LECTURE 1-3 Flashcards

(126 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following best defines geography?
A. Study of historical human civilizations
B. Study of Earth’s weather patterns
C. Study of relationships among natural systems and human activity over space and time
D. Study of fossils and ancient life forms

A

C. Study of relationships among natural systems and human activity over space and time

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2
Q

What are the five spatial themes in geography?
A. Earth, Water, Air, Fire, Space
B. Time, Movement, Energy, Society, Culture
C. Location, Region, Human-Earth Relationships, Movement, Place
D. Climate, Culture, Geology, Biodiversity, Population

A

C. Location, Region, Human-Earth Relationships, Movement, Place

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3
Q

Which of the following is a branch of physical geography?
A. Sociology
B. Climatology
C. Immigration studies
D. Cultural studies

A

B. Climatology

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4
Q

What is the focus of spatial analysis in geography?
A. Social relations in human groups
B. Patterns and processes over space and time
C. Political structures of nations
D. Economic disparities among countries

A

B. Patterns and processes over space and time

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5
Q

What does the Gaia Hypothesis propose?
A. Earth will eventually be uninhabitable
B. Earth functions as a single, self-regulating organism
C. Life on Earth originated in outer space
D. Volcanoes control Earth’s climate

A

B. Earth functions as a single, self-regulating organism

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6
Q

Which of the following best describes an open system?
A. A system where no matter enters or leaves
B. A system that exchanges energy and matter with its surroundings
C. A system that is isolated from external influence
D. A system that repeats the same process continuously

A

B. A system that exchanges energy and matter with its surroundings

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of a closed system?
A. Free-flowing river
B. Forest ecosystem
C. Earth
D. Weather system

A

C. Earth

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8
Q

What type of feedback loop stabilizes a system?
A. Neutral feedback loop
B. Positive feedback loop
C. Negative feedback loop
D. Neutralizing feedback loop

A

C. Negative feedback loop

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9
Q

What is albedo?
A. The reflection of heat by the ocean
B. A type of energy from the sun
C. A measure of reflectivity of a surface
D. A kind of weathering process

A

C. A measure of reflectivity of a surface

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10
Q

Which of the following is not one of Earth’s four main subsystems?
A. Hydrosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Technosphere
D. Lithosphere

A

C. Technosphere

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11
Q

The cryosphere is primarily composed of:
A. Vegetation
B. Ice
C. Volcanoes
D. Soil

A

B. Ice

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12
Q

Abiotic components are:
A. Only found in the hydrosphere
B. Living components of ecosystems
C. Non-living parts of the environment
D. Human-made systems

A

C. Non-living parts of the environment

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13
Q

Which of the following is not considered a natural limit?
A. Earth’s ability to absorb waste
B. Human creativity
C. Resource availability
D. Carrying capacity

A

B. Human creativity

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a tool used in physical geography?
A. Remote Sensing
B. Cartography
C. Sociology
D. GIS

A

C. Sociology

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15
Q

Latitude measures:
A. Distance from the sun
B. Distance north or south of the equator
C. Distance from the North Pole
D. Altitude

A

B. Distance north or south of the equator

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16
Q

Longitude is measured from:
A. The equator
B. The Prime Meridian
C. The International Date Line
D. The Tropic of Cancer

A

B. The Prime Meridian

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17
Q

Remote sensing can be used for all the following except:
A. Mapping vegetation change
B. Identifying rock types
C. Measuring economic inflation
D. Detecting floods or landslides

A

C. Measuring economic inflation

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18
Q

GIS allows for:
A. Watching live volcanoes erupt
B. Creating three-dimensional maps of Mars
C. Layering information to analyze geographic data
D. Predicting future tectonic movements

A

C. Layering information to analyze geographic data

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19
Q

Physical geography does not include which of the following?
A. Soils
B. Weather systems
C. Social policies
D. Water systems

A

C. Social policies

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20
Q

An environment is defined as:
A. Just the natural world
B. The total of human influence
C. Everything surrounding an organism
D. Only the climate and atmosphere

A

C. Everything surrounding an organism

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21
Q

Which term refers to non-human living components?
A. Abiotic
B. Biotic
C. Synthetic
D. Natural

A

B. Biotic

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22
Q

Feedback loops are important in systems because they:
A. Always stabilize systems
B. Cause systems to become unpredictable
C. Influence the system through self-reinforcement or regulation
D. Are not part of natural systems

A

C. Influence the system through self-reinforcement or regulation

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23
Q

Which of the following best represents a spatial theme of movement?
A. Plate tectonics
B. Animal migration
C. Regional dialects
D. Soil composition

A

B. Animal migration

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24
Q

The method of geography is focused on:
A. Quantitative research
B. Spatial and temporal analysis
C. Historical documentation
D. Political theory

A

B. Spatial and temporal analysis

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25
Which of the following tools provides elevation data? A. GIS B. GPS C. Remote sensing D. Cartography
B. GPS
26
What is the theory of plate tectonics? A. The Earth is a hollow shell B. The Earth's crust is stationary C. The Earth’s lithosphere is broken into plates that float on the mantle D. Continents are fixed in position
C. The Earth’s lithosphere is broken into plates that float on the mantle
27
Which of the following rocks forms from cooling lava or magma? A. Sedimentary B. Metamorphic C. Igneous D. Fossiliferous
C. Igneous
28
What is the supercontinent proposed by Alfred Wegener? A. Laurasia B. Gondwana C. Pangaea D. Euramerica
C. Pangaea
29
What boundary type results in the formation of mid-ocean ridges? A. Convergent B. Transform C. Divergent D. Subductive
C. Divergent
30
Subduction zones often result in: A. Earthquakes only B. New ocean crust C. Volcanoes and mountain building D. Flat plains
C. Volcanoes and mountain building
31
Which boundary type causes the San Andreas Fault’s strike-slip movement? A. Divergent B. Convergent C. Transform D. Collisional
C. Transform
32
Where is most earthquake and volcanic activity found? A. Around the Atlantic Ocean B. In deserts C. Along the Pacific Ring of Fire D. In Antarctica
C. Along the Pacific Ring of Fire
33
What causes the Atlantic Ocean to widen over time? A. Plate subduction B. Sea-floor spreading C. Continental erosion D. Earthquakes
B. Sea-floor spreading
34
What is a pyroclastic flow? A. A lava river B. A slow-moving lava flow C. A high-density mix of hot gases and volcanic debris D. Underground magma flow
C. A high-density mix of hot gases and volcanic debris
35
The VEI measures: A. Lava temperature B. Gas emissions from volcanoes C. Volcanic explosivity D. Earthquake magnitude
C. Volcanic explosivity
36
What is a lahar? A. A lava lake B. A steam vent C. A volcanic mudflow D. A type of ash cloud
C. A volcanic mudflow
37
The Yellowstone caldera is an example of a: A. Shield volcano B. Hot spot volcano C. Collapse caldera D. Cinder cone
C. Collapse caldera
38
Andisols are fertile because they are derived from: A. Metamorphic rock B. Desert sands C. Volcanic ash D. Ocean sediments
C. Volcanic ash
39
An earthquake’s epicenter is: A. The source of magma B. Directly above the focus on the Earth’s surface C. Deep within Earth’s mantle D. The most damaged city
B. Directly above the focus on the Earth’s surface
40
The Richter scale is: A. Linear B. Logarithmic C. Circular D. Static
B. Logarithmic
41
Which region in Canada has the most seismic activity? A. Ontario B. Quebec C. Alberta D. British Columbia
D. British Columbia
42
Which factor does not influence earthquake danger? A. Human population density B. Weather conditions C. Earthquake magnitude D. Time of occurrence
B. Weather conditions
43
A tsunami is caused by: A. High tides B. Undersea earthquakes or landslides C. Erosion D. Tornadoes
B. Undersea earthquakes or landslides
44
What disaster occurred in Fukushima, Japan? A. Earthquake-triggered nuclear meltdown B. Hurricane C. Wildfire D. Volcanic eruption
A. Earthquake-triggered nuclear meltdown
45
How many earthquakes occur yearly in Southern California? A. Less than 50 B. About 100 C. Around 1,000 D. Over 10,000
D. Over 10,000
46
Which of these is not used to predict earthquakes? A. Laser beams B. Seismometers C. Measuring radon gas levels D. GPS navigation
D. GPS navigation
47
Fracking wastewater disposal may cause: A. Floods B. Volcanoes C. Earthquakes D. Hurricanes
C. Earthquakes
48
What type of energy release is measured by the Richter scale? A. Solar B. Chemical C. Seismic D. Thermal
C. Seismic
49
The "Big One" refers to: A. A volcanic eruption B. An expected major earthquake along the San Andreas Fault C. A tsunami in the Pacific D. A meteor impact
B. An expected major earthquake along the San Andreas Fault
50
Which of the following statements is true? A. Earthquakes cannot be induced by human activities B. Most earthquakes are caused by meteor impacts C. Dams can influence seismic activity D. All volcanoes are near the equator
C. Dams can influence seismic activity
51
What is geomorphology the study of? A. Oceans and currents B. Earth’s atmosphere C. Landform origin and development D. Biological evolution
C. Landform origin and development
52
Which is an example of an exogenic process? A. Earthquake B. Volcanic eruption C. Tectonic uplift D. Weathering
D. Weathering
53
Which process involves breaking down rock without moving it? A. Erosion B. Weathering C. Deposition D. Transportation
B. Weathering
54
Which of the following is a physical weathering process? A. Oxidation B. Hydrolysis C. Frost wedging D. Dissolution
C. Frost wedging
55
Salt-crystal weathering is common in which environment? A. Polar B. Arid C. Rainforest D. Mountainous
B. Arid
56
Chemical weathering includes all of the following except: A. Oxidation B. Hydration C. Frost action D. Hydrolysis
C. Frost action
57
What is karst topography caused by? A. Glacier erosion B. Wind abrasion C. Chemical weathering of limestone D. River deposition
C. Chemical weathering of limestone
58
What is a stalactite? A. A rock hanging from a cliff B. A cave wall C. A mineral formation hanging from a cave ceiling D. A sand dune
C. A mineral formation hanging from a cave ceiling
59
Which province is home to the Eramosa Karst? A. Alberta B. Quebec C. Ontario D. British Columbia
C. Ontario
60
Which term refers to downslope movement of soil or rock? A. Transport B. Denudation C. Mass movement D. Fluvial shift
C. Mass movement
61
Which type of mass movement is slow and persistent? A. Mudflow B. Rockfall C. Soil creep D. Debris avalanche
C. Soil creep
62
Which force initiates mass movement? A. Wind B. Precipitation C. Gravity D. Erosion
C. Gravity
63
Fluvial geomorphology is the study of: A. Mountains B. Deserts C. Streams and rivers D. Coral reefs
C. Streams and rivers
64
What is a drainage basin also known as? A. Delta B. Confluence C. Tributary D. Watershed
D. Watershed
65
What type of drainage pattern resembles tree branches? A. Rectangular B. Radial C. Dendritic D. Trellis
C. Dendritic
66
What process does not belong in fluvial systems? A. Erosion B. Transport C. Sublimation D. Deposition
C. Sublimation
67
What is a V-shaped valley formed by? A. Glacier erosion B. Wind deflation C. Fast-flowing river D. Earthquake faulting
C. Fast-flowing river
68
The Grand Canyon was formed primarily by: A. Tectonic uplift B. Wind erosion C. Volcanic activity D. River erosion
D. River erosion
69
Meandering rivers usually form in areas with: A. Steep slopes B. High elevation C. Low gradients and fine sediments D. Mountains
C. Low gradients and fine sediments
70
What is alluvium? A. Volcanic ash B. Wind-deposited soil C. Water-deposited sediment D. Frozen ground
C. Water-deposited sediment
71
A delta forms where a river meets: A. A glacier B. A mountain C. A standing body of water D. Another river
C. A standing body of water
72
What are estuaries known for? A. Harsh climates B. Dense forests C. High salinity D. Biodiversity and nursery habitats
D. Biodiversity and nursery habitats
73
Which of the following is the deepest part of the ocean? A. Mid-Atlantic Ridge B. Great Barrier Reef C. Mariana Trench D. Bermuda Triangle
C. Mariana Trench
74
What are yardangs formed by? A. Water deposition B. Wind abrasion C. Tectonic activity D. Glacial plucking
B. Wind abrasion
75
What process creates sand dunes? A. Erosion by rivers B. Wind deposition C. Lava flow D. Rain splash
B. Wind deposition
76
The most recent glacial period is known as: A. Holocene Epoch B. Pleistocene Epoch C. Miocene Epoch D. Jurassic Period
B. Pleistocene Epoch
77
Glaciers form when snow: A. Melts and refreezes at night B. Blows into valleys C. Recrystallizes under its own weight D. Evaporates and condenses
C. Recrystallizes under its own weight
78
What is firn? A. Frozen rock B. A type of volcanic ash C. Compacted snow transitioning to ice D. Melted glacier water
C. Compacted snow transitioning to ice
79
What defines a glacier? A. A large floating ice cube B. Icebergs in the sea C. A mass of ice that moves under its own weight D. A frozen river
C. A mass of ice that moves under its own weight
80
Alpine glaciers form in: A. Ocean basins B. Ice shelves C. Mountain ranges D. Deserts
C. Mountain ranges
81
The glaciers of Greenland and Antarctica are: A. Valley glaciers B. Ice caps C. Continental ice sheets D. Icebergs
C. Continental ice sheets
82
What is an ice shelf? A. A supermarket term B. An ice formation inside caves C. Floating ice attached to a landmass D. Ice on mountaintops
C. Floating ice attached to a landmass
83
Which of the following is NOT a type of alpine glacier? A. Piedmont B. Valley C. Cirque D. Continental
D. Continental
84
Mass balance refers to: A. The weight of a glacier B. The net gain or loss of ice in a glacier C. Glacier density D. Ice hardness
B. The net gain or loss of ice in a glacier
85
The terminus of a glacier is its: A. Peak B. Depth C. Edge or end D. Flow direction
C. Edge or end
86
A glacier in equilibrium will: A. Recede rapidly B. Remain stable C. Explode D. Turn to firn
B. Remain stable
87
The zone where accumulation equals ablation is called the: A. Snowline B. Firnline C. Equilibrium line D. Ablation zone
C. Equilibrium line
88
Crevasses are: A. Ice-covered lakes B. Vertical cracks in glacier ice C. Meltwater channels D. Glacial erratics
B. Vertical cracks in glacier ice
89
Which process picks up rock and debris as a glacier moves? A. Sliding B. Plucking C. Sublimation D. Melting
B. Plucking
90
Glacial abrasion creates: A. Dust storms B. U-shaped valleys C. Polished surfaces and striations D. Kettle lakes
C. Polished surfaces and striations
91
A glacial erratic is: A. A glacial cave B. A large boulder transported by ice C. A glacial hill D. A frozen moraine
C. A glacial hill
92
A Roche Moutonnee is formed by: A. Wind erosion B. Glacial melting C. Glacial abrasion and plucking D. Volcanic eruption
C. Glacial abrasion and plucking
93
Which of the following landforms is associated with river valleys widened by glaciers? A. V-shaped valleys B. U-shaped valleys C. Ridges D. Sinkholes
B. U-shaped valleys
94
Moraines are formed by: A. Ice melting at mountain tops B. Water erosion C. Glacial deposition D. Volcanoes
C. Glacial deposition
95
A till plain is composed of: A. Wind-deposited sands B. Volcanic ash C. Unsifted glacial debris D. Water-laid sediments
C. Unsifted glacial debris
96
Drumlins are: A. Lakes formed by ice melt B. Teardrop-shaped hills from glacial flow C. Rock fractures D. Sand dunes
B. Teardrop-shaped hills from glacial flow
97
Which Ontario feature contains over 2000 drumlins? A. Niagara Escarpment B. Peterborough Field C. Bruce Peninsula D. Oak Ridges Moraine
B. Peterborough Field
98
Outwash plains form from: A. Glacier snowfall B. Ocean currents C. Meltwater from retreating glaciers D. Ice caps melting
C. Meltwater from retreating glaciers
99
What marks the ancient shoreline of Glacial Lake Iroquois in Toronto? A. Don Valley B. Scarborough Bluffs C. Dufferin Street D. Bloor Street
B. Scarborough Bluffs
100
Glacial melting contributes to: A. Forest growth B. Increased volcanic activity C. Freshwater supply loss D. Earthquake activity
C. Freshwater supply loss
101
Periglacial landscapes are shaped by: A. Wind B. Rainfall C. Freezing and thawing processes D. Lava flows
C. Freezing and thawing processes
102
Tundra is characterized by: A. Tropical vegetation B. Sandy deserts C. Treeless plains with moss and dwarf shrubs D. Mountainous forests
C. Treeless plains with moss and dwarf shrubs
103
What is permafrost? A. Icebergs floating at sea B. Soil that thaws in summer C. Ground frozen for 2+ years D. Thick snowpack
C. Ground frozen for 2+ years
104
Which term refers to soil that thaws each summer above permafrost? A. Talik B. Bedrock C. Ice lens D. Active layer
D. Active layer
105
What is talik? A. A type of moss B. Frozen ocean layer C. Unfrozen ground within permafrost D. Volcanic sediment
C. Unfrozen ground within permafrost
106
Why is thawing permafrost a climate concern? A. It cools the planet B. It absorbs radiation C. It releases stored carbon dioxide D. It stops erosion
C. It releases stored carbon dioxide
107
What is soil? A. Groundwater B. Rock only C. Mixture of minerals, organic matter, air and water D. Just decayed plants
C. Mixture of minerals, organic matter, air and water
108
Which layer is richest in organic matter? A. A horizon B. B horizon C. C horizon D. O horizon
D. O horizon
109
The A horizon is also known as: A. Subsoil B. Regolith C. Topsoil D. Bedrock
C. Topsoil
110
Eluviation refers to: A. Organic accumulation B. Mineral breakdown C. Downward transport of material D. Upward water movement
C. Downward transport of material
111
Illuviation is: A. Loss of nutrients B. Movement of water upward C. Accumulation of materials in lower soil layers D. Erosion of the soil
C. Accumulation of materials in lower soil layers
112
What is the lowest layer in a soil profile? A. Bedrock (R) B. Topsoil (A) C. Regolith (C) D. Eluviation (E)
A. Bedrock (R)
113
Loam is a mixture of: A. Clay and gravel B. Clay, sand, and silt C. Rocks and humus D. Limestone and clay
B. Clay, sand, and silt
114
High porosity in soil means it can: A. Store heat B. Support trees C. Hold air and water D. Retain nutrients only
C. Hold air and water
115
Desertification results from: A. Overwatering B. Forest fires C. Deforestation and poor agriculture D. Glacial retreat
C. Deforestation and poor agriculture
116
Slash and burn agriculture is problematic because: A. It pollutes rivers B. It destroys homes C. It quickly depletes nutrients in soil D. It cools the land
C. It quickly depletes nutrients in soil
117
What is biochar used for? A. Crop burning B. Soil improvement C. Killing weeds D. Pest control
B. Soil improvement
118
No-till farming helps to: A. Increase yield B. Reduce weeds C. Prevent erosion and retain nutrients D. Harvest faster
C. Prevent erosion and retain nutrients
119
Crop rotation prevents: A. Soil formation B. Monoculture and degradation C. Water runoff D. Excessive tilling
B. Monoculture and degradation
120
Fallow land is: A. Used for grazing B. Flooded intentionally C. Left uncultivated to restore fertility D. Covered in asphalt
C. Left uncultivated to restore fertility
121
Which layer is the “regolith”? A. R B. A C. C D. B
C. C
122
Soil that is compacted can reduce: A. Water runoff B. Root growth and air flow C. Microbial life D. Surface erosion
B. Root growth and air flow
123
The Canadian soil classification system begins at the level of: A. Family B. Group C. Order D. Series
C. Order
124
What does aeration of soil do? A. Prevents photosynthesis B. Increases erosion C. Allows air and nutrients to penetrate D. Kills microbes
C. Allows air and nutrients to penetrate
125
Which of the following is a soil degradation threat? A. Nutrient cycling B. Organic farming C. Urbanization D. Biochar use
C. Urbanization
126
Which of the following correctly represents the hierarchical order of the Canadian System of Soil Classification from broadest to most specific? A. Series → Family → Group → Order B. Order → Group → Family → Series C. Group → Series → Order → Family D. Family → Order → Group → Series
B. Order → Group → Family → Series