ferment rather than oxidize glucose
A

c. catalase negative, oxidase negative

Most enteric bacteria are catalase (+) positive and oxidase (-) negative.

The catalase test differentiates between bacteria that can produce the enzyme catalase, which breaks down hydrogen peroxide. The oxidase test is used to identify bacteria that produce certain cytochrome c oxidases. Enteric bacteria, being part of the Enterobacteriaceae family, are typically oxidase negative but catalase positive.

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13
Q
  1. The medium is often used to help differentiate salmonella and shigellae from other enteric gram-negative rods in stool cultures
    A. Mannitol salt agar
    B. Triple Sugar iron agar
    C. MacConkey agar
    D. Eosin Methylene blue
A

C. MacConkey agar

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14
Q
  1. This antigenic structure of enteric bacteria is the most external part of the cell wall lipopolysaccharide and consist of repeating units of polysaccharide.
    A. VI antigen
    B. K antigen
    C. O antigen
    D. H antigen
A

C. O antigen

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15
Q
  1. the bacteria is a comma shaped, cuved rod 2-4mm long, actively motile by means of polar flagellum
    A. camptylobacter
    B. escherichia coli
    C. clostridium difficile
    D. vibrio cholerae
A

D. vibrio cholerae

Vibrio cholerae is known for its distinctive comma shape, and it is motile with a single polar flagellum.

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16
Q
  1. The antibiotic preferred for the treatment of non-thypoidal salmonella gastroenteritis is
    a tetracycline
    b none
    c. fluoroquinolones
    d amoxicillin
A

b none

This is often the correct approach for otherwise healthy individuals with non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis, as the infection is usually self-limiting.

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following specimens for culture of Salmonella typhi will have the highest sensitivity?
    A. Urine
    B. Blood
    C. Intestinal secretions
    D. Bone marrow
A

D. Bone marrow

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18
Q
  1. A 24 year old patient came in with flank pain, dsyuria, and urinary frequency for 5 days. Patient described the smell of his urine as similar to that of ammonia. Which organism is most likely causing the patient’s condition?
    A. Morganella morganii
    B. Salmonella typhi
    C. Escherichia coli
    D. Proteus mirabilis
A

D. Proteus mirabilis

This organism is known for causing UTIs and is particularly noted for producing a strong ammonia smell in urine due to its ability to break down urea into ammonia. It is also associated with the formation of kidney stones and can cause flank pain.

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19
Q
  1. The following is/are true of the possible TSI reaction of Proteus mirabilis?
    A. alkaline slant, alkaline butt, (-) gas, (-) H2S
    B. alkaline slant, acid butt, (-) gas, (-) H2S
    C. alkaline slant, acid butt, (-) gas, (+) H2S
    D. acid slant, acid butt, (+) gas, (-) H2S
A

C. alkaline slant, acid butt, (-) gas, (+) H2S

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20
Q
  1. Which Proteus species would have Spot indole test positive result?
    A. Proteus myxofaciens
    B. Proteus vulgaris
    C. Proteus mirabilis
    D. Proteus penneri
A

B. Proteus vulgaris

Proteus vulgaris is known to be indole positive.

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21
Q
  1. The specie of shigella that does not ferment mannitol
    a. S. dysenteriae
    b. S. sonnei
    c. S. flexneri
    d. S. boydii
A

a. S. dysenteriae

Does not ferment mannitol. This species is known for causing severe forms of dysentery.

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22
Q
  1. The shigella exotoxin may contribute to the extreme severity and fatal infections of the bacteria and to the central nervous system reactions observed in them. This activity is called?
    A. Neurotoxic
    B. endotoxic
    C. antitoxin
    D. enterotoxin
A

A. Neurotoxic

This term refers to toxins that are harmful or destructive to nerve tissue (neuro-). The shigella exotoxin can affect the nervous system, leading to symptoms such as seizures, especially in children, which aligns with the description of neurotoxic effects.

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23
Q
  1. the primary virulence factor in these bacteria is shiga toxin
    a. enteroinvasive e coli
    b enterohemorrhagic e coli
    c. enterpathogenic e coli
    d enteroaggregative e coli
A

b Enterohemorrhagic e coli

EHEC, particularly the O157:H7 strain, is known for producing Shiga toxin, which is responsible for causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms, including bloody diarrhea, and can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), a serious complication affecting the kidneys.

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24
Q
  1. A 24 year old student came in with high grade fever, weakness and diarrhea. upon examination, blanching macules were seen in the chest and the abdomen. the most likely organism associated with these signs and symptoms is
    a vibrio cholerae
    b escherichia coli
    d salmonella typhi
    d shigella dysenteria
A

d salmonella typhi

Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, which is characterized by prolonged high-grade fever, weakness, gastrointestinal symptoms, and rose spots on the lower chest and abdomen.

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25
Q

65 Major cause of diarrhea in infants characterised as severe and watery with vomiting and fever are usually self-limited but can be prolonged or chronic
A. Enterinvasive E. coli
B. Enterehemorrhagic E. coli
C. Enteroaggregative E. coli
D. Enteropathogenic E. coli

A

D. Enteropathogenic E. coli

EPEC is a significant cause of watery diarrhea in infants, especially in developing countries. It’s known for causing a range of symptoms, including severe, watery diarrhea and vomiting, and can be self-limited or prolonged.

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26
Q
  1. The bacteria is a large, gram positive, endospore-forming bacterium found in soil and vegetation, common in rice dishes; wherein heating the food does not always kill the spores, which germinate as the food cools
    A. Vibrio cholerae
    B. Bacillius cereus
    C. Campylobacter
    D. Clostridium difficile
A

B. Bacillius cereus

Bacillus cereus is a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium commonly found in soil. It is known for causing food poisoning, particularly from rice dishes. The spores can survive cooking and germinate as the food cools, leading to toxin production and foodborne illness.

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27
Q
  1. What do you call the capsular antigen of Salmonella typhi?
    A. K antigen
    B. O antigen
    C. H antigen
    D. VI antigen
A

D. VI antigen

VI antigen is the capsular antigen specific to Salmonella typhi, playing a role in its virulence and immune evasion.

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28
Q
  1. The growth habit of this category of e. coli cause a “stacked brick” configuration on tissue culture cells
    a. enteroaggregative e. coli
    b enterohemorrhagic e. coli
    c. enteropathogenic e. coli
    d. enteroinvasive e. coli
A

a. Enteroaggregative e. coli

EAEC is known for its distinctive “stacked brick” adherence pattern on epithelial cells. This adherence pattern is associated with persistent diarrhea, particularly in children in developing countries.

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29
Q
  1. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the newborn
    A. S. aureus
    B. E. coli
    C. S. pneumonia
    D. N. meningitidis
A

B. E. coli

B. E. coli (Escherichia coli): This is the correct answer. E. coli, particularly certain strains like K1, is a leading cause of neonatal meningitis. Newborns are particularly susceptible to E. coli infections, which can be severe and include meningitis.

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30
Q
  1. This gram (-) enteric bacteria do not ferment lactose, no gas from dextrose and is non-motile
    A. E. coli
    B. Proteus Species
    C. Shigella
    D. Salmonella Species
A

C. Shigella

Does not ferment lactose, does not produce gas from dextrose, and is non-motile.

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31
Q
  1. one of the common pathogen associated with travellers diarrhea
    a. enterohemorrhagic e. coli
    b enteropathogenic e coli
    c enteroinvasive e coli
    d enteroaggregative e coli
A

d Enteroaggregative E.coli

EAEC is increasingly recognized as a significant cause of traveler’s diarrhea. It is known for its “stacked brick” adherence pattern on epithelial cells and causes a persistent, watery diarrhea.

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32
Q
  1. The most important component in the treatment of V. cholerae infection is:
    A. oral tetracycline and doxycycline
    B. Anti-diarrheal medications
    C. Correcting dehydration and salt depletion with water and electrolyte replenishment
    D. NOTA
A

C. Correcting dehydration and salt depletion with water and electrolyte replenishment

Cholera can cause severe, life-threatening dehydration due to rapid loss of fluids and electrolytes from diarrhea. The primary treatment is rapid rehydration, either orally (Oral Rehydration Salts - ORS) or intravenously in severe cases.

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33
Q
  1. The Gram (-) enteric bacteria ferment lactose rapidly, is motile with flat, non- viscous colonies, which produce a metallic sheen in differential media.
    A. E.coli
    B. Shigella dysenteriae
    C. Salmonella typhi
    D. Proteus vulgaris
A

A. E.coli

E. coli is known for rapidly fermenting lactose, being motile, and producing distinctive metallic sheen colonies on Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar, a differential medium.

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34
Q
  1. Blood culture results in this clinical disease induced by Salmonella will be positive frist to second weeks of infection.
    A. Enteric fever
    B. Enterocolitis
    C. None of the choice are correct
    D. Septicemia
A

A. Enteric fever

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35
Q
  1. These bacteria are gram-negative rods with comma, S, or “gull wing” shapes, motile with a single polar and do not form spores.
    A. Campylobacter
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Bacillus cereus
    D. Vibrio cholerae
A

A. Campylobacter

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36
Q
  1. What schedule to give tetanus toxoid will you recommend after a booster injection of tetanus toxoid is given upon school entry?
    a. 5 years apart
    b. 7 years apart
    c. 10 years apart
    d. 15 years apart
A

c. 10 years apart

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37
Q
  1. What part of the Haemophilus influenzae is the basis for typing?
    a. Flagella
    b. Plasmid
    c. Nuclear membrane
    d. Capsule
A

d. Capsule

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38
Q
  1. Tetanus is a totally preventable disease. What comprises the initial course of immunization?
    a. 2 injections of tetanus toxoid
    b. 3 injections of tetanus toxoid
    c. 4 injections of tetanus toxoid
    d. 5 injections of tetanus toxoid
A

b. 3 injections of tetanus toxoid

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39
Q
  1. What age is the DTap vaccine NOT recommended
    a. 6 months old
    b. 7 months old
    c. 18 months old
    d. 2 months old
A

b. 7 months old

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40
Q
  1. A 20/M came from rural Europe complained of high fever and body aches, swollen glands, and difficulty with swallowing which was present for weeks, the most likely organism that you’ll consider is?
    a. Brucella sp
    b. Pasteurulla multocida
    c. Yersinia pestis
    d. Francisella tularensis
A

c. Yersinia pestis

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41
Q
  1. What drug can be given as prophylaxis for non-immunized children exposed to a Pertussis case?
    a. Rifampin
    b. Cotrimoxazole
    c. Clindamycin
    d. Erythromycin
A

d. Erythromycin

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42
Q
  1. A person was exposed to an anthrax case, how long will the anthrax disease manifest?
    a. 2 weeks
    b. 8 weeks
    с. 4 weeks
    d. 6 weeks
A

a. 2 weeks

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43
Q
  1. Which organism causes highly commmunicable form of conjunctivitis and brazillian purpuric fever
    a. H. aegypticus
    b. H. ducreyi
    c. H. aprophilus
    d. H. haemolyticus
A

a. H. aegypticus

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44
Q
  1. What is the CBC picture of a Pertussis case?
    a. Leukopenia with absolute lymphocytosis
    b. Leukocytosis with segmenter predominance
    c. Leucopenia with segmenter predominance
    d. Leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis
A

d. Leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis

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45
Q
  1. Until what age is the infant protected from Haemophilus infection by antibodies from the mother?
    a. under 3 months
    b. under 5 months
    c. under 7 months
    d. under 9 months
A

a. under 3 months

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false regarding Brucella spp?
    a. gram-positive and encapsulated coccobacilli
    b. causes undulant fever
    c. infected phagocytes carry brucella to the spleen
    d. resistant to intracellular killing
A

a. gram-positive and encapsulated coccobacilli

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47
Q
  1. Which stage of Pertussis presents with nasal congestion, conjunctival suffusion and tearing?
    a. Convalescent stage
    b. Catarrhal stage
    c. Prodromal stage
    d. Paroxysmal stage
A

b. Catarrhal stage

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48
Q
  1. What age is the DTap vaccine NOT recommended?
    a. 2 months old
    b. 7 months old
    c. 6 months old
    d. 18 months old
A

b. 7 months old

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49
Q
  1. What organism can have human to human transmission?
    a. Yersinia pestis
    b. Pasteurella multocida
    c. Brucella spp.
    d. Francisella tularensis
A

a. Yersinia pestis

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50
Q
  1. A baby presented with severe paroxysmal coughing and cyanosis. What antibiotics will be suited for this condition?
    a. Cephalosporins
    b. Coamoxiclav
    c. Penicillin
    d. Macrolides
A

d. Macrolides

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51
Q
  1. Tetanus is a totally preventable disease. What comprises the initial course of immunization?
    a. 4 injections of tetanus toxoid
    b. 3 injections of tetanus toxoid
    c. 5 injections of tetanus toxoid
    d. 2 injections of tetanus toxoid
A

b. 3 injections of tetanus toxoid

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52
Q
  1. Botulism causes intoxication resulting from the ingestion of food in which has grown and produced toxins. When do Symptoms usually occur?
    a. 18-24 hours after ingestion of the toxic food
    b. 1-2 weeks
    c. 4-5 days up to as many weeks
    d. 20 minutes after consumption.
A

a. 18-24 hours after ingestion of the toxic food

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following food items is most frequently associated with infant botulism?
    a. Corn syrup
    b. Canned infant formula
    c. Liquid multivitamins
    d. Honey
A

d. Honey

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following produces paralysis due to an intoxication of types A or B toxin resulting from food ingestion with growth?
    a. Clostridium tetani
    b. Clostridium difficile
    c. Clostridium botulinum
    d. Clostridium perfringens
A

c. Clostridium botulinum

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55
Q
  1. What causes toxic shock syndrome?
    a. Clostridium sordellii
    b. Clostridium difficile
    c. Clostridium septicum
    d. Clostridium perfringens
A

a. Clostridium sordellii

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56
Q
  1. The spores germinate in the tissue at the site of entry, and growth of the vegetative organisms results in formation of a gelatinous edema and congestion
    a. Bacillus anthracis
    b. Bacillus cereus
    c. Clostridium perfringens
    d. Clostridium difficile
A

a. Bacillus anthracis

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57
Q
  1. What causes Pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
    a. Clostridium difficile
    b. Clostridium botulinum
    c. Clostridium perfringens
    d. Clostridium tetanus
A

a. Clostridium difficile

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58
Q
  1. Selective culture media for P. aeruginosa
    a. Thayer martin agar
    b. Blood agar
    c. Colistin-containing agar
    d. Brucella agar
A

b. Blood agar

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59
Q
  1. Enzyme Reaction caused by Bacteroides Fragilis
    a. Ureases negative
    b. Indole positive
    c. Lipase Positive
    d. beta-lactamase positive
A

d. beta-lactamase positive

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60
Q
  1. What management should you give in patients who develop symptoms of tetanus?
    a. analgesics
    b. 10,000 units antitoxin
    c. 100 units antitoxin
    d. assisted ventilation
A

b. 10,000 units antitoxin

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61
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by Fusobacterium nucleatum
    a. Beta lactamase positive
    b. Lipase positive
    c. Indole positve
    d. Urease negative
A

a. Beta lactamases positive

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62
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum
    a. Lipase negative
    b. Indole negative
    c. Nitrate negative
    d. Indole positive
A

d. Indole positive

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63
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by achromobacter
    a. Indole positive
    b. Lipase positive
    c. Urease negative
    d. Beta lactamase positive
A

c. Urease negative

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64
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of Burkholderia mallei
    a. Brown black halo
    b. Disease of horses
    c. pleomorphic
    d. Gliding motility
A

b. Disease of horses

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65
Q
  1. Heparin is one of the tx for Lemierres disease
    a. true
    b. false
A

a. true

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66
Q
  1. An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and provide adequate environment for microorganism to multiply and reproduce.
    a. Host
    b. Reservoir host
    c. Definitive host
    d. Fomite
A

d. Fomite

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67
Q
  1. Catalase positive -
    a. F. nucleatum
    b. F. necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. None
A

a. F. nucleatum

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68
Q
  1. Indole positive -
    a. F. nucleatum
    b. F. necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. None
A

b. F. necrophorum

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69
Q
  1. Bile acid positive -
    a. F. nucleatum
    b. F. necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. None
A

a. F. nucleatum

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70
Q
  1. Nitrate positive -
    a. F. nucleatum
    b. F. necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. None
A

a. F. nucleatum

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71
Q
  1. Sensitive to Kanamycin -
    a. F. nucleatum
    b. F. necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. None
A

c. Both

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72
Q
  1. Nitrate negative
    a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

b. Fusobacterium necrophorum

Positive: Indole/Lipase

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73
Q
  1. Lipase negative
    a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

a. Fusobacterium nucleatum

74
Q
  1. Sensitive to colistin
    a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

c. Both

75
Q
  1. Resistant to vancomycin
    a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

c. Both

76
Q
  1. Produces butyric acid
    a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

a. Fusobacterium nucleatum

77
Q
  1. Burkholderia cepacia
    a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
    b. Melioidosis
    c. Cystic fibrosis
    d. Glanders
    e. Actinomycosis
A

c. Cystic fibrosis

78
Q
  1. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
    b. Melioidosis
    c. Cystic fibrosis
    d. Glanders
    e. Actinomycosis
A

b. Melioidosis

79
Q
  1. Burkholderia mallei
    a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
    b. Melioidosis
    c. Cystic fibrosis
    d. Glanders
    e. Actinomycosis
A

d. Glanders

80
Q
  1. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
    a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
    b. Melioidosis
    c. Cystic fibrosis
    d. Glanders
    e. Actinomycosis
A

a. Ecthyma gangrenosum

81
Q
  1. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
    a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
    b. Melioidosis
    c. Cystic fibrosis
    d. Glanders
    e. Actinomycosis
A

e. Actinomycosis

82
Q

1 What is the mode of transmission of human Yersinia pseudotuberculosis infection?
A. Contact with dead animals
B. Contamination of food and water with animal feces
C. Bites infected fleas
D. Bites of animals

A

B. Contamination of food and water with animal feces.
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the consumption of contaminated food and water, particularly from sources contaminated with animal feces.

83
Q

2 Exhibits the characteristic “gliding motility’”
A. Chryseobacterium
B. Ochrobactrum
C. Capnocytophaga
D. Acinetobacter

A

C. Capnocytophaga.
Capnocytophaga is known for its characteristic “gliding motility,” which is a form of movement distinct from flagellar motility.

84
Q
  1. Causes Whitmore disease/meliodosis
    A. Burkholderia cepacia
    B. Burkholderia psuedomallei
    C. Stenotrophonomas maltophilia
    D. Burkholderia mallei
A

B. Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Whitmore’s disease, also known as melioidosis, is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei.

85
Q
  1. Your cousins who just came from Vietnam has fever, tender enlarged lymph nodes of his axillae, vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best drug for his condition?
    A. Amikacin
    B. Rifampicin
    C. Tetracycline
    D. Streptomycin
A

D. Streptomycin

86
Q
  1. what would least likely prevent tetanus infection?
    A. Administration of ciprofloxacin
    B. Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil
    C. Active immmunization with toxoids
    D. prophylactic use of antitoxin
A

A. Administration of ciprofloxacin.
Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and does not directly prevent tetanus infection. Tetanus is best prevented through immunization and wound care.

87
Q
  1. An elderly patient is placed on ampicillin and develops acute diarrhea with blood and mucus accompanied by fever and leukocytosis. Which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient’s diarrhea?
    A. Bacillus subtilis
    B. Bacillus saprophyticus
    C. Clostridium difficile
    D. Clostridium perfringens
A

C. Clostridium difficile.
Clostridium difficile is a common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea, especially in patients treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics like ampicillin.

88
Q
  1. A spindle shaped gram negative rod producing butyric acid from glucose fermentation and peptone
    A. Chryseobacterium
    B. Acinetobacter
    C. Capnocytophaga
    D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
A

D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
Fusobacterium nucleatum is known for its spindle shape and the production of butyric acid from glucose fermentation and peptone.

89
Q
  1. When is the best timing for collection of specimen for culture in Pertussis?
    A. after 2nd week until 3rd week
    B. after 6 weeks
    C. during first 2 weeks
    D. 4th to 5th week
A

C. During the first 2 weeks.
The best time to collect a specimen for culture in suspected cases of pertussis (whooping cough) is during the first 2 weeks of the illness when the bacterial load is highest.

90
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by Fusobacterium nucleatum
    A. Beta lactamase positive
    B. Lipase positive
    C. Indole positive
    D. Urease negative
A

A. Beta lactamase positive

91
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of Chrysobacterium
    a. safety pin appearance
    b. violet pigment producing
    c. proteolytic
    d. pyocyanin producing
A

C. Proteolytic.

Chryseobacterium species are known for being proteolytic, meaning they have the ability to break down proteins. This is a key feature in their biochemical profile.

92
Q
  1. when exposed to B anthracis (biologic warfare), prophylaxis with this drug should be continued for 4 weeks
    a. streptomycin
    b. gentamycin
    c. ciprofloxacin
    d. penicillin
A

C. Ciprofloxacin.
For prophylaxis against Bacillus anthracis, ciprofloxacin is commonly recommended and should be continued for a duration as advised by health authorities, typically around 4 weeks.

93
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum
    A. Lipase negative
    B. Indole negative
    C. Nitrate negative
    D. Indole positive
A

D. Indole positive.
Fusobacterium necrophorum is typically indole positive.

94
Q
  1. What is the CBC picture of a Pertussis case?
    A. Leukopenia with absolute lymphocytosis
    B. Leukocytosis with segmenter predominance
    C. Leucopenia with segmenter predominance
    D. Leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis
A

D. Leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis.
Pertussis often presents with leukocytosis characterized by an absolute increase in lymphocytes.

95
Q

14 A patient presented with anthrax. What is the present recommended drug?
a. Penicillin
b. Gentamycin
c. Streptomycin
d. Ciprofloxacin

A

D. Ciprofloxacin.
Ciprofloxacin is commonly recommended for the treatment of anthrax.

96
Q

15 what causes progressive hemorrhagic lymphadenitis in the lungs and has a mortality rate approaching 100 percent if left untretead
a. Bacilllus subtilis
b. Bacillus cereus
c.Bacilllus sapprophyticus
d. Bacillus anthracis

A

D. Bacillus anthracis.
Bacillus anthracis, the causative agent of anthrax, can lead to severe respiratory complications with high mortality if not treated promptly.

97
Q
  1. lemmiere’s disease is the formation of septic emboli from an overgrowth of fusobacterium
    a. true
    b. false
A

A. True.
Lemierre’s disease is associated with the overgrowth of Fusobacterium, often leading to the formation of septic emboli.

98
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by Achromobacter
    A. Indole positive
    B. Lipase positive
    C. Urease negative
    D. Beta - Lactamase positive
A

C. Urease negative

99
Q
  1. Bacteroides growth on bile esculin agar as “brown black halos”
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

100
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by Moraxella catarrhalis
    A. Urease negative
    B. Indole Positive
    C. lipase positive
    D. Beta lactamase positive
A

D. Beta lactamase positive
Moraxella catarrhalis is known for its ability to produce beta-lactamase, which confers resistance to certain beta-lactam antibiotics.

101
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of Burkholderia mallei
    A. Brown black halo
    B. Disease of horses
    C. Pleomorphic
    D. Gliding motility
A

B. Disease of horses.
Burkholderia mallei is the causative agent of glanders, a disease primarily affecting horses but can also infect humans.

102
Q
  1. A baby presented with severe paroxysmal coughing and cyanosis. What antibiotics will be suited for this condition?
    A. Cephalosporins
    B. Co-amoxiclav
    C. Penicillin
    D. Macrolides
A

D. Macrolides.
The description suggests a case of pertussis (whooping cough), for which macrolides like erythromycin or azithromycin are the antibiotics of choice.

103
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of fusobacterium nucleatum
    A. Produces butyric acid
    B. Pleomorphic
    C. Brown black halos
    D. Gliding motility
A

A. Produces butyric acid
Fusobacterium nucleatum is known for producing butyric acid from glucose fermentation.

104
Q
  1. What schedule to give tetanus toxoid will you recommend after injection of tetanus toxoid is given upon school entry?
    a. 10 years apart
    b. 15 years apart a booster
    c. 5 years apart
    d. 7 years apart
A

A. 10 years apart.
The general recommendation for tetanus toxoid boosters in adults is every 10 years, following the initial series of vaccinations.

105
Q
  1. All of these are associated with periodontal disease in juveniles and casues severe diseases in granulocytopenic patients with oral ulcerations except:
    A. C. cynodegmi
    B. C. sputigena
    C. C. ovhracea
    D. C. gingivalis
A

A. C. cynodegmi

106
Q
  1. What drug strongly inhibits the growth of C. tetani and stop further toxin production?
    A. Metronidazole
    B. Penicillin
    C. Azithromycin
    D. Cefuroxime
A

B. Penicillin

107
Q
  1. Tetanus is a totally preventable disease. What comprises the initial course of immunization?
    A. 4 injections of tetanus toxoid
    B. 3 injections of tetanus toxoid
    C. 5 injections of tetanus toxoid
    D. 2 injections of tetanus toxoid
A

B. 3 injections of tetanus toxoid.
The initial immunization schedule for tetanus typically includes three doses of the tetanus toxoid vaccine.

108
Q
  1. Heparin is one of the treatments for Lemierre’s disease
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

109
Q
  1. Which organism causes cough, difficulty of breathing and substernal pain with mediatstinal widening visible on chest xray?
    A. francisella tularemia
    B. brucella sp.
    C. bacillus anthracis
    D. yersinia pestis
A

C. Bacillus anthracis.
These symptoms are indicative of inhalational anthrax, caused by Bacillus anthracis, especially the mediastinal widening on chest X-ray.

110
Q
  1. Which stage of Pertussis presents with posttussive vomiting and turning red with coughs?
    A. catarral stage
    B. prodromal stage
    C. covalescent stage
    D. paroxysmal stage
A

D. Paroxysmal stage.
The paroxysmal stage of pertussis is characterized by severe coughing fits followed by a whooping sound during the next breath, posttussive vomiting, and cyanosis.

111
Q
  1. What age is the DTap vaccine NOT recommended?
    A. 2 months old
    B. 7 months old
    C. 6 months old
    D. 18 months old
A

B. 7 months old.
The DTaP vaccine is not recommended for individuals aged 7 years or older. Instead, the Tdap vaccine is recommended for older children and adults. The DTaP vaccine is typically given at 2, 4, 6, and 15–18 months, and 4–6 years.

112
Q
  1. What causes Pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
    A. Clostridium difficile
    B. Clostridium botulinum
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetanus
A

A. Clostridium difficile.
Clostridium difficile is the primary cause of pseudomembranous enterocolitis, often associated with antibiotic use.

113
Q
  1. Lemmiere’s disease causative agent is Bacteroides Fragilis
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False.
Lemierre’s disease is typically caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum, not Bacteroides fragilis.

114
Q
  1. Selective culture media for P. aeruginosa
    A. Thayer martin agar
    B. Blood agar
    C. Colistin-containing agar
    D. Brucella agar
A

B. Blood agar

115
Q
  1. Enzyme Reaction caused by Bacteroides Fragilis
    A. Ureases negative
    B. Indole positive
    C. Lipase Positive
    D. beta-lactamase positive
A

D. Beta-lactamase positive.
Bacteroides fragilis is known for being beta-lactamase positive, contributing to its resistance to certain beta-lactam antibiotics.

116
Q
  1. What management should you give in patients who develop symptoms of tetanus?
    a. analgesics
    b. 10,000 units antitoxin
    c. 100 units antitoxin
    d. assisted ventilation
A

b. 10,000 units antitoxin

117
Q
  1. This microorganism is commonly found in the gingival and bowel flora and may be transmitted from human bites
    A. kingella kingei
    B. acitenobacter
    c. cardiobacterium hominis
    d. eikenella corrodens
A

D. Eikenella corrodens.
Eikenella corrodens is part of the normal flora of the mouth and upper respiratory tract and is known to be transmitted through human bites, causing infections.

118
Q
  1. Which organism produces flaccid paralysis due to intoxication resulting from the ingestion of food in which it has grown
    A.Clostridium botolinum
    B. Clostridium perfringens
    C. Clostrdium tetani
    D. Clostridium difficile
A

A. Clostridium botulinum.
Clostridium botulinum produces a toxin that causes flaccid paralysis, typically resulting from the ingestion of improperly stored or canned foods.

119
Q
  1. Disease caused by Burkholderia mallei:
    A. ecthyma gangrenosum
    B. cystic fibrosis
    C. glanders
    D. melioidosis
A

C. Glanders.
Burkholderia mallei is the causative agent of glanders, a disease primarily affecting horses but can also infect humans.

120
Q
  1. A man who travelled in the Mediterranean and loves eating cheese and fresh milk complained of prolonged fever, bone pain, and abdominal right upper quadrant pain… What will be the best drug is his condition?
    A. Meropenem
    B. Third generation cephalosporin
    C. Ampicillin
    D. Macrolides
A

C. Ampicillin

The symptoms and dietary history suggest brucellosis, commonly contracted from unpasteurized dairy products. Tetracycline/Ampicillin, often in combination with other antibiotics like doxycycline, are effective against Brucella species.

121
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of P. aeruginosa
    A. Violent pigment producing
    B. Proteolytic
    C. Produces butyric acid
    D. Pyocyanin-producing
A

D. Pyocyanin-producing.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing pyocyanin, a blue-green pigment.

122
Q
  1. Bacteroides fragilis is resistant to vancomycin
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True.
Bacteroides fragilis is inherently resistant to vancomycin due to its outer membrane, which prevents vancomycin from reaching its target site.

123
Q
  1. Specific characteristics of Cardiobacterium
    A. Produces butyric acid
    B. Brown-black halos
    C. Gliding motility
    D. Pleomorphic
A

D. Pleomorphic.
Cardiobacterium is a pleomorphic Gram-negative rod, known as part of the HACEK group of bacteria that are a rare cause of endocarditis.

124
Q

43 Bacteroides Fragilis is catalase negative
A. True
B.False

A

B. False.
Bacteroides fragilis is typically catalase positive. Catalase production is one of the biochemical characteristics used to identify this organism.

125
Q
  1. Until what age is the infant protected from Haemophilus infection by antibodies from the mother?
    A. under 3 months
    B. under 5 months
    C. under 7 months
    D. under 9 months
A

A. Under 3 months.
Infants are generally protected from Haemophilus influenzae infections by maternal antibodies for the first few months of life, typically up to around 3 months.

126
Q
  1. Enyme reaction caused by Fusobacterium nucleatum
    A. Indole positive
    B. Lipase positive
    C. Catalase positive
    D. Nitrate negative
A

C. Catalase positive

127
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of Bacteroides
    A. Pleomorphic
    B. Brown-black halo
    C. Gliding motility
    D. Produces butyric acid
A

B. Brown-black halo

128
Q
  1. Bacteroides is usually isolated as a lone or sole pathogen.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False.
Bacteroides is often found in polymicrobial infections, particularly in intra-abdominal infections, and is not typically isolated as a sole pathogen.

129
Q
  1. A person was exposed to an anthrax case, how long will the anthrax disease manifest?
    a. 2 weeks
    b. 8 wks
    c. 4 wks
    d. 6 wks
A

A. 2 weeks.
The incubation period for anthrax can vary, but symptoms typically appear within a week or two after exposure.

130
Q
  1. What is the drug of choice for Sexually Transmitted Infection that present as a ragged ulcer on the genitilia, with marked swelling and tenderness with enlarged and painful inguinal lymph nodes
    A. Cloxacillin
    B. Amoxicillin
    C. Co-amoxiclav
    D. Ceftriaxone
A

D. Ceftriaxone.
This description is suggestive of chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. The treatment of choice is ceftriaxone.

131
Q
  1. A 20/M came from rural Europe complained of high fever and body aches, swollen glands and difficulty with swallowing which was present for weeks, the most likely organism that you’ll consider
    A. Brucella sp.
    B. Pasteurella multocida
    C. Yersinia pestis
    D. Francisella tularensis
A

C. Yersinia pestis

132
Q
  1. This microorganism is identified through their appearance as “brown-black halos” due to esculin hydrolysis
    A. Fusobacterium
    B. Acinetobacter
    C. Pseudomonas
    D. Bacteroides
A

D. Bacteroides.
Bacteroides species can hydrolyze esculin, resulting in the formation of brown-black halos around the colonies on bile esculin agar.

133
Q
  1. Which statement is true of Bordetella pertussis infection
    A. Catarrha stage whit “whoop” upon inhalation
    B. Paroxysmal stage is mild coughing and sneezing
    C. Catarrhal stage predominates in older children and adults
    D. It is a common cause of prolonged (4-6 weeks) cough in adults
A

D. It is a common cause of prolonged (4-6 weeks) cough in adults.
Bordetella pertussis can cause a prolonged cough in adults, often without the classic “whoop” seen in children.

134
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Brucella spp.?
    A. Morphologically resembles Haemophilus
    B. Species are differentiated by Nitrogen produces
    C. all species ferments carbohydrates
    D. Brucella abortus infects pigs
A

D. Brucella abortus infects pigs.
Brucella abortus is primarily associated with cattle, but it can also infect pigs. The other statements are incorrect regarding Brucella spp.

135
Q
  1. Bacteroides fragilis is the most common anaerobe isolated from blood culture
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True.
Bacteroides fragilis is indeed one of the most commonly isolated anaerobes in clinical specimens, including blood cultures.

136
Q
  1. A 3 y.o. child was brought in due to meningitis. What is the common cause of meningitis in children in this age group?
    A. Neisseria meningitidis
    B. Heamophilus influenzae
    C. Sterptococcus pneumonia
    D. Klebsiella pneumonia
A

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of meningitis in children, especially after the decline in Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) meningitis due to widespread vaccination.

137
Q
  1. This microorganism is non-motile gram negative coccobacillary and diplococcal forms which enters circulation through minor trauma
    A. Kingella kingei
    B. Cardiobacterium hominis
    C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    D. Eikinella corrodens
A

A. Kingella kingae.

Kingella kingae fits this description well. It is a Gram-negative, non-motile bacterium that often exists in coccobacillary and diplococcal forms. It is known to enter the bloodstream through minor trauma, such as those that can occur in the oral cavity, and is a notable pathogen in pediatric populations, particularly causing bone and joint infections.

138
Q
  1. What can you see is an endoscopic exam of the bowels of a patient with a pneudomembranous enterocolitis
    A. Polyps
    B. Hemorrhages
    C. Microabscesses
    D. Ulceration
A

C. Microabscesses

139
Q
  1. What antibiotic will not be effective against B. anthracis?
    a. Ciprofloxacin
    b. Penicilin
    c. Erythromycin
    d. Doxyclycline
A

b. Penicilin

140
Q
  1. lemmieres disease which begins from the mouth or throat infection forming abscesses and later developing into thrombus and throws and emboli is caused by:
    a. acitenobacter
    b. pseudomonas
    c. fusobacterium
    d. chryseobacterium
A

c. fusobacterium

141
Q
  1. Long thin non-motile proteolytic gram negative rods forming distinct yellow colonies
    A. Chryseobacterium
    B. Ekenella corrodens
    C. Kingella kingei
    D. Cardiobacterium hominis
A

A. Chryseobacterium

142
Q

61 Disease caused by Burkholderia cepacia
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Glanders
D. Melioidosis

A

A. Cystic fibrosis

143
Q

62 What organism can have human to human transmission?
a. Yersinia pestis
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Brucella spp.
d. Francisella tularensis

A

a. Yersinia pestis

144
Q

63 the clinical manifestation of Fusobacterium infection is abscess formation
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

145
Q
  1. which country is not producing anthrax vaccine
    a. great britain
    b. india
    c. russia
    d. china
A

b. india

146
Q
  1. A 10 yo. boy developed high grade fever with cough after being is exposed from his sick dog with a bad cough. What is the most likely organism involved?
    A. Bordetella parapertuss
    B. Bordetella pertussis
    C. Bordetella bronchiseptica
    D. Bordetella avium
A

C. Bordetella bronchiseptica

147
Q
  1. What is true about H. influenzae
    A. The bacteria produces no exotoxin
    B. it is a gram positive bacteria
    C. the plasmid is antiphagocytic in the absence of specific anticapsular antibodies
    D. The encapsulated organism is a regular member of the normal respiratory flora of humans
A

A. The bacteria produces no exotoxin

148
Q
  1. What is true of Haemophilus influenzae?
    A. The bacteria produces no exotoxin
    B. its a gram positive bacteria
    C. the plasmid is antiphagocytic in the absence of specific anticapsular antibodies
    D. the encapsulated organism is a regular member of normal respiratory flora of humans
A

A. The bacteria produces no exotoxin

149
Q
  1. Which of the following statements in NOT correct regarding Haemophilus ducreyi?
    A. There is permanent immunity to chancroid infection
    B. Causes ragged ulcer on the genitalia, with marked swelling and tenderness
    C. This is a small gram-negative rod that occurs in strands in the lesions
    D. Differential diagnoses are syphilis, herpes simplex infection, and lymphogranuloma venereum
A

A. There is permanent immunity to chancroid infection

150
Q
  1. What drug can be given as prophylaxis for non-immunized children exposed to a Pertussis case?
    A. Rifampin
    B. Cotrimoxazole
    C. Clindamycin
    D. Erythromycin
A

D. Erythromycin

151
Q

70.What organism has slyatic tranmission among the rodents as the primary reservoir?
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Brucella spp.

A

B. Yersinia pestis

152
Q
  1. Which statement is true effect of antibiotics in case of pertussis
    a. hasten eradication of B. pertussis
    b. hasten recovery
    c. lessen paroxysmal coughing
    d. prevent convulsions
A

a. hasten eradication of B. pertussis

153
Q
  1. Which stage of Pertussis presents with nasal congestion, conjunctival suffusion and tearing?
    A. Convalescent stage
    B. Catarrhal stage
    C. Prodromal stage
    D. Paroxysmal stage
A

B. Catarrhal stage

154
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of Capnocytophaga
    A. Produces butyric acid
    B. pleomorphic
    C. gliding motility
    D. brown black halos
A

C. gliding motility

155
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of Chromobacterium violaceum
    A. Violet pigment producing
    B. Produces butyric acid
    C. Violet pigment producing
    D. Proteolytic
A

A. Violet pigment producing

156
Q
  1. A 6-month-old infant came in due to 5 days of cough, high-grade fever, and convulsions. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D. Haemophilus influenzae
A

D. Haemophilus influenzae

157
Q
  1. Disease caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    A. meliodosis
    B. cystic fibrosis
    C. glanders
    D. echthyma gangrenosum
A

D. echthyma gangrenosum

158
Q
  1. These are motile gram negative rods which alkalinize citrate medium and oxidation-fermentation medium and are ureases negative:
    A. Chryseobacterium
    B. Chromobacteria
    C. Burkholderia
    D. Achromobacter
A

D. Achromobacter

159
Q
  1. Disease caused by Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitants.
    A. Actinomycosis
    B. Glabders
    C. Cystic Fibrosis
    D. Melioidosis
A

A. Actinomycosis

160
Q
  1. What type of Anthrax presents as a papule that rapidly changes into a vesicle or small ring of vesicles that coalesce, and a necrotic ulcer develops and a central black eschar?
    A. Genito-urinary Anthrax
    B. Gastrointestinal Anthrax
    C. Cutaneous Anthrax
    D. Inhalational Anthrax
A

C. Cutaneous Anthrax

161
Q
  1. Which organism causes highly communicable form of conjunctivitis and brazillian purpuric fever
    A. H. aegypticus
    B. H. ducreyi
    C. H. aprophilus
    D. H. haemolyticus
A

A. H. aegypticus

162
Q
  1. Enzyme reaction caused by S. maltophilia
    A. urease negative
    B. Lysine-decarboxylase positive
    C. indole positie
    D. lipase negative
A

B. Lysine-decarboxylase positive

163
Q
  1. Selective media of Burkholderia cepacia
    A. Colistin containing media
    B. blood agar
    C. brucella agar
    D. thayer martin agar
A

A. Colistin containing media

164
Q
  1. a 20 y.o m came in for malaise, chills and periodic nocturnal fever at 39 to 40C for 2 weeks with drenching sweats in the evening. On PE he has enlarged spleen, what is your diagnosis
    a. pasteurellosis
    b. brucellosis
    c. tularemia
    d. yersenia infection
A

b. brucellosis

165
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false regarding Brucella spp?
    A. gram-positive and encapsulated coccobacilli
    B. causes undulant fever
    C. infected phagocytes carry brucella to the spleen
    D. resistant to intracellular killing
A

A. gram-positive and encapsulated coccobacilli

166
Q
  1. Drug of choice for Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    A. Vancomycin
    B. Aminoglycoside
    C. Imipinem
    D. Penicillin
A

D. Penicillin

167
Q
  1. Fusobacterium nucleatum is a non-spore forming and a non-motile bacilli.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

168
Q
  1. What drug can be given as prophylaxis for non-immunized children exposed to a pertussis case?
    A. Erythromycin
    B. Clindamycin
    C. Rifampin
    D. Cotrimoxazole
A

A. Erythromycin

169
Q
  1. What is the true characteristic of B. anthracis
    A. Aerobic spore-forming Bacillus
    B. Anaerobic spore-forming bacillus
    C. Anaerobic Gram positive spore-forming cocci
    D. Aerobic Gram negative spore-forming cocci
A

A. Aerobic spore-forming Bacillus

170
Q
  1. This microorganism produces cream to orange colonies and oxidizes glucose and fructose
    A. B. pseudomallei
    B. violaceum
    C. P. aeruginosa
    D. Ochrobactrum
A

A. B. pseudomallei

171
Q
  1. What aerobic spore-forming bacillus causes food poisoning and occasionally eye infections?
    A. Bacillus cereus
    B. Bacillus anthracis
    C. Bacillus saphrophyticus
    D. Bacillus subtilis
A

A. Bacillus cereus

172
Q

91 Specific characteristic of achromobacter
A. Proteolytic
B.Pyocyann-producing
C. Pritichous flagella
D. Safety pin appearance

A

C. Pritichous flagella

173
Q
  1. A patient came in for diarrhea, severe abdominal pain and fever. He self-medicated with clindamycin for a gum abscess for 2 weeks. You suspected pseudomembranous colitis. You discontinued clindamycin. What drug would you treat him with?
    A. Azithromycin
    B. Cefuroxime
    C. Ampicillin
    D. Metronidazole
A

D. Metronidazole

174
Q
  1. What part of the Haemophilus influezae is the basis for typing?
    A. Capsule
    B. Flagella
    C. Plasmid
    D. Nuclear membrane
A

A. Capsule

175
Q
  1. Disease cause by burkholderia pseudomallei
    A. Glanders
    B. Melioidosis
    C. Cystic Fibrosis
    D. Ecthyma gangrenosum
A

B. Melioidosis

176
Q
  1. Part of the oral flora of dogs producing fulminant infection in asplenic patients and alcoholics.
    A.Chromobacteria
    B. Capnotophaga cynodegmi
    C. Capnotophaga canimorsus
    D. Capnotophaga ochracea
A

C. Capnotophaga canimorsus

177
Q
  1. Specific characteristic of burkholderia pseudomallei
    a. pyocyanin producing
    b. safety pin appearance
    c. violet pigment producing
    d. Proteolytic
A

b. safety pin appearance

178
Q
  1. Selective culture media for Bacteroides
    a. colistin containing agar
    b. blood agar
    c. brucella agar
    d. thayer martin agar
A

c. brucella agar

179
Q
  1. The following microorganisms are associated with indwelling IV catheter infection except:
    A. Acitenobacter johnsonii
    B. Sternotrophomas maltophilia
    C. Ochrobactrum
    D. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
A

D. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

180
Q
  1. What route can pneumonic plague be highly contagious from person-to-person?
    A. flea bite
    B. Direct contact
    C. Respiratory Droplet
    D. Fomites
A

C. Respiratory Droplet

181
Q
  1. What cellular structure of Haemophilus transmits the resistance to ampicillin and chloramphenicol
    A. nuclear membrane
    B. capsule
    C. Flagella
    D. Plasmid
A

D. Plasmid

0- MICRO/PARA (15 decks)

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