Lecture 2 - B Cell Pathology Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

How long after vaccination do serum IgG levels stay elevated?

A

A very long time. Tens of years

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2
Q

Another name for isotype switching

A

Class switch recombination

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3
Q

Features of secondary antibody memory response
1)
2)
3)

A

1) Faster kinetics
2) Greater magnitide
3) Higher affinity

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4
Q

Symptoms of CD40 and CD40L deficiency

A

Normal IgM levels
Very low IgG, IgA levels
No B cell memory response
Normal T cell levels

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5
Q

Features of cytophotometry of hyper IgM individuals
1)
2)

A

1) CD27 absent (top left)

2) Higher than average IgM levels (bottom)

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6
Q

Surface marker expressed by memory B cells

A

CD27

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7
Q

On which cells is CD27 expressed?

A

Memory B cells

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8
Q

When do clinical symptoms of hyper IgM normally present?

A

Between one and two years of age

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9
Q
Clinical presentation of hyper IgM syndromes
1)
2)
3)
4)
A

1) Recurrent URT and LRT bacterial infections
2) Lung infections by cytomegalovirus or cryptococcus fungi
3) GIT problems (malabsorption, diarrhoea) reported in some patients
4) Often enlarged spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes

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10
Q

Which part of the spleen is lymphocyte-rich?

A

White pulp

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11
Q

Which cell types are common in white pulp?

A

Lymphocytes

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12
Q

Do lymph nodes contain much red pulp?

A

No

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13
Q
Structure of white pulp
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
A

1) Central arteriole
2) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
3) Follicle
4) Marginal zone
5) Red pulp (surrounding)

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14
Q

Function of the central arteriole in spleen

A

To bring blood through the white pulp

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15
Q

Function of periarteriolar lymphoid sheath in white pulp

A

Rich in CD4 and CD8 lymphocytes

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16
Q

Function of follicle in spleen

A

Rich in mature B cells and follicular dendritic cells

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17
Q

Function of the marginal zone in spleen

A

Rich in macrophages and B cells

Separated from follicle by marginal sinus

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18
Q

Early stages of T and B cell activation

A

1) Antigen enters into lymphoid organ. Enters intact into B region, is processed and presented at T
2) Antigen-specific T or B cells contact antigen or are presented antigen
3) Chemokine receptor expression is changed. B cells express CCR7. T cells express CXCR5
4) Activated T and B cells move towards boundary between periarteriolar lymphoid sheath and follicle.

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19
Q

Outcomes of encounter of activated T and B cells in a lymphoid organ

A

1) Plasma cell proliferation

2) Germinal centre formation

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20
Q

How do B cells become plasma cells or form germinal centres?

A

Need correct T cell signalling

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21
Q

Transcription factor for B cells to become plasma cells

A

Blimp1

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22
Q

Transcription factor for B cells to form germinal centre

A

Bcl6

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23
Q

What does Blimp1 do?

A

Transcription repressor.

Shuts off B cell program, allows plasma cell program.

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24
Q

What does bcl6 do?

A

Transcription repressor.
Promotes cell cycle
Inhibits response to DNA damage

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25
What is a germinal centre?
Where mature B cells proliferate, produce antibodies, undergo somatic hypermutaiton
26
Composition of germinal centres
95% B cells 5% CD4 T cells 1% Follicular dendritic cells
27
``` Functions within a germinal centre 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) ```
1) Clonal expansion 2) Isotype switching 3) Somatic hypermutation 4) Affinity maturaiton 5) Memory formation
28
Difference between somatic hypermutation and affinity maturation
Somatic hypermutation is mutations in V region | Affinity maturation is selection of somatically hypermutated V regions with the greatest affinity for antigen
29
Why is IgM the first antibody produced?
Pentameric, so 10 binding sites | High avidity for epitope, despite low affinity
30
Difference between IgM and IgG in terms of affinity and avidity
IgM has greater avidity | IgG has fewer binging sites, but has higher affinity for epitope
31
Which antibodies exist in mucosa?
IgA1, IgA1, IgM (to a lesser extent)
32
Which antibodies can cross the placenta?
IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4 (kind of)
33
Which antibodies result in complement activation?
IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgM
34
Which antibodies can sensitise mast cells?
IgE
35
Most common antibody in the blood
IgG1
36
Least common antibody in the blood
IgE
37
IgG in order of most common to least common
IgG1 IgG2 IgG3 IgG4
38
IgA in order of most common to least common
IgA1 | IgA2
39
Does class switch recombination affect binding affinity?
No
40
How does class switch recombination take place?
1) Each C region has a Switch region upstream of it. All S regions are homologous 2) AID enzyme recognises Switch regions, makes a nick in dsDNA 3) Double strand breaks are brought together. DNA between S-S forms a loop 4) Loop is excised
41
What is class switch recombination?
Deletional recombination mediated by S-S recognition
42
Where does class switch recombination take place?
Only at the heavy chain locus
43
What is AID?
Activation Induced cytidine Deaminase
44
How does activation induced cytidine deaminase work?
1) Recognises Switch region 2) Deaminates cytosine to urasil 3) Urasil is removed from DNA, leaving a staggered double stranded break 4) Staggered double stranded break is homologous with all other S regions cut by AID
45
How is DNA repaired after cutting by AID?
Using similar DNA repair enzymes to V(D)J recombination
46
Role of AID in somatic hypermutation
1) Replaces C with U 2) Error-prone DNA repair enzymes recruited 3) Mistakes that improve affinity are selected for
47
Stages of affinity maturation 1) 2) 3)
1) In early germinal centre. No somatic hypermutation taking place. Isotype switching 2) SHM gene activated, leads to somatic hypermutation 3) Selective proliferation of B cells with greater affinity. Rest of B cells die
48
Surface proteins On B and T cells involved in isotype switching and somatic hypermutaiton
1) CD40L (T cell), CD40 (B cell) 2) TCR (T cell), MHCII (B cell) 3) ICOS (T cell), ICOSL (B cell)
49
Effect of CD40-CD40L interaction
1) Within B cell, NEMO activates NFkappaB | 2) NFkappaB activates AID
50
Is CD40L deficiency autosomal or sex-linked?
X-linked
51
Is CD40 deficiency autosomal or sex-linked?
Autosomal recessive
52
What causes X-linked hyper IgM syndrome with anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia?
Issues with either NEMO or NFkappaB
53
What do issues with NEMO or NFkappaB result in?
X-linked hyper IgM syndrome with anhydroptic ectodermal dysplasia
54
What causes autosomal recessive AID deficiency?
Lack of functional AID
55
``` Effect of CD40L deficiency 1) 2) 3) 4) ```
1) Defective B cell production 2) No germinal centres 3) No memory 4) Defective dendritic cell activation
56
Effect of CD40 deficiency 1) 2) 3)
1) Defective humoral immunity 2) No germinal centres 3) No memory
57
Effect of AID deficiency 1) 2) 3)
1) Germinal centre formation 2) No isotype switching 3) No switched memory
58
Effect of defective NFkappaB signalling
1) Abrogates signals from CD40 2) No germinal centres 3) No somatic hypermutation 4) No isotype switching
59
Mode of NFkappaB inheritance
X-linked | Autosomal dominant
60
Therapy for hyper IgM syndrome
1) Intravenous Ig infusion | 2) For X-linked HIGM, bone marrow transplant
61
Common variable immune deficiencies 1) 2) 3)
1) Characterised by hypogammaglobulinaemia 2) Recurrent pyogenic infections by capsulated bacteria 3) Normally manifests in early adulthood
62
Definition of hypogammaglobulinaemia
IgG under 3g/L | IgA under 0.05g/L
63
Frequency of common variable immune deficiencies
1/25,000
64
Number of common variable immune deficiencies that have an identified genetic basis
~20%
65
What occurs in the germinal centre?
Isotype switching, affinity maturation
66
How much can affinity maturation increase the affinity of an antibody for an antigen?
10,000 times
67
``` How does somatic hypermutation occur? 1) 2) a) b) c) ```
1) AID replaces C with U in variable region 2) One of three things can happen a) U is converted to T. Adjacent G is converted to A b) Excision repair c) Mismatch repair There is a chance in excision and mismatch repair that a mistake will be made. This is a mutation
68
Where do somatic hypermutation mutations cluster?
At CDR1, CDR2 or CDR3
69
Which T cells express ICOS and CD40L?
Activated T cells
70
Which B cells express ICOSL and CD40?
All B cells
71
What are two proteins involved in DNA repair?
PMS2 | UNG
72
What does UNG do?
Removes urasil form DNA
73
Which enzyme removes urasil from DNA?
UNG