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Level 3 > Leadership Exam 2 > Flashcards

Leadership Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What stage of team formation involves the members getting to know each other and the leader defining tasks/offering direction?

A

forming

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2
Q

At what stage of team formation does conflict arise?

A

storming

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3
Q

At what stage of team formation are rules established and roles are taken on?

A

storming

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4
Q

What happens in the norming stage of team formation?

A
  • rule establishment
  • members show respect for one another
  • tasks begin to be accomplished
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5
Q

What is the focus during the performing stage of team formation?

A

the accomplishment of tasks

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6
Q

What is used to support change with the rational-empirical change strategy?

A

factual information

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7
Q

When is the rational-empirical change strategy used?

A

when resistance to change is minimal

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8
Q

What is used to support change with the normative-reduction change strategy?

A

interprofessional relationships

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9
Q

What is used to support change with the power-coercive change strategy?

A

rewards

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10
Q

When is the power-coercive change strategy used?

A

when individuals are highly resistant to change

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11
Q

How long is case management used for?

A

from the time the client starts receiving care until they no longer receive services

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12
Q

What is the goal of case management?

A

to avoid fragmentation of care and control cost

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13
Q

What is the nurse’s roles (6) om case management?

A
  • coordinating care
  • facilitating continuity of care
  • improving the efficiency of care and utilization of resources
  • enhancing quality of care
  • limiting unnecessary costs and lengthy stays
  • advocating
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14
Q

What are critical pathways used for?

A

to support the implementation of clinical guidelines and protocols

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15
Q

What are critical pathways usually based on?

A

cost and length of stay parameters

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16
Q

When is a variance documented?

A

when a client requires treatment other than what is typical or requires a longer length of stay

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17
Q

Who is a professional who provides expert advice in a particular area?

A

a consultant

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18
Q

What is a referral?

A

a formal request for service by another care provider

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19
Q

What are examples (6) of why a discharge referral can be made?

A
  • canes
  • walkers
  • wheelchairs
  • home health nurses
  • hospice nurses
  • home health aide
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20
Q

When should discharge planning start?

A

upon admission

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21
Q

When is it the nurse’s role to provide written and verbal reports of the client’s status and care needs?

A

transfers

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22
Q

What information is pertinent for a nurse to give during transfer?

A
  • diagnosis and providers
  • demographic information
  • health status, plan of care, recent progress
  • alterations that can precipitate immediate concern
  • most recent vitals and meds
  • assessment or care needed within the next few hours
  • diet and activity prescriptions
  • presence/need for specific equipment or adaptive devices
  • family involvement and health care proxy
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23
Q

What does a discharge plan include a review of?

A
  • the need for additional service
  • current health and prognosis
  • religious beliefs
  • ability to perform ADL’s
  • mobility status and goals
  • sensory, motor, physical, or cognitive impairments
  • support systems
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24
Q

What instructions should be given at discharge?

A
  • home procedure step-by-step instructions
  • medication regimen
  • medication adverse effects
  • names/numbers of provider and community resources
  • plans for follow-up care and therapies
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25
Q

What does a written summary include prior to discharge?

A
  • type
  • date and time
  • who accompanied a client
  • how the client was transported
  • condition
  • destination
  • disposition of valuables, meds brought from home, and prescriptions
  • copy of discharge instructions
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26
Q

What does the PSDA say the client must be informed of upon admission?

A

their right to accept and refuse care

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27
Q

What identifies clients’ rights in the health care settings in the Patient Care Partnership?

A

the AHA

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28
Q

What should be done if the patient refuses treatment or wants to leave the hospital without approval from the provider?

A
  • notify the provider
  • discussion of potential risks/complications
  • documentation
  • sign an AMA form
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29
Q

What are some situations where advocacy would be necessary?

A
  • end-of-life decisions
  • access to healthcare
  • protection of client privacy
  • informed consent
  • substandard practice
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30
Q

What skills are important for advocacy?

A
  • risk-taking
  • vision
  • self-confidence
  • articulate communication
  • assertiveness
31
Q

What values are important for advocacy?

A
  • caring
  • autonomy
  • respect
  • empowerment
32
Q

When is written consent required?

A

invasive procedures or surgeries

33
Q

Who can grant consent for another person?

A
  • parent of a minor
  • legal guardian
  • court-specified representative
  • health care surrogate
  • spouse or closest to kin
34
Q

What does the provider do for informed consent?

A
  • explain procedure
  • who will be performing the procedure
  • possible harm, pain, or discomfort
  • other treatments and possible consequences
  • right to refuse
  • risk of no treatment
35
Q

What does the nurse do for informed consent?

A
  • witness signature
  • ensure the provider gave adequate info and the client understood it
  • ensure client competency
  • notify the provider if pt has more thoughts/questions/concerns
36
Q

What does the nurse document for informed consent?

A
  • reinforcement of information
  • forward client questions to the provider
  • use of interpreter
37
Q

What is a legal document that expresses the client’s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client cannot express it themselves?

A

a living will

38
Q

What is a legal document that designates a healthcare surrogate to make healthcare decisions for a client who is unable?

A

a durable power of attorney

39
Q

What is the nurse’s role with advanced directives?

A
  • provide written info
  • document AD status
  • ensure the AD is current
  • recognize that the client’s choice takes priority over the family or provider
  • inform members of the healthcare team of the client’s AD
40
Q

Who can access a client’s healthcare records?

A

only healthcare team members that are directly responsible for the client’s care

41
Q

When can part of the client record be copied?

A

ONLY for authorized exchange of documents between healthcare institutions

42
Q

What can a nurse use an electronic format for?

A
  • laptop: documentation
  • medication dispensing system: dispense meds
43
Q

What can a nurse use databases for?

A

review meds, diseases, procedures, treatments

44
Q

When are computers beneficial for clients?

A
  • visual impairments
  • access EHR online
45
Q

What type of law relates to an individual’s relationship with the government?

A

criminal law

46
Q

Is a misdemeanor or felony more serious?

A

felony

47
Q

What does civil law protect?

A

the individual rights of people (torts)

48
Q

What are unintentional torts?

A

negligence and malpractice

49
Q

What is practice or misconduct that does not meet expected standards of care and places the client at risk for injury?

A

negligene

50
Q

What is practice or misconduct that does not meet expected standards of care and places the client at risk for injury?

A

negligence

51
Q

What is defamation?

A
  • false communication
  • communication with careless disregard for the truth
  • intent to injure an individual’s reputation
52
Q

What type of defamation is through written word or photographs?

A

libel

53
Q

What type of defamation is through spoken word?

A

slander

54
Q

What makes another person fearful and apprehensive (threat)?

A

assault

55
Q

What is intentional or wrongful contact that involves injury or offensive contact?

A

battery

56
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

a competent person not at risk for injury to self or others is confined or restrained against their will

57
Q

What are examples of federal regulations (7)?

A
  • HIPAA
  • ADA
  • Mental Health Parity Act
  • Patient Self-Determination
  • Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
  • National Organ Transplant Act
  • Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
58
Q

What do Boards of Nursing do (4)?

A
  • adopt rules/regulations
  • issue/revoke a nursing license
  • set standards for nursing programs
  • tell the scope of practice
59
Q

What laws protect nurses who provide emergency assistance outside of the employment location?

A

good samaritan laws

60
Q

What elements are necessary to prove malpractice (5)?

A
  1. duty to provide care as defined by a standard
  2. breach of duty by failure to meet standard
  3. foreseeability of harm
  4. breach of duty has potential to cause harm
  5. harm occurs
61
Q

Where are standards of care found?

A

the nurse practice act of each state

62
Q

Who develops published standards of nursing practice?

A

professional organizations
- ANA
and specialty organizations

63
Q

What is an example of an accrediting body?

A

the joint commission

64
Q

What does failure mode and effects analysis examine?

A

potential failures in designs, including event sequencing risks, vulnerabilities, and improvement areas

65
Q

What are national patient safety goals used for?

A

augmenting core measures and promoting client safety

66
Q

How is client safety promoted (6)?

A
  • client identification
  • effective staff communication
  • safe medication use
  • infection prevention
  • safety risk identification
  • preventing wrong-site surgery
67
Q

Where are healthcare policies and procedures maintained?

A

in the facility’s policy and procedure manual

68
Q

What happens if a nurse practices according to institutional policy and the care still results in injury?

A

the nurse is legally protected

69
Q

What is mandatory to report (3)?

A
  • suspected child abuse
  • suspected violence or neglect against vulnerable persons (older/dependent adults)
  • communicable disease
70
Q

What can reporting communicable diseases help with (6)?

A
  • ensure proper medical tx
  • monitor for common-source outbreaks
  • plan and evaluate control/prevention plans
  • identify outbreaks/epidemics
  • determine public health priorities based on trends
  • educate the community on prevention and tx
71
Q

What regulates organ and tissue donation?

A

federal and state laws

72
Q

How can you tell if someone wants to donate their organs?

A
  • stipulated in a will
  • designated on an official card
73
Q

What are nurses responsible for regarding organ donation?

A

Answering questions and providing emotional support

Level 3 (29 decks)

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