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microbio > lecture 14 chapter 18 > Flashcards

lecture 14 chapter 18 Flashcards

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1
Q

the use of antibody molecules to “report” or signal the presence the molecule, cell, or entity to which they bind

A

immunoassays

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2
Q

examples of nature and properties of antibody molecules

A

binding specificity
binding strength
ease of purification
multiple classes
ease of production
east to modify

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3
Q

serum from immunized individuals or experimental animals was the source of the antibodies, but was soon replaced by _________, then by ________

A

bulk purified igG, affinity purified antibody molecules

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4
Q

the study of in vitro antibody-antigen interactions

A

serology

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5
Q

individual not yet exposed to antigen

A

seronegative

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6
Q

_______ has no specific antibodies to that pathogen

A

seronegative

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7
Q

individual has been exposed to antigen

A

seropositive

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8
Q

_______ has produced specific antibodies to pathogen

A

seropositive

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9
Q

any in vitro test that uses antibody-antigen interactions to detect or quantify given antigens or antibodies in a sample

A

immunoassay

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10
Q

simple, but common examples of immunoassays

A

binding of known antibodies identifies unknown pathogen

binding of patient’s antibodies to known pathogen demonstrates current or previous infection

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11
Q

antibody concentration determined by _______

A

serial dilution

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12
Q

serial dilutions are

A

sequential 2- or 10- fold dilutions

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13
Q

in serial dilutions, antigens are added to each _______

A

dilution

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14
Q

_______ is reciprocal of last dilution that gives a detectable antigen-antibody reaction

A

titer (concentration)

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15
Q

example of antibody titer

A

positive observed in 1:256 but not 1:512, antibody titer is 256

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16
Q

where are serial dilutions usually done?

A

in plastic microtiter platers

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17
Q

________ bind yo various epitopes on antigen

A

polyclonal antibodies

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18
Q

what happens with polyclonal antibodies?

A

animals immunized with whole or partial agent; resulting antibodies are collected from animal’s serum

multiple B cells respond, produce mix of antibodies to variety of epitopes

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19
Q

in polyclonal antibodies, more complex antigens will yield more _______

A

antibodies

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20
Q

some polyclonal antibodies may bind ______

A

closely related organisms (for example, Shigella sp. and E. coli outer membrane proteins)

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21
Q

________ produced by animals immunized with IgG from human serum

A

anti-human igG antibodies

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22
Q

anti-human antibodies are available ________

A

commercially

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23
Q

example of anti-human IgG antibody

A

mouse, anti-human IgG (antibody raised in a mouse that was immunized with human IgG)

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24
Q

antibodies such as anti-human IgG antibodies are _______ for immunoassays

A

invaluable

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25
_______ recognize a single epitope; produce only in the laboratory (not naturally occurring)
monoclonal antibodies (MAbs, Mabs, mAbs)
26
monoclonal antibodies require
considerable "up-front" investment of time/resources
27
the production of monoclonal antibodies is a complex process that requires
fusing animal B cells and cells that divide continuously in culture
28
monoclonal antibodies produce
clones of a single cell and antibody to one epitope
29
Mabs can be used in
immunoassays or in therapy
30
Mabs medications end in
"-mab"
31
______ neutralized anthrax toxin
obiltoxaximab
32
______ can be tagged with drug or toxin and delivered to specific cells in vivo
Mabs
33
_______ are being developed against certain types of cancers
antibody-drug conjugates (ADCs)
34
example of antibody-drug conjugates
immuno-toxin therapeutics
35
the normal humoral response is, by nature _____ because numerous clones of B-cells will collectively produce antibodies that react with numerous epitopes
polyclonal
36
each individual B-cell (plasma cell) produces antibody to _______
only ONE epitope
37
if we could isolate a PARTICULAR plasma cell producing against an epitope of OUR choosing, we will have a plasma cell making a _______ antibody
monoclonal
38
plasma cells isolated from animals (humans) do not grow in ______
culture
39
cells die within a few days of removal
plasma cells isolated from animals
40
how do you find the plasma cell producing the antibody you want from billions of individual plasma cells?
fusing the plasma cells with an "immortal" myeloid cell line allows hybrid cell to live and grow in a culture (a so-called hybridoma)
41
fused plasma cells (hybridoma) continues to produce _______
antibody forever
42
treating fused plasma cells with a drug that kills non-fused myeloid cells does what?
selects for survival of only hybridoma (fused) cells
43
diluting the fused cell population prior to plating such that each microtiter well has only one cell will allow for growth of
a "pure" hybridoma cell line
44
_________ can be "humanized"
monoclonal antibodies
45
what does being "humanized" mean?
most of the animal-derived antibody molecule is replaced with human equivalent using recombinant DNA techniques
46
what is a humanized monoclonal antibody called?
a rhuMab: recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody
47
rhuMabs have ______ half-life than standard monoclonal antibodies
longer
48
human immune system less likely to destroy _____ antibodies
rhuMab
49
rhuMab medications have named ending in
"-zumab"
50
some rhuMabs are used to treat
certain cancers
51
_________ won a Nobel prize in 1984 for their work on monoclonal antibodies
Kohler and Milstein
52
Adalimumab drug name
Humira
53
Bezlotoxumab drug name
Zinplava
54
Capromab pendetide drug name
Prostascint
55
Cedelizumab drug name
CIMZIA
56
IMC-225 drug name
Erbitux
57
Cosfroviximab drug name
ZMapp
58
Adalimumab treatment
rheumatoid arthritis
59
Adalimumab targets
TNF alpha
60
Adecatummab MT-201 treatment
breast cancer other neoplasias
61
Adecatummab MT-201 targets
EpCAM (CD326) epithelial cell adhesion molecule
62
Capromab pendetide treatment
prostatic carcinoma cells detection
63
Capromab pendetide targets
tumor surface antigen PSMA
64
Bexlotoxumab targets
clostridium difficile colitis anti-B toxin
65
Bexlotoxumab treatment
pseudomembranous colitis
66
removab targets
EpCAM, CD3
67
removab treats
ovarian cancer
68
cedelizumab treatment
prevent organ transplant rejection
69
cedelizumab targets
CD4
70
IMC-225 treats
metastaticolorectal cancer
71
IMC-225 targets
EGFR
72
cosfroviximab treats
disease modifying Ebola virus
73
cosfroviximab targets
Ebola virus glycoprotein
74
diridavumab treats
infectious disease, influenza A
75
diridavumab targets
influenza A hemagglutinin
76
_______ can detect a given antigen, or can detect antibodies that bind to a given antigen
labeled antibodies
77
_______ identify unknown antigen
direct immunoassays
78
in direct immunoassays, where are antigens attached?
to solid surface
79
in direct immunoassays, _____ of known specificity added-washed free of unbound
labeled antibodies
80
specific binding identifies ______ in direct immunoassays
antigen
81
______ detect specific antibodies
indirect immunoassays
82
in indirect immunoassays, ______ attached to surface; serum added
known antigen
83
in indirect immunoassays, _____ removed unbound primary antibodies
washing
84
_______ are added after washing in indirect immunoassays
secondary antibodies (labeled anti-human IgG)
85
in indirect immunoassays, washing removes unbound: binding identifies ________
primary antibody bound to antigen
86
direct immunoassays identify
unknown antigen
87
indirect immunoassays detect
specific antibody in patient's serum
88
fluorescent antibody (FA) test
use fluorescence microscopy to locate labeled antibodies bound to antigens fixed to microscope slide
89
in the fluorescent antibody test, the size/shape of antigens are seen, but
procedure is time-consuming
90
in the fluorescent antibody test, using different colored labels can
detect more than one antigen
91
in fluorescent antibody test, rabies can be detected in
brain tissue
92
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is also called
ELISA
93
direct ELISA is also known as the
sandwich method
94
steps of direct ELISA
antigen "captured" by antibodies attached to surface enzyme-labeled antibody added to detect antigens
95
examples of direct ELISA
rapid group A strep tests, home pregnancy kits
96
indirect ELISA detects antibodies in ______
human blood and serum
97
blood is routinely screened for antibodies to _____ in indirect ELISA
HIV
98
indirect ELISA may yield false positives; more reliable test such as _____ used to confirm
western blotting
99
ELISA is a form of the general term ______, which is synonymously with ELISA
enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
100
in ELISA, antibodies are labeled with
enzyme (such as peroxidase)
101
in ELISA, enzyme converts colorless substrate to colored product; detected using ______
colorimetric assay
102
ELISA is relatively easy and the basis of many
rapid tests, blood screenings
103
ELISA is often done in ______ to test many samples at one
microtiter plate
104
pregnancy tests test for the presence of ____ in urine
hCG
105
the covid antigen test tests for the presence of
SARS-CoV2 spike antigen
106
_______ was developed as a method to detect the presence of a specific protein in a complex mixture such as a cell lysate
western blotting
107
in western blotting, proteins are first separated by size using
SDS-PAGE (sodium dodecyl sulphate polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis)
108
steps of western blotting
proteins are first separated by size serum (or purified antibody) is added; unbound antibodies washed off enzyme- or radioactively labeled secondary antibodies added; unbound washed off label is detected (indicates which proteins on the blot were recognized by antibodies in the serum)
109
_______ counts, sorts cells labeled with fluorescent antibodies
fluorescence-activated cell sorter (FACS)
110
for examples, fluorescence-activated cell sorter can track progression of HIV by determining
serum levels of CD4 T cells
111
western blots are used extensively
in research laboratories
112
in which test does each specimen need to be examined individually?
fluorescent antibody (FA) tests
113
which test is widely used to diagnose and monitor the progression of diseases involving white blood cells?
fluorescence-activated cell sorter
114
which test is used to characterize different types and stages of lymphomas and leukemias, and to diagnose immunodeficiency diseases
fluorescence-activated cell sorter
115
which test is used in clinical labs to diagnose certain diseases including syphilis, rabies, and others
fluorescent antibody (FA) tests
116
which test is used in pregnancy tests, strep throat, Lyme disease, West Nile fever, hepatitis B and C, HIV disease
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
117
immunoassays may involve visible _______
antigen-antibody aggregates
118
antibodies that cross-link antigens create larger "mouthfuls" for
phagocytic cells
119
clumped antigen-antibody complexes form the basis of
agglutination reactions and precipitation reactions
120
_______ cross-link relatively large particles such as cells
agglutination reactions
121
_____ used for blood typing
hemagglutination
122
________ antibody mixed with antigen (cells, microorganisms); binding yields clumping
direct agglutination test (DAT)
123
______ used when antigens are small
passive agglutination
124
_______ attached to particles (latex beads) to form larger aggregates
antibodies or antigens
125
latex beads in agglutination reactions are mixed with
drop of body fluid or microbial culture
126
antibodies bound to soluble antigens can cross-link, form
precipitate
127
in precipitation reactions, there are certain relative concentrations of
antibody and antigens
128
proper concentrations of antibody and antigen in precipitation reactions are determined by
placing separate suspensions near each other in gel, allow molecules to diffuse
129
precipitate will form in
"zone of optimal proportions"
130
although largely replaced, _____ illustrates immunodiffusion test
ouchterlony technique

microbio (8 decks)

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