LECTURE 7-10 Flashcards
(195 cards)
1
Q
What happens to air pressure as altitude increases?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same
d) It fluctuates randomly
A
b) It decreases
2
Q
Which of the following is true about warm air?
a) It is denser than cold air
b) It exerts less air pressure than cold air
c) It is heavier than cold air
d) It contains less water vapor
A
b) It exerts less air pressure than cold air
3
Q
Moist air is lighter than dry air because:
a) Water vapor is heavier than nitrogen
b) It contains more CO₂
c) Water vapor molecules have less mass than oxygen and nitrogen
d) It is colder
A
c) Water vapor molecules have less mass than oxygen and nitrogen
4
Q
Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?
a) Anemometer
b) Thermometer
c) Barometer
d) Hygrometer
A
c) Barometer
5
Q
The first barometer was invented by:
a) Galileo
b) Torricelli
c) Newton
d) Kepler
A
b) Torricelli
6
Q
Lines connecting areas of equal atmospheric pressure on a weather map are called:
a) Isotherms
b) Contours
c) Isobars
d) Gradients
A
c) Isobars
7
Q
What causes wind to blow?
a) Friction and humidity
b) Earth’s magnetic field
c) Variations in temperature and pressure
d) Ocean currents
A
c) Variations in temperature and pressure
8
Q
Which scale is commonly used to measure wind speed based on observation?
a) Kelvin Scale
b) Beaufort Scale
c) Richter Scale
d) Fujita Scale
A
b) Beaufort Scale
9
Q
Which direction does a westerly wind come from?
a) East
b) North
c) West
d) South
A
c) West
10
Q
Which of the following is NOT a force affecting wind patterns?
a) Pressure gradient
b) Gravity force
c) Coriolis force
d) Friction
A
b) Gravity force
11
Q
The Coriolis effect deflects winds to the _____ in the Northern Hemisphere.
a) Left
b) Right
c) East
d) South
A
b) Right
12
Q
The Coriolis force is strongest at:
a) The equator
b) The poles
c) The tropics
d) Sea level
A
b) The poles
13
Q
Friction force affecting wind is strongest:
a) At high altitude
b) Near the Earth’s surface
c) At the poles
d) Above the tropopause
A
b) Near the Earth’s surface
14
Q
Low pressure systems rotate ____ in the Northern Hemisphere.
a) Clockwise
b) Counterclockwise
c) Upward
d) Randomly
A
b) Counterclockwise
15
Q
Which type of wind dominates the upper atmosphere and flows parallel to isobars?
a) Geostrophic wind
b) Cyclonic wind
c) Trade wind
d) Surface wind
A
a) Geostrophic wind
16
Q
Jet streams are found in the:
a) Stratosphere
b) Tropopause
c) Troposphere
d) Mesosphere
A
b) Tropopause
17
Q
Trade winds in the Northern Hemisphere blow from the:
a) Northeast
b) Southeast
c) Northwest
d) Southwest
A
a) Northeast
18
Q
The Hadley Cell involves rising air at the equator and sinking air around:
a) 10°
b) 30° latitude
c) 60° latitude
d) The poles
A
b) 30° latitude
19
Q
The “doldrums” refer to:
a) Heavy rain zones
b) High pressure belts
c) Calm areas near the equator
d) Fast-moving winds
A
c) Calm areas near the equator
20
Q
A monsoon is defined as a:
a) Cyclone over the ocean
b) Seasonal shift in prevailing wind
c) Constant trade wind
d) Type of mountain breeze
A
b) Seasonal shift in prevailing wind
21
Q
Anabatic winds flow:
a) Downward at night
b) Uphill due to daytime heating
c) Offshore from land
d) With the Coriolis force
A
b) Uphill due to daytime heating
22
Q
Which ocean current phenomenon brings warm water and more precipitation to South America?
a) La Niña
b) El Niño
c) Gyres
d) Monsoons
A
b) El Niño
23
Q
Ocean surface currents are primarily driven by:
a) Moon phases
b) Global wind patterns
c) Earth’s gravity
d) River runoff
A
b) Global wind patterns
24
Q
Thermohaline circulation is driven by differences in:
a) Latitude and altitude
b) Pressure and density
c) Temperature and salinity
d) Solar radiation and tides
A
c) Temperature and salinity
25
A foehn wind is best described as a:
a) Coastal sea breeze
b) Cool mountain wind
c) Warm dry down-slope wind
d) Stormy gust wind
c) Warm dry down-slope wind
26
What percentage of Earth’s water is stored in the atmosphere?
a) 3%
b) 1%
c) 0.3%
d) Less than 0.03%
d) Less than 0.03%
27
What unique feature allows water to occur in all three states on Earth?
a) It is a gas by default
b) Its physical properties allow it to exist as liquid, solid, and vapor
c) It has no melting point
d) It absorbs sunlight
b) Its physical properties allow it to exist as liquid, solid, and vapor
28
Surface tension is caused by:
a) Gravity
b) Atmospheric pressure
c) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
d) Capillarity
c) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
29
Compared to other liquids, water’s surface tension is:
a) The lowest
b) Second highest (after mercury)
c) Average
d) Unpredictable
b) Second highest (after mercury)
30
Capillarity allows water to:
a) Evaporate faster
b) Increase salinity
c) Flow in narrow spaces against gravity
d) Freeze at a higher temperature
c) Flow in narrow spaces against gravity
31
The hydrologic cycle includes movement through the:
a) Atmosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Biosphere
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
32
As water freezes, what happens to its volume?
a) It contracts
b) It expands by approximately 9%
c) It remains the same
d) It doubles
b) It expands by approximately 9%
33
Latent heat is:
a) Energy gained or lost during a phase change
b) Energy used in photosynthesis
c) Direct solar radiation
d) Heat that is radiated from the core
a) Energy gained or lost during a phase change
34
What process causes evaporative cooling on your skin?
a) Latent heat of evaporation
b) Thermal conduction
c) Convection
d) Condensation
a) Latent heat of evaporation
35
Water vapor is an important greenhouse gas because:
a) It traps heat and slows radiation escape
b) It blocks sunlight
c) It causes ozone depletion
d) It condenses immediately
a) It traps heat and slows radiation escape
36
Relative humidity is defined as:
a) Absolute amount of water vapor in the air
b) Ratio of actual to maximum water vapor at a given temperature
c) Dew point divided by humidity
d) Precipitation probability
b) Ratio of actual to maximum water vapor at a given temperature
37
What is saturation in terms of relative humidity?
a) 50% RH
b) 100% RH
c) 10% RH
d) 150% RH
b) 100% RH
38
What happens at dew point temperature?
a) Air becomes saturated and condensation begins
b) Air reaches 0°C
c) Humidity becomes 0%
d) Wind stops
a) Air becomes saturated and condensation begins
39
As temperature increases, relative humidity:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays constant
d) Doubles
b) Decreases
40
Vapor pressure refers to:
a) Pressure of nitrogen in the air
b) Portion of air pressure due to water vapor
c) Pressure inside clouds
d) High pressure in the troposphere
b) Portion of air pressure due to water vapor
41
Saturation vapor pressure:
a) Is fixed
b) Increases with temperature
c) Decreases with temperature
d) Is unrelated to heat
b) Increases with temperature
42
Which region has the highest water vapor content?
a) Poles
b) Mid-latitudes
c) Mountains
d) Tropics
d) Tropics
43
Specific humidity is:
a) Always constant
b) Measured in %
c) Mass of water vapor per mass of air
d) Same as vapor pressure
c) Mass of water vapor per mass of air
44
Stability of an air parcel depends on its tendency to:
a) Rise, fall, or stay in place
b) Heat or cool rapidly
c) Spin due to the Coriolis effect
d) Absorb sunlight
a) Rise, fall, or stay in place
45
What defines a stable atmosphere?
a) Air rises rapidly
b) Cloud formation is constant
c) Air resists vertical motion
d) It’s always at saturation
c) Air resists vertical motion
46
Clouds are composed of:
a) Pure steam
b) Moisture droplets and ice crystals
c) Dry dust
d) Condensed air
b) Moisture droplets and ice crystals
47
What is fog?
a) Thin clouds above ground
b) Precipitation in the air
c) Cloud in contact with the ground
d) Vapor from water
c) Cloud in contact with the ground
48
Cloud formation begins when:
a) An air parcel reaches 100% RH and rises further
b) Rain starts falling
c) Temperature exceeds 100°C
d) Dew point increases
a) An air parcel reaches 100% RH and rises further
49
What do condensation nuclei do?
a) Prevent rainfall
b) Absorb heat
c) Provide surfaces for water vapor to condense on
d) Reflect sunlight
c) Provide surfaces for water vapor to condense on
50
Which of the following is a type of fog?
a) Thunder fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Sunset fog
d) Jet fog
b) Radiation fog
51
What is the greenhouse effect?
a) A harmful process that traps solar radiation
b) A natural process that warms Earth’s atmosphere
c) Caused by ozone depletion
d) Caused by magnetic field reversal
b) A natural process that warms Earth’s atmosphere
52
Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
a) Nitrogen
b) Argon
c) Methane
d) Helium
c) Methane
53
What does “temperature anomaly” mean?
a) A natural temperature variation
b) A difference from long-term average temperature
c) A faulty temperature reading
d) A heatwave
b) A difference from long-term average temperature
54
Which gas is used as the reference for calculating Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
a) Methane
b) Nitrous Oxide
c) Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)
d) Ozone
c) Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)
55
What is the GWP of Methane over 100 years?
a) 10
b) 28–36
c) 50–60
d) 80–100
b) 28–36
56
Which of the following has the highest GWP?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Methane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
d) Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
57
What process adds the most human CO₂ emissions globally?
a) Agriculture
b) Deforestation
c) Burning of fossil fuels
d) Cement production
c) Burning of fossil fuels
58
What is the Keeling Curve used to measure?
a) Sea level
b) Atmospheric CO₂ levels over time
c) Arctic sea ice
d) Methane concentrations
b) Atmospheric CO₂ levels over time
59
Where is the Keeling Curve data collected?
a) Antarctica
b) Toronto
c) Vancouver
d) Mauna Loa, Hawaii
d) Mauna Loa, Hawaii
60
What is paleoclimatology?
a) The study of pollution
b) The study of past climates
c) The study of marine biology
d) The study of storms
b) The study of past climates
61
What natural archive contains trapped air bubbles used to study past climate?
a) Tree rings
b) Ice cores
c) Coral reefs
d) Ocean currents
b) Ice cores
62
What happens in a cooler climate according to oxygen isotopes?
a) More light oxygen in oceans
b) More heavy oxygen in oceans
c) No change
d) Less isotopic variation
b) More heavy oxygen in oceans
63
What can be used to determine the age of organic materials up to 50,000 years old?
a) Isotope substitution
b) Radiocarbon dating
c) Dendrochronology
d) Pollen sampling
b) Radiocarbon dating
64
Which climate proxy uses growth rings in marine organisms?
a) Coral reefs
b) Ice cores
c) Pollen
d) Permafrost
a) Coral reefs
65
What are speleothems?
a) Underwater vents
b) Fossilized trees
c) Cave mineral formations like stalactites
d) Ice shelves
c) Cave mineral formations like stalactites
66
What is the main cause of rising global sea levels?
a) Earthquakes
b) Thermal expansion and glacial melt
c) Rainfall
d) Groundwater use
b) Thermal expansion and glacial melt
67
What are “ghost forests”?
a) Abandoned orchards
b) Dead trees from saltwater intrusion
c) Trees affected by frost
d) Trees killed by forest fires
b) Dead trees from saltwater intrusion
68
Why does ocean acidification occur?
a) Plastic pollution
b) Eutrophication
c) CO₂ dissolving into seawater
d) Underwater volcanoes
c) CO₂ dissolving into seawater
69
What is a major concern with permafrost thawing?
a) Release of CO₂ and methane
b) Loss of vegetation
c) Sea salt intrusion
d) Decrease in soil fertility
a) Release of CO₂ and methane
70
Which region is warming the fastest due to climate change?
a) Equator
b) Amazon
c) Arctic
d) Sahara
c) Arctic
71
The jet stream is a:
a) Type of aircraft engine
b) High-altitude wind current
c) Ground-level wind pattern
d) Ocean wave pattern
b) High-altitude wind current
72
Why does a kinked jet stream matter?
a) It causes earthquakes
b) It brings extreme cold or heat to unexpected places
c) It causes tides
d) It accelerates CO₂ emissions
b) It brings extreme cold or heat to unexpected places
73
What is the polar vortex?
a) A spinning hurricane
b) A seasonal sea current
c) A pool of cold air near the poles
d) A type of tornado
c) A pool of cold air near the poles
74
Which of the following is a response to climate change?
a) Deforestation
b) Mitigation and adaptation
c) Oil drilling
d) Coral bleaching
b) Mitigation and adaptation
75
Which of the following is NOT a known impact of climate change?
a) Melting glaciers
b) Decrease in solar output
c) More frequent extreme weather events
d) Sea level rise
b) Decrease in solar output
76
Which 1992 treaty laid the groundwork for international climate change action?
a) Paris Agreement
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
d) Montreal Protocol
c) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
77
How often does the Conference of Parties (COP) meet?
a) Monthly
b) Every 5 years
c) Annually
d) Only during crises
c) Annually
78
What year was the Kyoto Protocol adopted?
a) 2001
b) 1997
c) 2015
d) 1990
b) 1997
79
Which country did NOT sign the Kyoto Protocol?
a) Canada
b) United States
c) Germany
d) France
b) United States
80
The Kyoto Protocol’s first commitment period aimed to reduce emissions by:
a) 5% below 1990 levels
b) 10% below 2000 levels
c) 15% above 1985 levels
d) 20% below 2010 levels
a) 5% below 1990 levels
81
The second commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol ran from:
a) 2001–2008
b) 1990–2000
c) 2013–2020
d) 2016–2022
c) 2013–2020
82
What is a major flaw noted in the Kyoto Protocol?
a) No countries signed
b) Binding targets only for developed countries
c) It banned renewable energy
d) It overestimated forest carbon sinks
b) Binding targets only for developed countries
83
What was the major success of the 2015 Paris Agreement?
a) Banning fossil fuels globally
b) Universal and legally binding global climate deal
c) Setting fixed carbon taxes
d) Eliminating greenhouse gases by 2020
b) Universal and legally binding global climate deal
84
The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming to:
a) 1°C
b) Well below 2°C
c) 3.5°C
d) 5°C
b) Well below 2°C
85
Which statement about the Paris Agreement is TRUE?
a) Some elements are binding, some are not
b) All countries must follow the same emissions target
c) It replaced the UNFCCC
d) It bans solar and wind power
a) Some elements are binding, some are not
86
Which organization leads local climate action campaigns globally?
a) Greenpeace
b) ICLEI (International Council for Local Environmental Initiatives)
c) World Bank
d) G7
b) ICLEI (International Council for Local Environmental Initiatives)
87
What is the focus of the “Cities for Climate Protection” (CCP) Campaign?
a) Ban all cars in cities
b) Build sea walls
c) Reduce urban GHG emissions and improve livability
d) Encourage suburban growth
c) Reduce urban GHG emissions and improve livability
88
What are the two main approaches to mitigation strategies?
a) Plant trees and stop farming
b) Reduce emissions and enhance carbon sinks
c) Capture sunlight and bury CO₂
d) Relocate populations and fund mining
b) Reduce emissions and enhance carbon sinks
89
The 1987 Montreal Protocol was designed to:
a) Reduce deforestation
b) Limit methane emissions
c) Phase out ozone-depleting substances
d) Monitor global carbon markets
c) Phase out ozone-depleting substances
90
The Montreal Protocol is notable because it is:
a) Optional
b) Universally ratified
c) Only for Europe
d) No longer in use
b) Universally ratified
91
Which gas is NOT linked to ozone depletion but still contributes to warming?
a) CFC-12
b) HFC-134a
c) Halon
d) N₂O
b) HFC-134a
92
Methane emissions from agriculture are mainly from:
a) Rice paddies
b) Livestock (e.g., cattle)
c) Tractors
d) Corn fields
b) Livestock (e.g., cattle)
93
What is one method of reducing methane emissions from cattle?
a) Feed them more
b) Limit grazing
c) Give them medication to reduce gas
d) Keep them indoors
c) Give them medication to reduce gas
94
Methane from landfills can be collected using:
a) Incinerators
b) Composting towers
c) Landfill gas-to-electricity (LFGTE) systems
d) Methane shields
c) Landfill gas-to-electricity (LFGTE) systems
95
In landfill gas, roughly what proportion is methane?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 90%
c) 50%
96
The Beare Road Landfill was repurposed into a:
a) Shopping mall
b) Housing complex
c) Park
d) Airport
c) Park
97
Nitrous oxide from agriculture is mostly released from:
a) Animal manure
b) Soil bacteria using nitrogen fertilizers
c) Irrigation water
d) Burning crops
b) Soil bacteria using nitrogen fertilizers
98
One mitigation technique for reducing nitrous oxide emissions is:
a) Reducing fertilizer and monitoring soil fertility
b) Increasing pesticide use
c) Removing topsoil
d) Growing more corn
a) Reducing fertilizer and monitoring soil fertility
99
Ontario’s cap and trade system began in:
a) 2015
b) 2017
c) 2012
d) 2019
b) 2017
100
In a cap and trade system, emissions allowances:
a) Can be bought, sold, and traded
b) Must be earned through forest planting
c) Are optional for large emitters
d) Are only for oil companies
a) Can be bought, sold, and traded
101
Which is NOT a green energy technology?
a) Solar power
b) Wind turbines
c) Diesel engines
d) Hybrid vehicles
c) Diesel engines
102
What is one personal action to reduce your carbon footprint?
a) Buy more plastic
b) Eat less meat
c) Use bottled water
d) Travel by private jet
b) Eat less meat
103
Forests help fight climate change by acting as:
a) Biodiversity zones
b) Carbon sinks
c) Flood barriers
d) Urban filters
b) Carbon sinks
104
What is the main concept behind “urban forests”?
a) Parks only for wildlife
b) Rooftop greenhouses
c) Planting and preserving trees in cities
d) Forests with shopping malls
c) Planting and preserving trees in cities
105
Adaptation strategies are designed to:
a) Stop all emissions immediately
b) Enforce global laws
c) Help communities cope with climate impacts
d) Replace all vehicles
c) Help communities cope with climate impacts
106
What is the key difference between weather and climate?
a) Weather is based on wind; climate is based on rain
b) Weather is always warmer
c) Weather is short-term; climate is long-term
d) Climate occurs only near the equator
c) Weather is short-term; climate is long-term
107
Which of the following is NOT a major element of weather and climate?
a) Humidity
b) Soil pH
c) Wind
d) Air pressure
b) Soil pH
108
What is a climatic region?
a) A zone where earthquakes are common
b) A type of weather forecast
c) An area with similar local climate characteristics
d) A political boundary for climate policy
c) An area with similar local climate characteristics
109
What do transition zones represent in climate maps?
a) Plate tectonic boundaries
b) Areas between two climate regions
c) Fault lines
d) Evaporation bands
b) Areas between two climate regions
110
An empirical classification of climate is based on:
a) Measured data
b) Satellite images
c) Expert opinion only
d) Color-coded maps
a) Measured data
111
A genetic climate classification is based on:
a) Genetic modification of plants
b) Causal climatic factors
c) Precipitation alone
d) Wind speed
b) Causal climatic factors
112
The Köppen Climate Classification was developed by:
a) Copernicus
b) Keeling
c) Wladimir Köppen
d) Svante Arrhenius
c) Wladimir Köppen
113
The Köppen system includes how many major climate groups?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
c) 5
114
Which of the following is a Köppen climate group?
a) X (Equatorial)
b) B (Dry)
c) G (Grassland)
d) Q (Quarternary)
b) B (Dry)
115
Which Köppen category refers to polar climates?
a) D
b) C
c) E
d) F
c) E
116
In Köppen classification, "Af" represents:
a) Arid fall
b) Tropical rainforest
c) Alpine forest
d) Frozen tundra
b) Tropical rainforest
117
Which code refers to a dry steppe climate in Köppen?
a) Bw
b) Bs
c) Cf
d) Ef
b) Bs
118
Which basic climate category is associated with year-round moisture deficit?
a) Polar
b) Dry
c) Highland
d) Tropical
b) Dry
119
Which climate category includes mid-latitude zones with mild winters?
a) Microthermal
b) Mesothermal
c) Polar
d) Equatorial
b) Mesothermal
120
The "Microthermal" climate includes:
a) The Arctic
b) Cold winters and mid/high latitudes
c) Deserts
d) Coastal fog
b) Cold winters and mid/high latitudes
121
Tropical climates are typically:
a) Dry and cold
b) Hot and wet with no winter
c) Temperate
d) Dry and snowy
b) Hot and wet with no winter
122
Highland climates are primarily influenced by:
a) Elevation
b) Ocean currents
c) Latitude
d) Soil type
a) Elevation
123
What subcategory is found in Canada’s polar region?
a) Marine west coast
b) Tundra
c) Semiarid
d) Monsoon
b) Tundra
124
What limits plant growth in tundra climates?
a) Wind
b) Soil salinity
c) Cold temperatures and short growing season
d) Lack of sunlight
c) Cold temperatures and short growing season
125
Subarctic climates are part of which basic category?
a) Polar
b) Tropical
c) Microthermal
d) Mesothermal
c) Microthermal
126
What types of trees dominate subarctic (boreal) forests?
a) Fir, spruce, larch, birch
b) Palm, acacia, bamboo
c) Maple, oak, cedar
d) Juniper, pine, poplar
a) Fir, spruce, larch, birch
127
Which climate zone is Toronto located in?
a) Tundra
b) Humid continental
c) Marine west coast
d) Subarctic
b) Humid continental
128
Marine West Coast climates are known for:
a) Freezing winters
b) Mild, wet conditions and fog
c) Hot, dry summers
d) Arid grasslands
b) Mild, wet conditions and fog
129
The steppe climate is too dry for forests but too moist to be a:
a) Jungle
b) Wetland
c) Desert
d) Glacier
c) Desert
130
Which factor allows steppe soils to stay moist despite low rainfall?
a) Underground springs
b) Permafrost
c) Low potential evapotranspiration
d) High humidity
c) Low potential evapotranspiration
131
The term “humid continental” implies:
a) Year-round drought
b) Precipitation throughout the year
c) Monsoon dominance
d) No snowfall
b) Precipitation throughout the year
132
Which city has a more “typical” humid continental climate than Toronto?
a) Ottawa
b) Vancouver
c) Calgary
d) Montreal
a) Ottawa
133
Which climate zone is associated with glacial features and periglacial landscapes?
a) Highland
b) Semiarid
c) Mesothermal
d) Marine
a) Highland
134
What is a climate model?
a) A fashion template
b) A simulation of atmospheric behavior
c) A weather map
d) A desert forecast
b) A simulation of atmospheric behavior
135
Climate models are used to:
a) Predict future climate scenarios
b) Explain tectonic shifts
c) Measure rainfall directly
d) Forecast next-day weather
a) Predict future climate scenarios
136
What is the main difference between weather and climate?
A) Climate refers to short-term changes
B) Weather is short-term; climate is long-term
C) Weather is predictable, climate is not
D) They are the same
B) Weather is short-term; climate is long-term
137
What percentage of the atmosphere does an air mass usually affect?
A) Upper atmosphere only
B) Entire troposphere
C) Lower half of the atmosphere
D) Surface level only
C) Lower half of the atmosphere
138
Which symbol represents a continental, dry air mass?
A) m
B) c
C) A
D) T
B) c
139
The "T" in air mass classification stands for:
A) Tundra
B) Temperate
C) Tropical
D) Transitional
C) Tropical
140
What is specific humidity?
A) Mass of water vapor per kg of air
B) Air pressure in a parcel
C) Dew point
D) Precipitation amount
A) Mass of water vapor per kg of air
141
In winter, which air mass is dominant over central North America?
A) mT
B) cP
C) E
D) AA
B) cP
142
Stability in an air parcel means:
A) It rises rapidly
B) It returns to its original position
C) It forms clouds
D) It precipitates
B) It returns to its original position
143
What is adiabatic cooling?
A) Heat lost to surroundings
B) Increase in temperature with height
C) Cooling due to expansion without heat exchange
D) Radiation-based cooling
C) Cooling due to expansion without heat exchange
144
What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate?
A) 5°C per 1 km
B) 10°C per 1 km
C) 2°C per 1 km
D) 15°C per 1 km
B) 10°C per 1 km
145
Orographic lifting occurs when:
A) Air is forced over a mountain
B) Warm air displaces cold air
C) Winds converge at the equator
D) Air descends over plains
A) Air is forced over a mountain
146
Which slope receives more precipitation during orographic lifting?
A) Windward slope
B) Leeward slope
C) East-facing slope
D) Valley bottom
A) Windward slope
147
The intertropical convergence zone is characterized by:
A) Cool air masses
B) Converging trade winds and heavy rainfall
C) High pressure
D) Cold fronts
B) Converging trade winds and heavy rainfall
148
A cold front typically results in:
A) Calm weather
B) Gentle precipitation
C) Thunderstorms and heavy rain
D) Fog formation
C) Thunderstorms and heavy rain
149
A squall line forms:
A) Behind a warm front
B) Along or ahead of a fast-moving cold front
C) Over oceans
D) Near mountains
B) Along or ahead of a fast-moving cold front
150
What defines a tornado?
A) Rotating column of air touching ground
B) Circular storm at sea
C) High-speed winds only
D) A mini hurricane
A) Rotating column of air touching ground
151
What scale is used to measure tornado intensity?
A) Richter Scale
B) Enhanced Fujita Scale
C) Beaufort Scale
D) Saffir-Simpson Scale
B) Enhanced Fujita Scale
152
What is required for thunderstorm formation?
A) Rapid upward movement of warm moist air
B) Cold dry air descending
C) Low cloud base
D) High solar radiation
A) Rapid upward movement of warm moist air
153
Hurricanes are classified using the:
A) Fujita Scale
B) Saffir-Simpson Scale
C) Richter Scale
D) Kelvin Scale
B) Saffir-Simpson Scale
154
Rain shadow effect is found on:
A) Windward side of a mountain
B) Leeward side of a mountain
C) Both sides
D) Plains
B) Leeward side of a mountain
155
Maritime tropical air masses are:
A) Cold and dry
B) Warm and moist
C) Cold and moist
D) Warm and dry
B) Warm and moist
156
Instability in an air parcel causes:
A) It to remain at rest
B) High pressure
C) Vertical movement
D) Increased humidity
C) Vertical movement
157
The zone between two air masses is called a:
A) Shadow
B) Front
C) Boundary layer
D) Jet stream
B) Front
158
Which front creates gradual precipitation over a large area?
A) Warm front
B) Cold front
C) Occluded front
D) Squall line
A) Warm front
159
Tornadoes typically form:
A) Over oceans
B) From squall lines or strong cold fronts
C) At the poles
D) At the equator
B) From squall lines or strong cold fronts
160
What is the result of adiabatic heating?
A) Air cools
B) Cloud formation
C) Temperature increases due to compression
D) Wind direction changes
C) Temperature increases due to compression
161
Thunderstorms are associated with:
A) Cumulus clouds
B) Cumulonimbus clouds
C) Stratus clouds
D) Cirrus clouds
B) Cumulonimbus clouds
162
Maritime air masses are:
A) Moist
B) Dry
C) Cold
D) Unstable
A) Moist
163
What happens when air reaches its dew point?
A) It warms
B) Condensation begins
C) Freezing occurs
D) Evaporation increases
B) Condensation begins
164
Inversion layers typically form:
A) In a squall line
B) When warm air overrides cool air
C) During hurricanes
D) On mountaintops
B) When warm air overrides cool air
165
What defines violent weather?
A) Low winds and rain
B) Storms like thunderstorms, tornadoes, hurricanes
C) Calm fronts
D) Gentle breeze and drizzle
B) Storms like thunderstorms, tornadoes, hurricanes
166
What percentage of Earth's water is freshwater?
A) 10%
B) 2.5%
C) 5%
D) 20%
B) 2.5%
167
Where is most of the freshwater stored?
A) Rivers
B) Lakes
C) Glaciers and ice caps
D) Underground tanks
C) Glaciers and ice caps
168
What is meant by water "availability"?
A) Amount of salt water present
B) Freshwater relative to population and usage
C) Presence of clouds
D) Daily rainfall
B) Freshwater relative to population and usage
169
Water-stressed regions are defined as those with:
A) Abundant rainfall
B) High demand and low supply
C) Low population
D) Access to oceans
B) High demand and low supply
170
Which ecosystem is NOT part of fluvial systems?
A) Lakes
B) Streams
C) Deserts
D) Wetlands
C) Deserts
171
The Great Lakes hold what portion of Earth's surface freshwater?
A) 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 75%
B) 20%
172
What is an aquifer?
A) A type of cloud
B) A water-bearing underground layer
C) A wetland
D) A glacier
B) A water-bearing underground layer
173
What is the “water table”?
A) Water pH measurement
B) Upper surface of groundwater saturation
C) Rain gauge location
D) Topsoil moisture level
B) Upper surface of groundwater saturation
174
“Prairie potholes” are important because they:
A) Are tourist spots
B) Store oil
C) Serve as nesting sites for waterfowl
D) Filter pollutants
C) Serve as nesting sites for waterfowl
175
The Holland Marsh is famous for:
A) Tourism
B) Rich agricultural soil
C) Mining
D) Glacial history
B) Rich agricultural soil
176
The Ramsar Convention focuses on:
A) Urban pollution
B) Wetland conservation
C) Climate policy
D) Groundwater drilling
B) Wetland conservation
177
Consumptive water use means:
A) Water is returned to source
B) Water is permanently removed
C) Used for recreation only
D) Flow is not altered
B) Water is permanently removed
178
The biggest sector for global water withdrawal is:
A) Mining
B) Agriculture
C) Households
D) Transportation
B) Agriculture
179
Which river provides water for nearly 30 million people?
A) Mississippi
B) Amazon
C) Colorado
D) Fraser
C) Colorado
180
One major benefit of dams is:
A) Habitat fragmentation
B) Flood control
C) River drying
D) Species loss
B) Flood control
181
A major cost of dams is:
A) Increased fish populations
B) Disruption of flooding cycles
C) More recreational lakes
D) Emissions reduction
B) Disruption of flooding cycles
182
The Walkerton tragedy was due to:
A) Drought
B) Contaminated municipal water
C) Overuse of aquifers
D) River diversion
B) Contaminated municipal water
183
Phytoremediation involves:
A) Artificial filtering
B) Using plants to clean water
C) Boiling water
D) Adding salt to remove bacteria
B) Using plants to clean water
184
Desalination is:
A) Cloud seeding
B) Removing salt from seawater
C) Using more salt for purification
D) Cleaning lakes
B) Removing salt from seawater
185
A key drawback of desalination is:
A) It produces acid rain
B) High cost
C) Reduces biodiversity
D) Causes earthquakes
B) High cost
186
Which Canadian act limits bulk water exports?
A) Water Use Act
B) Ontario Watershed Law
C) Bill C-383
D) The Great Lakes Accord
C) Bill C-383
187
Artificial wetlands help by:
A) Growing crops
B) Removing ozone
C) Purifying water
D) Generating power
C) Purifying water
188
Which lake supplies drinking water to 6.3 million Ontarians?
A) Huron
B) Erie
C) Ontario
D) Superior
C) Ontario
189
The Great Lakes Water Quality Agreement is between:
A) US and Mexico
B) Canada and US
C) Canada and UK
D) Mexico and US
B) Canada and US
190
What type of pollution results from fertilizer use?
A) Thermal
B) Nutrient
C) Oil-based
D) Airborne
B) Nutrient
191
Which source is NOT a point source of water pollution?
A) Industrial pipe
B) Agricultural runoff
C) Factory discharge
D) Wastewater outlet
B) Agricultural runoff
192
Thermal pollution occurs when:
A) Sewage is dumped
B) Warm water is released into rivers
C) Chemicals enter groundwater
D) Glaciers melt
B) Warm water is released into rivers
193
The Three Gorges Dam has caused:
A) More fish migration
B) Landslides
C) Drought
D) Increased rainfall
B) Landslides
194
Which country uses the most desalinated water?
A) Canada
B) Russia
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Brazil
C) Saudi Arabia
195
By 2050, how much of the global population will live in water-scarce areas?
A) 25%
B) 33%
C) Nearly 50%
D) 10%
C) Nearly 50%
