Lecture 12: Normal Labor and Delivery Flashcards

1
Q

On obstetric exam what is fetal lie?

A
  • Reference is maternal spine to fetus spine
  • Determines if infant is longitudinal, transverse, or oblique
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2
Q

On obstetric exam what is fetal presentation?

A
  • Presenting part of the pelvis
  • Vertex, breech, transverse, or compound (vertex w/ hand)
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3
Q

Which maneuvers are used to determine the fetal lie?

A

Leopold Maneuvers

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4
Q

On obstetric exam what are the 5 parts of the cervical exam?

A
  • Dilation checked at level of internal os
  • Effacement: thinning of the cervix
  • Station: degree of descent of presenting part of fetus
  • Position and Consistency used to calculate Bishop score
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5
Q

When the bony portion of the fetal head reaches what level is it considered “zero” station?

A

Level of the ischial spines

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6
Q

What are the 4 stages of labor?

A
  • First = onset of true labor to complete cervical dilation (latent and active)
  • Second = complete cervical dilation to delivery
  • Third = delivery of infant to delivery of placenta
  • Fourth = delivery of placenta to stabilization of patient
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7
Q

What is the latent vs. active phase of the first stage of labor?

A
  • Latent (early labor): period between onset of labor and is characterized by slow cervical dilation
  • Active: faster rate of dilation and usually begins when cervix is dilated to 4cm; admit for labor at this stage in term gestations
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8
Q

What is normal rate of cervical dilation (cm/hr) in primiparas and multiparas?

A
  • Primiparas = 1.2 cm per hr
  • Multiparas = 1.5 cm per hr
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9
Q

How is maternal position managed during first stage of labor and can they ambulate?

A
  • Patient may ambulate if: head is engaged and reassuring monitoring is noted
  • If lying in bed, encouraged left lateral recumbent position
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10
Q

Which labs taken during first stage of labor and how often do you monitor vitals?

A
  • Labs = CBC and type and screen
  • Maternal monitoring = obtain vitals q 1-2 hours while in labor
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11
Q

How often should fetus be monitored externally if pregnancy is uncomplicated vs. complicated in the active phase of first stage and in second stage?

A
  • Uncomplicated = q30 minutes (active phase) and q15 (second stage)
  • Complicated = q15 minutes (active phase) and q5 minutes (second stage)
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12
Q

How is uterine activity monitored during first stage?

A
  • External tocodyamometer
  • Internal pressure catheter (IUPC) allows to assess the strength of contractions and is helpful w/ oxytocin augmentation
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13
Q

How often during active stage of first phase of labor do you do a vaginal/cervical exam and what is recorded?

A
  • Perform cervical check q 2 hrs
  • Record dilation, effacement, station
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14
Q

What are the benefit vs. risks of performing an amniotomy (AROM) during first stage of labor?

A
  • Benefits: augment labor, allows assessment of meconium status
  • Risks: cord prolapse, prolonged ruptured is assoc. w/ chorioamnionitis
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15
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor in order (mnemonic)?

A
  • Engagement: presenting part at “zero” station
  • Descent
  • Flexion: baby’s chin to chest
  • Internal Rotation: fetal head rotates so OA or OP
  • Extension: station is +5; head born by rapid extension
  • ER: head returns to original position in alignment w/ back and shoulders
  • Expulsion: anterior shoulder delivers, followed by posterior
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16
Q

Which maternal position should be avoided during second stage of labor and what is the most common position to have mother in?

A
  • Avoid the supine position
  • Dorsal lithotomy position is most common
17
Q

Once the fetal head is delivered during second stage what can be done to clear the airway of blood and amniotic fluid?

A

Can bulb suction oral cavity 1st and then nares

18
Q

What are 2 indications for performing an episiotomy; what is the most common type?

A
  • Likelihood of spontaneous laceration seems high
  • To expedite delivery by enlarging the vaginal outlet (if baby is too big)
  • Midline episiotomy is most common
19
Q

What is a 1st vs. 2nd vs. 3rd vs. 4th degree perineal laceration?

A
  • 1st: superficial laceration involving vaginal mucosa and/or perineal skin
  • 2nd: laceration extending into muscles of the perineal body but does not involve anal sphincter
  • 3rd: laceration extends into or completely through the anal sphincter but not into the rectal mucosa
  • 4th: involves the rectal mucosa
20
Q

Retained placenta is diagnosed during the 3rd stage if placenta has not delivered within how long?

A

30 minutes

21
Q

What are 4 classic signs of placental separation which indicate that you should begin to apply pressure on the cord?

A
  • Gush of blood from vagina
  • Lengthening of the umbilical cord
  • Fundus of uterus rises up
  • A change in shape of the uterine fundus from discoid –> globular
22
Q

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage during the fourth stage?

A

Uterine atony

23
Q

What is induction of labor vs. augmentation of labor?

A
  • Induction is the process by which labor is induced by artificial means
  • Augmentation is the artificial stimulation of labor which has already begun
24
Q

What are 5 contraindications to induction of labor?

A
  • Unstable fetal presentation
  • Acute fetal distress
  • Placental previa or vasa previa
  • Previous classical C-section or transfundal uterine surgery (i.e., myomectomy)
  • Any contraindication to vaginal delivery (i.e., HIV w/ high viral load, active genital HSV outbreaks, etc.)
25
Which Bishop score is considered unfavorable and what is considered favorable?
- **\<6** is **unfavorable** - **\>8** the probability of vaginal delivery after labor induction is **similar** to that of spontaneous labor
26
What is a downside of using Misoprostol vs. Dinoprostone for cervical ripening?
- **Misoprostol** cannot be readily removed if concerns arise - **Dinoprostone** is a **vaginal insert** that can be removed
27
What are 2 mechanical dilators which can be used for cervical ripening?
- **Foley bulb catheter** - **Laminara Japonicum**
28
What is the only FDA approved drug for induction and augmentation?
**Pitocin** (synthetic **oxytocin**) given **IV**
29
What are some of the AE's associated with Pitocin administration?
- **Uterine tachysystole** = most common AE - **Antidiuretic effect** due to similar structure as ADH - **Uterine muscle fatigue (nonresponsiveness)** will prolonged use
30
What effect may regional anesthesia have on uterine blood flow; what can be done to mitigate this risk?
- May ↓ uterine blood flow if **hypo**tension occurs and is not promptly tx - **Adequate hydraton (IV bolus)** 30-60 min prior may **mitigate** the risk for **hypotension**
31
What is an epidural?
- A **catheter** is placed in the **epidural** space which allow for **continous infusion** of **anesthetic agents** - Large bore needle is used to locate epidural space btw **L2-L5** **interspaces**
32
When is parenteral administration of pain meds more effective during labor; what are some downsides?
- **More effective** in **early first stage** of labor when pain is more **visceral** and less intense - Have **very little** efficacy for relief of **labor pain** (more sedative); also opioids **CAN** cross the **placenta**
33
What are 5 contraindications for doing regional anesthesia during labor?
- Maternal **coagulopathy** - **Heparin** use **within 12 hrs** - **Untreated maternal infection** - ↑ **ICP** due to **mass lesion** - **Skin infection** over site of **needle placement**
34
What is the most common induction agent used for general anesthesia in emergent cases w/ need for rapid delivery arise or regional anesthesia has failed?
Propofol
35
What is the anesthesia related risk of maternal mortality with general anesthesia vs. regional anesthesia?
**General anesthesia** carries a **16-fold** ↑ anesthesia related risk