Lecture 11 Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

what are the different types of respiratory
diseases.

A
  • respiratory infections
  • vascular disease of lungs
  • obstructive diseases of lungs
  • restrictive diseases of lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is URTI?

A

URTI (upper respiratory tract infection).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the usual cause of URTI?

A

URTI is usually caused by viral infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main symptoms associated with URTI?

A

URTI causes acute inflammation of the upper airways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What increases the predisposition to URTI?

A

A decrease in defense capacity can predispose someone to URTI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the typical resolution of URTI?

A

URTI often resolves spontaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is another name for streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Strep throat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does streptococcal pharyngitis typically affect?

A

It affects the back of the throat and tonsils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

It is caused by type A streptococcus bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are common symptoms of streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Symptoms include fever, sore throat, red tonsils, enlarged lymph nodes, headache, nausea, and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a potential complication of streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does acute glomerulonephritis occur as a complication of strep throat?

A

Ag-Ab complexes get trapped in the glomerular basement membrane, reducing glomerular flow and causing basement membrane damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does acute glomerulonephritis usually resolve on its own?

A

Yes, it usually resolves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When does rheumatic fever typically occur?

A

It usually occurs about 2 weeks after an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What causes the immune reaction in rheumatic fever?

A

Antibodies cross-react with antigens in the connective tissue of the heart and joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is pancarditis?

A

Pancarditis is inflammation of all layers of the heart and is a complication of rheumatic fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are common symptoms of rheumatic fever?

A

Symptoms include arthritis and joint inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does rheumatic fever affect the heart valves?

A

Rheumatic fever can cause vegetations on heart valves, leading to rheumatic heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What part of the respiratory tract does pneumonia affect?

A

The lower respiratory tract, specifically the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two main types of pneumonia?

A

Bronchopneumonia and lobar pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which populations are more susceptible to bronchopneumonia?

A

The elderly, very young, and debilitated individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In which group is lobar pneumonia more common?

A

Otherwise healthy adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What distinguishes bronchopneumonia from lobar pneumonia?

A

Bronchopneumonia mainly involves bronchi and bronchioles, while lobar pneumonia affects an entire lobe of the lung.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is typically found in the lungs in cases of pneumonia?

A

Inflammatory exudate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is pneumonia typically resolved?
With antibiotics and physiotherapy
26
What happens during the congestion phase of lobar pneumonia?
Protein-rich exudate enters alveoli, causing venous congestion. (0-24 hours)
27
What characterizes the red hepatization stage of lobar pneumonia?
Inflammatory and immune cells enter alveoli, RBCs exit capillaries, and exudate becomes fibrous, making the lung resemble liver tissue. (1-4 days)
28
What occurs during the grey hepatization phase in lobar pneumonia?
White blood cells (WBCs) and red blood cells (RBCs) die, and fibrin increases, resulting in a solid grey-brown appearance. (4-7 days)
29
Describe the resolution phase of lobar pneumonia.
Exudate is reabsorbed, inflammatory debris is digested, and alveolar structure is preserved. (8-10 days)
30
What histological features are observed in the congestion stage of lobar pneumonia?
Alveolar spaces are filled with protein-rich exudate and red blood cells, leading to venous congestion.
31
What characterizes the red hepatization stage in lobar pneumonia histology?
Alveoli are filled with fibrinous exudate, red blood cells, and inflammatory cells, giving the lung a liver-like (hepatized) appearance.
32
Describe the grey hepatization stage as seen in lobar pneumonia histology.
White blood cells (mainly neutrophils) and red blood cells die off, with increased fibrin deposition, creating a solid grey-brown appearance in the alveoli.
33
What changes occur during the resolution stage of lobar pneumonia in histology?
Exudate is gradually reabsorbed, debris is cleared by macrophages, and alveolar architecture begins to return to normal.
34
How does the appearance of liver tissue compare to the red hepatization stage in lobar pneumonia?
The liver tissue has a similar dense, uniform appearance to red hepatization in the lung, as both are rich in cellular components and show a similar texture on histology.
35
What happens during the exposure stage of tuberculosis?
Bacilli are inhaled and reach the alveoli; macrophages attempt to contain the bacilli, but they may survive and start replicating if the immune response is weak.
36
What characterises the progressive stage of tuberculosis?
The bacilli form granulomas and caseous lesions; immune cells release enzymes, causing tissue necrosis, leading to cough, fever, and possible hemoptysis.
37
Describe the latent stage of tuberculosis.
The bacilli are contained within granulomas, where they can remain dormant; there are no symptoms, and the individual is not infectious.
38
What occurs during the reactivation stage of tuberculosis?
The bacilli may reactivate if immunity weakens, leading to a breakdown of granulomas, tissue destruction, and the individual becomes infectious again, with symptoms like cough and weight loss.
39
What are the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis in the exposure stage?
Mostly asymptomatic, but may include slight fever, malaise, and respiratory symptoms in some cases.
40
What are the clinical symptoms in the progressive stage of tuberculosis?
Symptoms include persistent cough, fever, night sweats, weight loss, and in some cases, hemoptysis (coughing up blood).
41
What symptoms are seen in the latent stage of tuberculosis?
There are no symptoms during the latent stage, as the bacilli are contained.
42
What are the symptoms associated with the reactivation stage of tuberculosis?
Reactivation leads to active tuberculosis symptoms, including persistent cough, chest pain, fever, night sweats, and weight loss.
43
example of vascular disease of lungs?
pulmonary embolism
44
What is the most common type of pulmonary embolism?
Thromboembolism.
45
What can multiple or repeated emboli lead to in the pulmonary system?
Pulmonary hypertension, increased right heart workload, and potentially right heart failure.
46
List some symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.
Dyspnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, deep vein thrombosis, and sudden death.
47
What is a saddle embolus and why is it dangerous?
It is an embolus at the bifurcation of the left and right pulmonary arteries, which can lead to sudden death.
48
What changes are seen in embolism infarction in the lung?
Necrosis of alveolar walls, presence of red blood cells in alveolar lumen, recent thrombus in venous lumen, and hemosiderin-laden macrophages.
49
what is an example of obstructive diseases of lungs?
* asthma * chronic bronchitis * emphysema
50
What is asthma?
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways leading to airflow reduction.
51
What mechanisms contribute to airflow reduction in asthma?
Bronchospasm, oedema, and aggravation of airways.
52
What is atopic (allergic) asthma?
It is a type I hypersensitivity response often associated with a history of allergies and can remit with age.
53
What is occupational asthma?
Asthma that may include type III hypersensitivity response due to inhalation of irritants like formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde, or powder inside latex gloves.
54
What are common triggers for asthma?
Allergens such as pollen or mould, irritants like chemicals and pollutants, and viral infections.
55
What pathology is common to all types of asthma?
Mucosal oedema, increased mucous production, and bronchial smooth muscle hypersensitivity and bronchospasm.
56
What are the characteristics of acute asthma?
Acute asthma is characterized by bronchial inflammation, mucus plugging of bronchi, bronchial obstruction, and epithelial shedding and regeneration.
57
Which cells are involved in acute asthma's bronchial inflammation?
Eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells.
58
What are the characteristics of chronic asthma?
Chronic asthma includes mucus gland hypertrophy, mucus-associated lymph tissue, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
59
What changes can be observed in the pathology of asthma?
In asthma pathology, there is hypertrophy of smooth muscle and thickening of the airway walls, leading to obstruction.
60
What are the management strategies for asthma?
Management includes environmental control, use of bronchodilators, and corticosteroids.
61
What are potential risks of long-term or high-dose corticosteroid use in asthma management?
Risks include decreased calcium absorption, decreased bone growth in children, reduced wound healing, decreased collagen formation, and lowered infection resistance.
62
What defines chronic bronchitis symptomatically?
Chronic bronchitis is defined by a cough of 3 months duration, occurring twice in the preceding 2 years, with other causes excluded.
63
What is chronic bronchitis characterised by?
Persistent bronchial mucosa hypersecretion, chronic inflammation of bronchial mucosa, leading to scarring, fibrosis, thickening, and decreased mucociliary function.
64
What are the main causes of chronic bronchitis?
Environmental conditions, pollutants, and cigarettes.
65
How does chronic bronchitis appear histologically?
Chronic bronchitis shows inflammation and thickening of the bronchial mucosa compared to normal bronchi.
66
What are the primary manifestations of chronic bronchitis?
Persistent cough (especially in the mornings), dyspnea, frequent respiratory infections, copious sputum, chronic hypoxemia, and secondary polycythemia.
67
What are common management options for chronic bronchitis?
Bronchodilators, cough suppressants, corticosteroids, oxygen therapy, antibiotics, and chest physiotherapy.
68
What does the term "Blue Bloater" refer to in chronic bronchitis?
It describes patients with normal to decreased lung capacity, increased residual volume with air-trapping, edema due to right heart failure, and cyanosis of the skin.
69
What are the long-term effects of chronic bronchitis on the respiratory and cardiovascular systems?
Air-trapping with crackling sounds, right heart failure leading to edema, and chronic hypoxemia resulting in cyanosis.
70
What characterizes emphysema?
Irreversible destruction of terminal airspaces (without fibrosis), loss of elastin and collagen, alveolar enlargement, air trapping, and reduced surface area of the respiratory membrane.
71
What is the "Pink Puffer" phenotype in emphysema?
It includes increased residual lung capacity and volume, decreased elastic recoil, and decreased expiratory flow rate and diffusing capacity.
72
What is centriacinar emphysema?
A form of emphysema primarily resulting from inhaled tobacco toxins affecting the respiratory bronchioles.
73
What is panacinar emphysema, and what condition is it commonly associated with?
It is a type of emphysema often associated with Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, affecting the entire acinus.
74
What management approaches are used in emphysema with overlap with chronic bronchitis?
Breathing techniques, graded aerobic exercise, and oxygen therapy in palliative care.
75
Why might oxygen therapy be used in the management of emphysema?
Oxygen therapy is often used in palliative care for patients with advanced emphysema to improve comfort.
76
example of restrictive diseases of lungs?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
77
What is Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?
ARDS is an acute interstitial lung disease resulting in respiratory failure, often caused by lung contusion, pneumonia, toxic gas inhalation, gastric contents aspiration, or oxygen toxicity.
78
What initiates the inflammatory response in ARDS?
Damage to the alveolar membrane leads to an inflammatory response in ARDS.
79
What are the four phases of ARDS as shown in the progression image?
Healthy, Exudative Phase, Proliferative Phase, and Fibrotic Phase.
80
What are the primary clinical manifestations of ARDS?
Hypoxaemia, hypercapnia, dyspnoea, and cyanosis.
81
What are the primary goals of ARDS management?
Supportive care, including inotropic therapy to improve cardiac output and antibiotics to prevent or treat infection.
82
What severe outcome can result from ARDS?
Multisystem organ failure may develop, reducing the chances of recovery.