Lear 75 Limitations Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
Under what FAR Part is the Learjet 75 certificated?
A
25
2
Q
For what types of operations are the aircraft approved?
A
Day, Night, VFR, IFR, Icing
3
Q
Is the aircraft certified for ditching?
A
No
4
Q
QRH: Is there a checklist for ditching?
A
Yes
5
Q
Maximum ramp weight
A
21750
6
Q
Maximum takeoff weight
A
21500
7
Q
Minimum flight weight
A
14000
8
Q
Maximum landing weight
A
19200
9
Q
Maximum zero fuel weight
A
16500
10
Q
VMO
A
330
11
Q
MMO - Mach trim operative
A
0.81
12
Q
MMO - Mach trim inoperative - AP ON
A
0.81
13
Q
MMO - Mach trim inoperative - AP OFF
A
0.76 to 0.78 (23 to 42) and 0.78 > 42
14
Q
VMO (standby instruments)
A
Up to 22 - 331 and 22 to 26 - 330
15
Q
MMO (standby instruments)
A
0.81
16
Q
VLO
A
200
17
Q
VLE
A
260
18
Q
VFE, Flaps 8
A
250
19
Q
VFE, Flaps 40
A
150
20
Q
VFE, Flaps 20
A
200
21
Q
VMCA, Flaps 8
A
107
22
Q
VMCA, Flaps 20
A
107
23
Q
VMCG - Rudder Boost On, APR ON or OFF
A
105
24
Q
VMCL, Flaps 8
A
110
25
VMCL, Flaps 40
102
26
Maximum Tire Speed
165
27
Maximum pressure altitude (takeoff and landing)
14
28
Maximum fuel imbalance (takeoff, enroute, and landing)
200
29
Tailwind Component - Takeoff (below 10)
10
30
Tailwind Component - Takeoff (10 to 12)
5
31
Tailwind Component - Takeoff (above 12)
0
32
Tailwind Component - Landing
10
33
Maximum pressure altitude enroute
51
34
Maneuvering Load Factor limits (flaps up)
2.9 to -1.0
35
Maneuvering Load Factor limits (flaps down)
2.0 to 0.0
36
Maximum water depth (takeoff and landing)
3/4 in
37
Can the AP be on for takeoff and landing?
No
38
Should you intentionally overpower the AP?
No
39
What are the Delta P limits?
9.9 to -0.5
40
When must the engine sync be off?
Takeoff, landing, single-engine operations
41
When must HI FLOW be off?
Takeoff, landing, anti-ice operations, flight above 30
42
What is the maximum continuous amperage from the generators?
300 amps
43
What type of engine does the Learjet 75 aircraft have?
TFE-731-40-BR
44
At how many pounds of thrust is the BR engine rated?
3850
45
What is the time limit for takeoff power? APR power?
Takeoff and APR are the same: (10 mins with one engine inop / 5 mins with all engines operating)
46
What are the main engines starter duty time limits?
1:1 min2:2 min3:30 min
47
What are some thrust reverser limitations?
Ground operations only, paved surfaces, do not back up the airplane, touch and go prohibited, max reverse usable down to 40, TR CBs must not be intentionally pulled in flight unless specified
48
What are the approved fuels?
JP-5,8,A-1
49
What is max refueling pressure?
55
50
What is minimum refueling pressure?
20
51
What is max defueling pressure?
-10
52
What type of hydraulic fluid is used?
MIL-H-5606
53
What are some APU limitations?
Ground operations only, max pressure alt 10, must be shut down prior to takeoff, prohibited during de-ice ops, do not takeoff with amber APU FAIL CAS, max continuous load is 300 amps
54
What are APU starter cooling periods?
1:1 min2:2 min3:15 min
55
What does a white IGN EI indicate?
One ignitor plug is not firing
56
What does an amber IGN EI indicate?
Dual ignitor plug failure
57
With the DEEC turned off, what is the engine overspeed protection?
Mechanical governor limiting N2 to 105%
58
What is the position of the surge bleed valve when the DEEC is in manual mode?
1/3 open
59
Below what temperature is an external power source recommended for starting the engines?
0°C
60
How many fire loops are on each engine?
One loop, three sections (accessory gear box, tailcone, and engine firewall)
61
What does pushing the FIRE PUSH button do?
-Related fuel shutoff valve closes, -CLOSED indication shows on the related FIRE switch,
-Flashing FIRE PUSH illumination goes to steady,
-Extinguishing agent containers become armed,
-FIRE EXT 1 and 2 light illuminate,
-Related DC generator and AC alternator go offline,
-Related engine ignitors go offline, -Related thrust reverser control unit goes offline and prevents the thrust reverser isolation valve from opening
62
Without having the "armed" caption, what will pushing the extinguisher button do?
Nothing
63
How many fire bottles are able to extinguish a main engine fire?
Two
64
If there is a fire in one of the main engines, will a fire bottle automatically deploy?
No
65
If an engine ITT exceeds temperature limits, to what color will the EI change?
Red
66
On what DU(s) are the engine indications normal displayed?
DU2
67
How many fire bottle(s) are able to extinguish an APU fire?
One
68
If the engine oil temperature indication is amber because it is too cold, what should be remembered regarding the thrust lever?
Allow oil temperature to increase to 30°C prior to increasing thrust above idle. If cold ambient conditions prevent oil temperature from obtaining 30°C, idle thrust may be exceeded as required.
69
How is the APU oil level checked?
APU test panel
70
According to the AFM, if the engine oil level checks low during preflight, what is the next step?
Start and run engines until stabilized, shut down, and recheck
71
How is the engine protected from icing in the fuel?
Fuel oil heat exchanger
72
AFM: What type of oil is approved? Where can that be found in the AFM?
Type II, Addendum
73
Within how many hours of engine shutdown should the the engine oil level be checked?
Within 1 hour of shutdown
74
What is the maximum fuel capacity of the Learjet 70 and 75 aircraft?
6062
75
What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
200
76
How long should it take for the precheck valve to close on the SPPR?
Up to 20 secs
77
What functions do the electric standby fuel pumps serve (with APU)?
Backup to main ejector pumps, crossflow, engine starting, APU operation
78
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another with the ENG FIRE PUSH closed?
Yes
79
When does the right standby fuel pump come on automatically?
APU and engine starts
80
Where are the fuel drains located?
Belly abeam wing
81
How many electric fuel pumps are on the Learjet 75 aircraft?
Two
82
From which pump does the APU receive pressurized fuel?
Right
83
Where is the vent for fuel tanks located?
Fuselage abeam no. 1 engine cowling
84
To which systems/components does the hydraulic system supply pressure for operation?
Landing gear/inboard doors, brakes, flaps, spoiler/spoilerons, thrust reversers
85
What is the main source of pressure for the hydraulic system?
One engine-driven pump on each engine
86
Can the engine driven hydraulic pumps be used to charge the brake accumulator?
No
87
How many electric hydraulic pumps are installed on the aircraft?
One
88
How many hydraulic reservoirs are installed on the aircraft?
One
89
After a main hydraulic system failure, which components can be regained by using the Aux Pump/Crossflow?
Gears and flaps
90
What is the nominal hydraulic pressure for the aircraft hydraulic system?
3000
91
In the event that hydraulic crossflow is required, what systems(s) will operate?
Landing gear, flaps
92
If the destination elevation is 1327, what is the landing altitude setting?
1400
93
When the landing altitude is set to below 8000, what are the indications in the cockpit of a pressurization problem?
8750: amber CAS, amber box, single chime, master caution warning, flashing cabin alt on CPC, 9.5: EMER PRESS activates, 10: red CAS, red box, aural CABIN ALT, flashing cabin alt on CPC, 13.7: outflow valves close, 14.5: PAX O2 masks deploy, EMER lights activate
94
Can Hi-Flow be on for takeoff?
No, due to limitation
95
Is the cabin pressurized with HP or LP?
HP at low power setting; LP otherwise
96
Is EMER PRESS still possible with the PACK switch off?
Yes
97
Does the L Bleed switch need to be on in order for the Left Emer Press valve to open?
Yes
98
Is the cargo compartment pressurized?
No
99
What component cools the air that is forced into the cabin?
ACM/Pack
100
Is pressurization of the cabin controlled by modulating the amount of air entering the cabin or by modulating the amount of air exiting the cabin?
Exiting
101
Where is the standard (40 cu ft) O2 bottle located?
Nose section
102
How does positive cabin pressure leave the cabin?
Outflow valves
103
What powers the windshield heating elements?
AC alternators
104
How many ice detect lights are on the aircraft?
One on copilot fuselage
105
Can both anti-ice pressure regulating valves be opened if only one bleed switch is ON?
Yes
106
Are the winglets heated?
No
107
If spraying with deicing fluid is not necessary, but ice protection will be required for takeoff, what is the minimum time required for the ice protection to be on before takeoff?
2 mins
108
Which windshield heat fails if the left alternator fails?
Left
109
What does an amber "ICE DETECT" CAS mean?
Ice detected and ice protection is not on
110
How are the leading edges of the wings heated?
Engine bleed air
111
Is the baggage compartment heated?
Yes
112
How do the main landing gear assemblies stay in the up position?
Gear door uplocks, gear rests on doors
113
How does the nose gear assembly stay in the up position?
Uplock mechanism
114
What does a white hash annunciator on the landing gear panel indicate?
Respective main inboard gear door is not locked up or down
115
What is the alternate landing gear extension method?
Free fall
116
At what temperature do the main gear fuse plugs melt?
390F
117
What type of brakes are installed?
Carbon brakes
118
How is the landing gear actuated during normal extension/retraction?
Hydraulically
119
How many tires are on each main gear strut?
Two
120
In normal operation, on what DU is the landing gear status displayed?
DU2
121
In abnormal operation, on What DU(s) can the landing gear status be displayed?
DU1 and DU3
122
How is the nosewheel steering actuated?
Electrically
123
How is the nose wheel steering controlled?
Rudder pedals
124
Must the parking brake be set in order to get an accurate brake wear pin indication?
Yes
125
For how long should the parking brake hold?
48 hours
126
What lights are located on the main gear struts?
Taxi
127
If the taxi lights are selected on, will they illuminate regardless of gear position?
No, only if the corresponding gear is down and locked
128
When lowering the landing gear, does the aux pump come on?
Yes
129
What sources of electrical power are available?
Two main batteries, one EMER battery, GPU, APU
130
Is there an AC source of electrical power?
Yes, two alternators
131
What main function does an AC source of electrical power provide?
Windshield heat
132
Can one alternator provide power to both windshield heating elements?
No
133
Name some components on the emergency hot bus.
Squibs, FWSOV, pylon light, entry light, emergency light
134
What indicates a single generator failure?
GEN OFF illumination in the S/I, bus-tie closure, NON-ESS shed, amber L or R GEN FAIL CAS
135
Can the NON-ESS buses be reselected after a single generator failure?
Yes
136
What indicates a dual generator failure?
L/R GEN OFF, bus-tie open, NON-ESS OFF, L/R MAIN and MAIN AV buses OFF, EMER illuminates, red LR GEN FAIL
137
Is the bus-tie normally open or closed?
Open
138
What conditions will cause the bus-tie to automatically close?
Engine start, single GEN failure, APU/GPU operation
139
Can the generators and GPU all be online at the same time?
No
140
Can the generators and APU generator be online at the same time?
Yes
141
If the checklist instructs to "pull and reset" a circuit breaker, how many times can this be done?
Once
142
Why is the right AMP load usually higher than the left?
EMER BATT charging
143
If the ailerons jam, how will roll control subsequently be accomplished?
Spoilerons controlled through the pilot control yoke
144
What is PIT TRIM BIAS and when is it used?
System to help hold elevator back pressure, used during jammed stabilizer
145
List some ways to disconnect the AP.
AP/YD button, barrel trim switch, MSW, Yoke Pressure, Circuit Breaker
146
How are the thrust reversers controlled/actuated?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated
147
What happens to the thrust lever with an uncommanded deploy?
Automatic retard system forcibly moves the TL to IDLE
148
Must both gear squat switches be in GROUND mode to arm the thrust reversers?
Yes
149
Does the aircraft use electrical servos or cables and pulleys to actuate the primary flight controls?
Cables and pulleys
150
What actuates the rudder boost?
Rudder pedal force
151
During Mach trim changes, does the autopilot use primary or secondary trim?
Secondary
152
Will pressing the FIRE PUSH switch have any control on the operation of the thrust reversers?
Yes, the TRs will not operate
153
Scenario: How does an AHRS no. 1 failure appear prior to 80?
Black EFIS screen background and red X over attitude display
154
What does a yellow LOC mean in the HSI?
Both active NAV sources are selected to the same short range NAV source
155
How many flight directors are installed on the aircraft?
Two
156
If one ADC fails, can the autopilot be reengaged?
Yes
157
If one AHRS fails, can the autopilot be reengaged?
No
158
How is the navigation frequency (that the ESIS uses for navigation) changed?
GTCs, PFD remote
159
On which DU can the PFD be displayed?
Any of them
160
How many pitot static probes does the aircraft have?
Three
161
Does the ESIS have its own standalone pitot/static probe?
Yes
162
Which switch provides standby pitot heat?
Right pitot switch
163
What will activate the "Configuration" aural message?
Aileron / rudder / pitch trim, PITCH TRIM BIAS, PITCH TRIM miscompare, parking brake, flaps not 8 or 20, TRs UNL, spoilers extended, CHECK TOLD CAS
164
Can you silence the "Configuration" aural message?
No
165
Can you silence the "Cabin Altitude" aural message?
Yes, but only after 60 secs
166
Are there flashlights available to the crew and, if so, where are they?
Yes, two located behind each crewmember seat
167
How many handheld fire extinguishers are installed?
Three
168
Is the aircraft approved for ditching?
No
169
What is the purpose of the Deploy switch on the PAX/OXY pressurization panel?
Passenger oxygen mask manual deployment
170
QRH scenario: What is the minimum O2 requirement for 5 pax?
327 liters
171
Once the crew O2 mask has been donned, how can the pilot ensure 100% has been selected?
Push upward on 100% tab
172
How many emergency exits are there?
Two
173
Once armed, when will the emergency lighting automatically activate?
Dual GEN failure, deployment of PAX O2 masks
174
What emergency light protection do we have with WOW?
Turns off after 10 to 12 mins
175
Where are the crew smoke goggles located?
Sidewall compartment
