Lecture 5-Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the (3) components of Virchow’s triad?—___ state, ___ wall injury, circulatory ___

A

Hypercoaguable state, vascular wall injury, circulatory stasis

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2
Q

Heparin affects ___ (bound clotting factors/unbound clotting factors/both)

A

UNBOUND clotting factors only—does not affect bound clotting factors/doesn’t break up existing clots

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3
Q

Heparin MOA = accelerates the rate at which ___ neutralizes ___ and ___; heparin binds ___ (reversibly/irreversibly) to ___ and induces a ___ change

A

Accelerates the rate at which antithrombin III (heparin cofactor) neutralizes thrombin (factor 2A) and factor 10A; heparin binds reversibly to antithrombin III and induces a conformational change

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4
Q

What system clears heparin from the body?

A

The reticuloendothelial system

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5
Q

Does heparin cross the placenta?

A

No

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6
Q

What test is often used to monitor heparin use?

A

ACT [activated clotting time]

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7
Q

ACT is used to measure heparin’s ___ (intrinsic/extrinsic) pathway activity

A

Intrinsic pathway activity

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8
Q

ACT is monitored in procedures with significant heparin use—T/F?

A

True

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9
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)—it is considered thrombocytopenia if platelets are < ___

A

< 100K

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10
Q

If there is a significant drop in platelet count from the patient’s baseline after heparin administration, you should consider the possibility of HIT (even if platelet count is not necessarily < 100K)—T/F?

A

True

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11
Q

HIT occurs ___-___ days after initiation of full dose or low dose heparin therapy, including heparin flush solution

A

5-15 days

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12
Q

HIT doesn’t occur immediately unless the patient has received heparin previously—T/F?

A

True

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13
Q

Type ___ (1 or 2) HIT occurs d/t heparin dependent antiplatelet ___ antibodies

A

Type 2 HIT occurs d/t heparin dependent antiplatelet IgG antibodies

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14
Q

Type ___ (1 or 2) HIT occurs d/t a direct, ___ effect on platelets

A

Type 1 HIT occurs d/t a direct, nonimmunogenic effect on platelets

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15
Q

How can HIT be reversed?

A

Stopping heparin therapy

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16
Q

In a minority of patients with HIT, it may be associated with thrombotic complications (“procoagulant state”), including arterial thrombosis and platelet-fibrin clots—if this occurs, what should you do?

A

Stop heparin and start patient on argatroban to prevent more clots from forming

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17
Q

Before diagnosing HIT, you should rule out other causes for thrombocytopenia—what two medications can cause thrombocytopenia? What disease state can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Depakote and Pepcid can cause thrombocytopenia; sepsis can cause thrombocytopenia

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18
Q

HIT testing—___ testing picks up IgG antibodies; has very few false negatives; can get some false positives if it’s not the ___ specific antibody testing

A

ELISA testing picks up IgG antibodies; can get some false positives if it’s not the IgG specific antibody testing

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19
Q

HIT testing—___ = gold standard for HIT diagnosis; highly specific with very few false positives

A

Serotonin release assays

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20
Q

HIT treatment = stop ___ products; administer ___ anticoagulants (usually will use ___ or ___); add ___ to chart

A

Stop heparin products; administer non-heparin anticoagulants (usually will use argatroban or bivalrudin); add allergy to chart

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21
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

Protamine = cation, combines with strong anion heparin to form a stable salt (protamine NEUTRALIZES heparin)

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22
Q

Protamine can be used to reverse LMWHs—T/F?

A

False—LMWH are not as susceptible to protamine antagonism

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23
Q

If emergency reversal is needed for LMWH, protamine will neutralize about ___% of anti-Xa activity of LMWHs

A

65%

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24
Q

Protamine should be administered ___ (fast/slow)

A

SLOW

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25
Q

Rapid IV injection of protamine is associated with acute ___-related ___tension, ___cardia, ___ hypertension, transient ___, ___nea, respiratory ___

A

Acute histamine-related hypotension, bradycardia, pulmonary hypertension, transient flushing, dyspnea, respiratory distress

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26
Q

Patients may have a hypersensitivity reaction to protamine sulfate if they are hypersensitive to ___; have had previous ___ reversal; take protamine containing ___; or had previous ___

A

Hypersensitive to fish (protamine sulfate comes from salmon sperm); have had previous protamine reversal; take protamine containing insulin (NPH); or had previous vasectomy

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27
Q

To prevent hypersensitivity reaction to protamine, you can pre-treat patient with ___ and ___

A

Corticosteroid and antihistamine

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28
Q

Heparin rebound is ___ (common/rare) and is usually seen in patients who had ___ (little/massive) amounts of heparin

A

Heparin rebound is rare and is usually seen in patients who had massive amounts of heparin (i.e.: CPB cases)

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29
Q

What is heparin rebound?—a condition where patients ___ after ___ administration

A

A condition where patients re-anticoagulate after protamine administration

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30
Q

Heparin management [hold times prior to OR]—if patient is on IV heparin, stop ___-___ hours prior to procedure; if patient is on subQ heparin, stop ___ hours prior to procedure

A

If patient is on IV heparin, stop 4-6 hours prior to procedure; if patient is on subQ heparin, stop 12 hours prior to procedure

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31
Q

Heparin management [restart times after OR]—restart ___ hours post-op if patient is low risk for bleeding; restart ___-___ hours post-op if patient is high risk for bleeding (i.e.: liver disease, on other blood thinners, type of surgery puts them at risk for post-op bleeding)

A

Restart 24 hours post-op if patient is low risk for bleeding; restart 48-72 hours post-op if patient is high risk for bleeding (i.e.: liver disease, on other blood thinners, type of surgery puts them at risk for post-op bleeding)

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32
Q

Heparin management [catheter placement]—catheter should be placed ___ hour before heparin administration; catheter should be placed ___ hours before heparin administration if patient is going to have cardiac surgery

A

Catheter should be placed 1 hour before heparin administration; catheter should be placed 24 hours before heparin administration if patient is going to have cardiac surgery

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33
Q

Heparin management [catheter removal]—indwelling neuraxial catheters should be removed ___-___ hours after the last heparin dose and after their coagulation status has been evaluated

A

Should be removed 2-4 hours after the last heparin dose and after their coagulation status has been evaluated

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34
Q

LMWH MOA—inhibit factor ___ and ___—they are much more selective to factor ___ inhibition than ___

A

Inhibit factor Xa and IIa (thrombin)—they are much more selective to factor Xa inhibition than IIa

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35
Q

___ levels are the gold standard for monitoring LMWH therapy

A

Anti-Factor Xa levels

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36
Q

APTT and PT/INR are effective at monitoring LMWH therapy—T/F?

A

False—aPTT and PT/INR are insensitive to LMWH therapy

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37
Q

You should decrease the dose of LMWH in patients with chronic ___ insufficiency

A

Chronic renal insufficiency—because these drugs are renally eliminated

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38
Q

This anticoagulant is the most specific inhibitor of Factor Xa—no effect on factor IIa

A

Fondaparinux (Arixtra)

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39
Q

Black box warning for all LMWHs and fondaparinux (arixtra)—use of neuraxial blockade represents significant risk of ___; monitor for signs and symptoms of ___ damage

A

Use of neuraxial blockade represents significant risk of epidural hematoma; monitor for signs and symptoms of neurologic damage

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40
Q

Spinal/epidural hematoma risk for all LMWHs and fondaparinux—needle placement should occur at least ___ hours after last LMWH LOW dose or fondaparinux dose

A

Needle placement should occur at least 12 hours after last LMWH LOW dose or fondaparinux dose

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41
Q

Spinal/epidural hematoma risk for all LMWHs and fondaparinux—needle placement should occur at least ___ hours after last LMWH HIGH dose

A

24 hours

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42
Q

If epidural catheter is inserted, it should be done at least ___ hours prior to any dose of postoperative LMWH (single daily dosing)

A

4 hours prior to any dose of postoperative LMWH (single daily dosing)

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43
Q

Twice daily dosing of LMWH should be delayed until ___ hours post-op

A

Delayed until 24 hours post-op

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44
Q

Catheters should be removed prior to initiating ___ daily dosing

A

Twice daily dosing

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45
Q

Removal of epidural catheter should be done ___-___ hours before any dose of LMWH

A

2-4 hours before any dose of LMWH

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46
Q

Removal of epidural catheter should occur ___ hours after any dose and ___ hours before a subsequent dose

A

12 hours after any dose and 2 hours before a subsequent dose

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47
Q

What are (3) oral Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
  • Apixaban (Eliquis)
  • Edoxaban (Savaysa)

“Xa” in the name because they are oral Xa inhibitors

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48
Q

Hold time for dabigatran (pradaxa) with poor kidney function is ___-___ days; hold time for dabigatran (pradaxa) with normal kidney function is ___-___ days

A

3-5 days; 1-2 days

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49
Q

Xarelto only needs to be held for ___ hours prior to procedure

A

24 hours prior to procedure

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50
Q

For low risk bleeding, Xarelto should be held for ___ day; for high risk bleeding, xarelto should be held for ___ days

A

1 day; 2 days

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51
Q

Hold time for NOACs/DOACs is much ___ (more/less) than hold times for warfarin

A

Less than hold times for warfarin (5 days for warfarin vs. 1-2 days for NOACs/DOACs)

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52
Q

With NOACs, you don’t have to worry about starting the patient on bridge therapy or formation of clots while the medication is being held—T/F?

A

True, because the hold time is only 1-2 days (depending on low vs. high risk of bleeding)

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53
Q

All DOACs currently have available a BB warning for use with neuraxial anesthesia—T/F?

A

True

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54
Q

Dabigatran (pradaxa) should be held ___-___ days prior to neuraxial procedures

A

4-5 days prior to neuraxial procedures

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55
Q

Oral Xa inhibitors should be held ___-___ days prior to neuraxial procedures

A

3-5 days prior to neuraxial procedures

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56
Q

Dabigatran (pradaxa) and oral Xa inhibitors can be restarted ___ hours post-procedure if the patient is a low bleed risk; can be restarted ___-___ hours post-procedure if the patient is a high bleed risk

A

Can be restarted 24 hours post-procedure if the patient is a low bleed risk; can be restarted 48-72 hours post-procedure if the patient is a high bleed risk

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57
Q

Hemodialysis ___ (can/cannot) remove oral Xa inhibitors

A

Cannot

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58
Q

What is one reversal agent for oral factor Xa meds?

A

Andexanet alpha (andexxa)

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59
Q

Andexanet alpha (andexxa) was approved in January 2019 for reversal of Xa inhibitors; approved for what (2) oral Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Xarelto

- Eliquis

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60
Q

Andexanet alpha (andexxa) is approved for reversal of edoxaban (savaysa)—T/F?

A

False—approved for reversal of xarelto and Eliquis only

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61
Q

Black box warning for andexxa—___ events, ___ events, cardiac ___, sudden ___; may also cause ___, ___onia, infusion related ___

A

Thromboembolic events, ischemic events, cardiac arrest, sudden death; may also cause UTIs, pneumonia, infusion related reactions

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62
Q

Argatroban = direct ___ inhibitor (factor ___)

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor (factor IIa)

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63
Q

Argatroban binds to both ___ and ___-bound thrombin

A

Both circulating and clot-bound thrombin

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64
Q

Argatroban has a ___ (lower/higher) risk of bleeding because it breaks up thrombin that is circulating and thrombin that is bound to clots

A

Higher risk of bleeding

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65
Q

Argatroban is used for the prevention/treatment of thrombosis in patients with ___

A

HIT

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66
Q

Argatroban ___ (does/does not) have a reversal agent

A

Does not have a reversal agent

67
Q

(2) other direct thrombin inhibitors that are hirudin analogs

A
  • Bivalrudin (angiomax)

- Lepirudin (refludin)

68
Q

Hirudin comes from ___

A

Leech spit

69
Q

Hirudin analogs bind ___ (reversibly/irreversibly) to both circulating and clot-bound thrombin; they are used as a heparin alternative if patient has ___

A

Irreversibly to both circulating and clot-bound thrombin; they are used as a heparin alternative if patient has HIT

70
Q

Hirudin analogs ___ (do/do not) have a reversal agent

A

Do not have a reversal agent

71
Q

Dose of hirudin analogs must be adjusted in ___ impairment

A

Renal impairment

72
Q

Anti-hirudin antibodies form in ~___% of patients

A

~40% of patients

73
Q

Anti-hirudin antibodies may be associated with an increased ___ effect of lepirudin; for this reason, ___ would be a safer choice

A

Anticoagulant effect of lepirudin; for this reason, argatroban would be a safer choice to treat patient with HIT

74
Q

Dabigatran (pradaxa) is an oral direct ___ inhibitor

A

Oral direct thrombin inhibitor

75
Q

HD will remove ___-___% of circulating dabigatran (unlike oral factor Xa inhibitors, Xarelto and Eliquis)

A

62-68% of circulating dabigatran

76
Q

Antidote for dabigatran = ___

A

Idarucizumab (praxbind)

77
Q

Warfarin antidote = ___

A

Vitamin K1

78
Q

Warfarin antidote Vitamin K1 takes ~___ hours to see effects

A

~24 hours

79
Q

Vitamin K1 should never be given ___

A

SubQ

80
Q

Warfarin is pregnancy category ___

A

X—never give in pregnancy!

81
Q

Warfarin drug interactions—anti___; other ___; ___s; ___; ___; anti___

A

Antibiotics; other blood thinners; NSAIDs; acetaminophen; supplements; antiepileptics

82
Q

Most NOACs ___ (do/do not) require bridge therapy, as they are held ___-___ hours prior to procedure

A

do not require bridge therapy, as they are only held 24-48 hours prior to procedure

83
Q

Warfarin management—goal INR is < ___

A

< 1.5

84
Q

Warfarin should be held ___ days before procedure

A

5 days before procedure

85
Q

Warfarin needs to be bridged with ___

A

LMWH (lovenox)

86
Q

Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are falling out of favor—T/F?

A

True—d/t drug interactions, longer hold times, need for bridge therapy

87
Q

Thrombolytic agents end in -___; what are (5) thrombolytic agents?

A

-ase

  • alteplase
  • reteplase
  • tenecteplase
  • streptokinase
  • urokinase
88
Q

Thrombolytic agents MOA—tPA binds to ___ and ___ and converts bound ___ogen to ___; ___ is our natural clot cleaver in the body, promotes the body to break down clots

A

TPA binds to fibrin and plasminogen and converts bound plasminogen to plasmin; plasmin is our natural clot cleaver in the body, promotes the body to break down clots

89
Q

Thrombolytic agents put the body into a ___ state

A

“Systemo-lytic” state—activate plasmin to break down fibrin rich clots throughout the entire body; can be very dangerous

90
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—acute ICH

A

Absolute contraindication

91
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—history of ICH

A

Absolute contraindication

92
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—severe, uncontrolled HTN

A

Absolute contraindication—specifically, SBP 185 or greater, DBP 110 or greater

93
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—age > 75 yo

A

Relative contraindication

94
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—severe stroke or coma

A

Relative contraindication

95
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—recent major surgery

A

Relative contraindication

96
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—serious head trauma or stroke in previous 3 months

A

Absolute contraindication

97
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—arterial puncture of non compressible vessel within 7 days

A

Relative contraindication

98
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—platelets < 100,000

A

Absolute contraindication

99
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—systemic anticoagulation

A

Absolute contraindication

100
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—BG > 400 or < 50

A

Absolute contraindication

101
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—recent GI bleed within 21 days

A

Relative contraindication

102
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—seizure with stroke onset

A

Relative contraindication

103
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—recent MI within 3 months

A

Relative contraindication

104
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—CNS structural lesions

A

Relative contraindication

105
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—early radiographic ischemic changes

A

Absolute contraindication

106
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—active internal bleeding

A

Absolute contraindication

107
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—dementia

A

Relative contraindication

108
Q

Is this an absolute or relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?—traumatic CPR

A

Relative contraindication

109
Q

Dextran MOA—expands ___ by pulling in ___; prevents thromboembolism by decreasing blood ___

A

Expands intravascular volume by pulling in water; prevents thromboembolism by decreasing blood viscosity (dilution prevention)

110
Q

Dextran side effects—allergic reactions d/t dextran-reactive ___ present in most adults; ___ formation may make subsequent ___ of blood difficult

A

Allergic reactions d/t dextran-reactive IgG antibodies present in most adults; rouleaux formation may make subsequent cross-matching of blood difficult

111
Q

Aminocaproic acid (amicar) is used to treat ___

A

Excessive bleeding

112
Q

How does amicar work?—inhibits activation of ___ to inhibit ___

A

Inhibits activation of plasminogen to inhibit fibrinolysis

113
Q

Amicar load has to be given over ___

A

1 hour

114
Q

Avoid rapid IV infusion of amicar secondary to ___tension, ___cardia, and/or ___mias

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, and/or arrhythmias

115
Q

Risk of thrombosis with amicar is very ___ (low/high)

A

Low

116
Q

TXA = ___ (anti/pro) coagulant

A

Procoagulant

117
Q

TXA prevents bleeding by inhibiting ___/___

A

Plasminogen/fibrinolysis

118
Q

TXA should be given ___ (slowly/quickly) d/t ___tension, just like what other drug?

A

Slowly d/t hypotension, just like amicar

119
Q

Rapid administration of TXA can cause ___ d/t neuronal ___ and ___ inhibition of cerebral emboli

A

Seizures d/t neuronal GABA and glycine inhibition of cerebral emboli

120
Q

What is raplixa?

A

Topical fibrin sealant

121
Q

What are (3) components of platelet function?

A
  • Adhesion
  • Activation
  • Aggregation
122
Q

Platelet adhesion—___ factor promotes platelet adhesion to damaged vascular walls

A

VonWillebrand’s factor

123
Q

What is the most common inherited coagulation defect?

A

VonWillebrand’s disease

124
Q

Platelet activation—___ binds to receptor on platelet surface to activate platelet; binding results in ___ change; ___ change releases mediators involved in coagulation and healing—___ and ___

A

Thrombin binds to receptor on platelet surface to activate platelet; binding results in conformational change; conformational change releases mediators involved in coagulation and healing—Thromboxane A2 and ADP

125
Q

Thromboxane A2 and ADP promote platelet ___

A

Aggregation

126
Q

Aggregation—thromboxane A2 and ADP uncover ___ receptors; ___ attaches to its receptor, allowing platelets to link together

A

Thromboxane A2 and ADP uncover fibrinogen receptors; fibrinogen attaches to its receptor, allowing platelets to link together

127
Q

What are two types of platelet aggregation inhibitors?

A

Aspirin and NSAIDs

128
Q

Aspirin needs to be held for ___ days before surgery because it renders COX non-functional

A

7 days

129
Q

Aspirin renders COX non-functional for the life of the platelet (8-12 days)—T/F?

A

True—have to wait for the body to make more platelets

130
Q

NSAIDs need to be held for ___-___ hours before surgery

A

24-48 hours

NSAIDs depress platelet’s thromboxane A2 production but this is only temporary (24-48 hours)

131
Q

(2) other platelet aggregation inhibitors (thienopyridine ADP-receptor antagonists) = ___ and ___

A

Clopidogrel (plavix) and ticagrelor (brilinta)

132
Q

Ticagrelor (brilinta) ___ (is/is not) reversible

A

Is reversible

133
Q

MOA of thienopyridine ADP-receptor antagonists—inhibit activation of the platelet ___ complex that is necessary for fibrinogen-platelet binding

A

Inhibit activation of the platelet glycoprotein (GP IIb/IIIa) complex that is necessary for fibrinogen-platelet binding

134
Q

Thienopyridine ADP-receptor antagonists ___ (reversibly/irreversibly) modify the receptor

A

Irreversibly modify the receptor

135
Q

Platelets exposed to thienopyridine ADP-receptor antagonists are affected for the remainder of their lifespan—T/F?

A

True

136
Q

Aspirin and plavix should be held for ___ days before surgery

A

7 days

137
Q

Brilinta should be held for ___ days before surgery

A

5 days before surgery (even though it is reversible)

138
Q

Stop plavix ___ days prior to surgery

A

7 days prior to surgery

139
Q

Ticlodipine (ticlid) is off the market; needed to be held ___-___ days prior to surgery

A

10-14 days

140
Q

Stop prasugrel (effient) ___ days prior to surgery

A

7 days prior to surgery

141
Q

Stop ticagrelor (brilinta) ___ days prior to surgery even though it is ___

A

5 days prior to surgery even though it is reversible

142
Q

Aspirin, plavix, prasugrel need to be held for ___ days before surgery so that new platelets can be made

A

7 days

143
Q

NSAIDs should be held for ___ days before surgery

A

2 days

144
Q

Brilinta—even though it is ___, hold for ___ days

A

Even though it is reversible, hold for 5 days

145
Q

Platelet function testing—VerifyNow P2Y12–measures percentage of platelet ___

A

Platelet inhibition

146
Q

Platelet function testing—VerifyNow P2Y12–monitor antiplatelet therapy > ___% for clinical effect; determine when it is safe to proceed with surgery or regional anesthesia < ___%

A

> 80% for clinical effect; safe to proceed with surgery or regional anesthesia < 20%

147
Q

Antiplatelet management—aspirin and NSAIDs ___ (do/don’t) have risk of epidural hematoma, so ___ (do/don’t) have to hold these medications for neuraxial blockade

A

Don’t have risk of epidural hematoma, so don’t have to hold these medications for neuraxial blockade

148
Q

Antiplatelet management—hold clopidogrel/prasugrel for ___ days before neuraxial blockade is performed

A

7 days

149
Q

Antiplatelet management—hold ticlodipine for ___ days before performing neuraxial blockade

A

14 days

Ticlid is off the market*

150
Q

Antiplatelet management—hold brilinta for ___ days before performing neuraxial blockade

A

5 days

151
Q

Platelet aggregation inhibitor—dipyridamole + aspirin = ___

A

Aggrenox

152
Q

Have to hold dipyridamole/aspirin (aggrenox) for ___ days because of the aspirin

A

5 days

153
Q

Vorapaxar (Zontivity)—no one really takes this medication at all, but terminal half-life is ~___ days

A

~8 days

154
Q

Platelet aggregation inhibitors—prevent platelets from aggregating together by preventing ___ from binding to ___

A

Preventing fibrinogen from binding to Gp IIb/IIIa

155
Q

(3) platelet aggregation inhibitors:

A
  • Abciximab (repro)
  • Eptifibatide (integrilin)
  • Tirofiban (aggrastat)
156
Q

Abciximab (repro) should be held ___-___ hours prior to procedure

A

24-48 hours prior to procedure

157
Q

Eptifibatide (integrilin) should be held ___-___ hours prior to procedure

A

4-8 hours prior to procedure

158
Q

Tirofiban (aggrastat) should be held ___-___ hours prior to procedure

A

4-8 hours prior to procedure

159
Q

DDAVP (desmopressin) is a synthetic analog of ___ and is ___

A

Synthetic analog of ADH (posterior pituitary hormone) and is hemostatic

160
Q

DDAVP increases ___ factor, tissue-type ___ activator, and ___

A

Increases vonWillebrand factor, tissue-type plasminogen activator, and prostaglandins

161
Q

DDAVP promotes platelet adhesiveness to vascular endothelium—T/F?

A

True

162
Q

DDAVP may minimize intraoperative blood loss and transfusion requirements in patients undergoing cardiac surgery or spinal fusion surgery—T/F?

A

True

163
Q

Xigris (drotrecogin alpha) was removed from the market in 2011 because there was found to be no benefit for what patient population?

A

Sepsis patients