Lecture 18: Pre-Implantation Genetic Screening and Diagnosis Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is PGD? What does it do?

A

Pre-Implantation Genetic Diagnosis

- technique to identify genetic defects in embryos created through IVF BEFORE implantation

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2
Q

What is PGS? What does it do?

A

Pre-Implantation Genetic Screening

- Embryos from normal genetic parents are screened for defects

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3
Q

What are the 3 major group of diseases regarding PGS/PGD?

A

1) Chromosomal Disorders
2) Single Gene Defects
3) Sex-linked disorders

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4
Q

What is an example of Chromosomal Disorder?

A

Down Syndrome

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5
Q

Karyotyoes are prepared from ______ cells that have been arrested in ___phase portion of the cell cycle, when ____ assume their most condensed conformations

A

mitotic
meta(phase)
chromosomes

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6
Q

Normal compliment of chromosomes, exact multiple of haploid numbers, 2n (46 chromosomes) is:

A

Euploidy

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7
Q

Abnormal number of chromosomes is:

A

Aneuploidy

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8
Q

3 complete sets of chromosomes, 3n (69 in humans) is:

A

Triploidy

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9
Q

Presence of additional (third) chromosome of one type in otherwise Diploid cell (2n+1)

A

Trisomy

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10
Q

Cell Cycle Review:

The cell “double checks” the duplicated chromosomes for error, making any needed repair

A

G2

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11
Q

Cell Cycle Review:

Cellular contents, excluding the chromosomes, are duplicated

A

G1

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12
Q

Cell Cycle Review:

Each of the 46 chromosomes is duplicated by the cell

A

S

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13
Q

Cell Cycle Review:

Cell cycle arrest

A

G0

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14
Q

Fixation of cells for cyrogenetics is:

A

Metaphase

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15
Q

Nuclear Division is:

A

Karyokinesis

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16
Q

Cytoplasm division is:

A

Cytokinesis

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17
Q

Whats the process of mitosis between G2 and G1

A

Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telephase, Cytokinesis

18
Q

First polar body extruded prior to______

Second polar body extruded after______

A

Ovulation

Fertilization

19
Q

What is the 6 step process of PGS/PDG

A

1) Genetic Counseling
2) IVF with ICSI
3) Biopsy
4) Genetic Testing
5) Transfer of “unaffected” embryo
6) Advise against intercourse during IVF cycle

20
Q

Polar Body Biopsy:

First (and/or Second) polar bodies are removed using ________ and _______

A

micromanipulator

microscope

21
Q

Polar Body Biopsy:

Can only detect female chromosomal disorders because:

A
  • gives indirect information about whether genetic defect is present in oocyte
  • Chromosomal abnormalities occurring after fertilization are not detected
  • Technique is infrequently used due to limitations
22
Q

Polar Body Biopsy:

Samples extra-embryonic material because:

A
  • Less likely to affect subsequent embryo development

- May be ethically preferable to some (when embryo screening is not permitted)

23
Q

Blastomere Biopsy:

Goal is to remove one (or two) ____ cell(s) with minimal _____ to remaining embryo

A

Intact

trauma

24
Q

Blastomere Biopsy:

Embryo is cultured in calcium and magnesium free medium because:

A
  • Reduces blastomere-to-blastomere adherence

- Facilitates blastomere removal

25
Blastomere Biopsy: | Single blastomere is removed using micromanipulator and microscope because:
- Second blastomere may also be removed to confirm results from first blastomere
26
What is the goal of Trophectoderm Biopsy:
remove 5-10 cells with minimal trauma to reaming embryo
27
What is "FISH?"
Fluorescence in situ hybridization
28
What are some examples of "Current Technology?"
- Whole genome sequencing | - Single-gene testing
29
What does FISH accomplish?
- Probes are small pieces of DNA matched for chromosomes being analyzed - Each probe is labeled with different fluorescent dye - Fluorescent probes are applied to biopsy sample - Probes can be seen under microscope
30
FISH can only analyze about __chromosomes at most for a ____ cell, by this method
10; single
31
What 9 chromosomes does FISH detect?
X, Y, 13, 15, 16, 18, 21, 22
32
FISH is performed in ___ rounds on _____ nucleus
2; blastomere
33
What are 2 test that fall under current technology?
PGS and PGD
34
What is PGS and what does it accomplish?
Whole-genome sequencing - Screens all 24 chromosomes simultaneously - 22 autosomal and X and Y - Detects aneuploidy
35
What is PGD and what does it accomplish?
Single-gene testing - Detects single gene mutations - Requires mutation analysis for both parents
36
Transfer of "unaffected" embryos: | Genetic/ Chromosome testing can be completed within ____/_____
24 hours; 1 week
37
``` Transfer of "unaffected" embryos: Blastomere biopsy ( from Day __ embryo) may permit _____ of _______ (day __ embryo) ```
03; transfer; blastocyst; 05
38
Transfer of "unaffected" embryos: | _____ biopsy requires _____ of blastocyst
Trophectoderm; freezing
39
What is mosaicism
- presence of two populations of cells with different genotype in one individual who has developed from a single fertilized egg - may result from mutation during meiotic or mitotic cell division
40
During mosaicism, when does self-correction occur?
- Euploid cells proliferate faster than aneuploidy cells | - Mosaic embryos may halt proliferation of abnormal cells or exclude abnormal cells