Lecture 6: Mutation and Repair Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

______: Due to a lesion (i.e. error) in DNA that is not repaired prior to replication round

A

mutation

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2
Q

Heritable change in nucleotide sequence which can affect change if mutation impacts a
______ (i.e. gene, promoter, binding site, etc.)

A

function

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3
Q

Note that Bacteria is _____ (i.e. one gene copy) so mutation can be observable

A

haploid

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4
Q

_________:
* Occur during normal growth due to biological errors
* e.g. replication errors 10-6 to 10-7/1000 bp (average gene size)

A

Spontaneous mutations

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5
Q

_______
* Caused by external factors (e.g. UV, chemicals, molecular techniques)
* Can increase mutation rate to ~ 10-3/1000 bp

A

Induced mutations

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6
Q

Change(s) due to mutation(s) can be:
___, _____, or _____

A
  • Beneficial, detrimental or neutral (i.e. no effect)
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7
Q

Strain of an organism isolated from nature → _____

A

wildtype

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8
Q

A cell derived from the wild type whose genome carries a change in nucleotide
sequence from that of the wildtype genotype → _____

A

mutant

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9
Q

Observable properties of a strain → phenotype
* If changed from wildtype, than is referred to as a _____ phenotype

A

mutant

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10
Q

T/F: Mutant derivatives can be obtained from either directly from a wild-type strain or from
another strain (i.e. parental) previously derived from the wild-type.

A

true!! Note: depending
on the mutation, a mutant may or may not differ in phenotype from its parent

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11
Q

E. coli wild-type and mutant strains grown on MacConkey agar (selective and
differential medium) containing maltose as carbon source, and pH indicator that
turns ____ (i.e. acidic) if maltose is fermented

A

red

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12
Q

______ metabolism: Metabolic pathway encoded by 4 monocistronic and 4 polycistronic
transcriptional units for a total of 8

A

maltose

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13
Q

T/F: Virtually any characteristic of an organism can be changed
by mutation

A

true

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14
Q

_______:
* Confers a clear advantage on the mutant strain under
certain environmental conditions, such that the progeny of
the mutant cell are able to grow and replace the parent

A

Selectable mutations

Example: antibiotic-resistant mutant that can grow in the
presence of an antibiotic that inhibits or kills the parent
and is thus selected under these conditions

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15
Q

_______:
* Confers neither an advantage or disadvantage over their
parent cells when grown in laboratory conditions
* Can detect by “screening” morphologies of colonies for
differences

A

Non-selectable mutations

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16
Q

______
* Selection is preferred over screening because selective conditions typically place
such severe restraints on the population that mutants are easily detectable

A

Genetic experiments

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17
Q

_______:
* A mutant strain with an additional nutritional requirement above that of the wild-type or
parental strain (i.e. prototroph) from which it was derived

A

Nutritional Auxotrophs

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18
Q

______ – are those that occur without external intervention, and most result from
occasional errors in the pairing of bases by DNA polymerase during replication

A

Spontaneous mutation

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19
Q

______ – are those caused by environmental agents such as UV light that alters the
structure of bases in the DNA, and chemicals that chemically modify DNA → mutagens

A

Induced mutation

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20
Q

_______ (a.k.a. base-pair substitutions)
* Mutations that change only one base pair
* Change, if any, in phenotype depends on where in the genome the mutation occurs and
the nature of the mutation

A

Point mutations

transitions or transversions, silent mutations, missense mutation, nonsense mutation

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21
Q

_____ mutation – change within a base category (A to/from G; C to/from T)

A

Transition

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22
Q

______ mutation – change between base categories (A/G to/from C/T)

A

Transversion

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23
Q

If a point mutation is within the region of a gene that encodes a polypeptide, any change in the phenotype of the cell is most likely the result of a change in the ________ of that polypeptide

A

amino acid sequence

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24
Q

______ in coding
regions are almost always in the
third base of the codon because
of genetic code degeneracy

A

Silent mutations

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25
_____ and _____ can also have silent mutations in the first position
Arginine and leucine
26
_____: Changes in the first or second base of the codon more often lead to significant changes in the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide
missense mutation Impact on final protein depends on location of changed amino acid, and how it can affect folding and/or activity
27
____: Possible outcome can also be the formation of a stop (nonsense) codon resulting in premature termination of translation, leading to an incomplete polypeptide
nonsense mutation Unless nonsense mutation is very near the end of the gene, the product is incompletely made and truncated protein are either inactive or lack normal activity
28
_______ within a structural gene * Because genetic code is read in consecutive blocks of three bases (codon), any deletion or insertion of one or two base pair(s) results in a shift in the reading frame, scrambling the entire polypeptide sequence downstream of the mutation * Insertion or deletion of three base pairs will result in insertion or deletion of a codon
Frameshift mutations
29
Point mutations are typically reversible → a process known as ______
reversion
30
______ = a strain in which the original phenotype that was changed in the mutant is restored by a second mutation * May be spontaneous or induced
Revertant
31
if impacting a structural gene, two types of revertants: what are they?
same-site revertant second-site revertant
32
_______ = the mutation that restores activity is at the same site as the original mutation * if back mutation is not only at the same site but also restores the original sequence → true revertant
Same-site revertant
33
______ = Restore wild-type phenotype and genotype
True reversions
34
________ = the mutation is at a different site in the DNA * Can restore a wild-type phenotype if they function as suppressor mutations (mutations that compensate for the effect of the original mutation)
Second-site revertant
35
_______: (mutations that compensate for the effect of the original mutation)
suppressor mutations
36
these are the classes of _______: 1. A mutation somewhere else in the same gene that restores enzyme function, such as a second frameshift mutation near the first that restores the original reading frame 2. 3. A mutation in another gene that restores the function of the original mutated gene A mutation in another gene that results in the production of an enzyme that can replace the nonfunctional one
supressor mutations
37
T/F: Suppressor tRNA mutations would be lethal unless a cell has more than one tRNA gene for a particular codon, which most microorganisms do
true!! For example, E. coli has 86 tRNA genes that encode 40 mature tRNA isotypes associated with the standard 20 amino acids.
38
Changes in large segments of DNA (a.k.a. ______) * May span 1 or more genes
macrolesions
39
these are all the types of ______: 1. Large insertions or deletions 2. Duplications – segment of DNA is repeated at different site 3. Translocations – segment of DNA is moved to a different location on chromosome (same strand) 4. Inversions – segment is removed and inserted in the opposite direction (opposite strand)
macrolesions
40
T/F: Mutations (point, frameshift, insertions, deletions, etc.) can impact other regions of DNA including, but not limited to: * Promoter -35 boxes and -10 boxes, and spacing in between * Shine-Dalgarno/RBS sequences * Binding sites bound by DNA binding regulatory factors (activators or repressors) * Inverted repeats for transcription termination stemloops * Secondary structure of tRNA molecules * Regulatory non-coding RNA molecules
true!!
41
what are the four types of spontaneous mutations?
apurinic/apyrimidinic deamination tautomeric shift insertions and deletions
42
_______: * Loss of nitrogenous base * Covalent bond (glycosyl bond) between base and deoxyribose reacts with H2O (hydrolysis) thereby releasing the base + H2O * Generally corrected by DNA repair * If not, addition of any base occurs * Transition or transversion mutation
Apurinic or apyrimidinic sites
43
______: * Loss of amino group from cytosine, adenine, and guanine; but not thymine or uracil
Deamination
44
Adenine becomes ______ pairing with cytosine (AT to GC transition) * Guanine becomes ______ pairing with cytosine (no change) * Cytosine becomes ______ pairing with adenine (GC to AT transition) (spontaneous mutations!!)
hypoxanthine xanthine uracil
45
Specific repair mechanisms in place for _______; must act before next replication round before lesion becomes a point mutation
spontaneous mutations
46
________: * Occurs in DNA at low frequencies * Temporary change in base structure = tautomers * Proton shift - hydrogen atom and single bond switch with adjacent double bond → Changes hydrogen bonding characteristics * Keto to Enol forms * Amino and Imino forms
Tautomeric shift
47
_______: * Can occur during replication when one strand ‘slips’ * Displaced and forms a loop * Generally happens at a short stretch of same nucleotide type
Insertions and deletions
48
what are the five agents that induce mutagenesis?
base analogs chemicals that react with DNA alkylating agents intercalating agents radiation
49
_______: Molecules that resemble the purine and pyrimidine bases of DNA in structure, but display faulty base- pairing properties * If incorporated into DNA in place of the natural base, the DNA may replicate normally most of the time. However, DNA replication errors occur at higher frequencies at these sites due to incorrect base pairing → mutation
Nucleotide base analogs (induced mutagenesis)
50
______: Loss of an amino group resulting in an altered base * Altered bases will pair with inappropriate bases → transition mutation
Deamination of bases (induced mutagenesis)
51
Xanthine can base pair with cytosine and _____ * Hypoxanthine predominantly base pairs with _____
thymine cytosine (in the deamination of bases for induced mutagenesis)
52
______: Addition of alkyl (CH3, CH3CH2) groups to bases * e.g. Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS) commonly used in labs * Adds ethyl group to oxygen in any of four bases * Can cause transition mutations
Alkylation of bases
53
________ Planar molecules that insert between adjacent basepairs and push them apart → distort helical structure * Promotes single base insertions or deletions * Causes frameshift mutations
Intercalating agents
54
what is the ames test?
used to check if a chemical can cause mutations in DNA — in other words, whether it’s potentially mutagenic (and possibly carcinogenic). Salmonella typhimurium is auxotrophic for histidine (his-) * point mutation in gene Presence of a mutagen can cause a second mutation to revert back to wild-type phenotype * Rat liver extract * may activate mutagen * Monitor rate of mutation * Spontaneous vs. induced * Statistical analysis for significance * Different his- strains to determine type of mutation
55
________ (e.g. UV light) * Bases in DNA absorb UV light (abs max at 254 nm) * Causes cross-linking of pyrimidines (e.g. thymines) in DNA → pyrimidine dimers * Distorts helical structure of DNA * Interferes with DNA replication * DNA polymerase cannot use strand with dimer as a template
Non-ionizing radiation
56
T/F: Lagging strand synthesis not affected as much as leading strand synthesis, when exposed to non-ionizing radiation
true
57
T/F: Dimers are mutations – can be transmitted to progeny
false!! Dimers are not mutations – cannot be transmitted to progeny * No change in nucleotide sequence * Cause DNA damage, which can increase the likelihood of mutation
58
________ (e.g. X-rays, cosmic rays, gamma rays) * Cause water and other substances to ionize, resulting in the formation of free radicals such as the hydroxyl radical OH∙ * Free radicals react with and damage macromolecules in the cell, including DNA * Causes double-stranded and single stranded breaks that may lead to rearrangements or large deletions * Dose-dependent effect * DNA repair can occur, but if too much or too prolonged then cell death
Ionizing radiation
59
Mechanisms to repair ________ (including dimers) A. B. Error-free repair systems – restore original bp sequence Error-prone repair systems – can repair incorrectly and introduce mutations
damaged DNA
60
what are the five ways the cell performs error-free DNA repair?
akyltransferase photoreactivation repair system base excision repair nucleotide excision repair methyl-directed mismatch repair
61
_______: * Recognizes alkylated DNA → catalyzes transfer of methyl or ethyl group from base to cysteine side chain * One-time only use!
Alkyltransferase
62
________: * Does not replace, but separates fused bases * Activated by blue light * Photolyase contains a reduced flavin adenine dinucleotide (FADH2) * Absorbs light between (350 and 500 nm) * Energy used to separate fused bases * In absence of light → system cooperates with nucleotide excision repair system
Photoreactivation Repair System
63
_______: * Eliminate abnormal bases and pyrimidine dimers i. General purpose AP lyase → removes base and cuts out a small section including damaged nucleotide ii. Specific DNA glycosylases * Recognizes specific damaged bases * Break glycosyl bond between damaged base and sugar in the nucleotide * AP endonuclease cuts out a small section including damaged nucleotide * For both approaches: DNA is re-synthesized by DNA polymerase I and ligated
Base Excision Repair (BER)
64
_______ → removes base and cuts out a small section including damaged nucleotide
General purpose AP lyase
65
_______: * Recognizes specific damaged bases * Break glycosyl bond between damaged base and sugar in the nucleotide * AP endonuclease cuts out a small section including damaged nucleotide
Specific DNA glycosylases
66
explain how we would deaminate cytosine into uracil
i. Removal of damaged base by specific DNA glycosylase * e.g. uracil-DNA glycosylase ii. Resultant apyrimidinic site * AP site iii. AP endonuclease nicks 5’ side iv. DNA polymerase I removes nucleotides (5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity) and fills in v. Covalent linkage restored by ligase
67
_______: * Repair thymine dimers, missing bases, chemically modified bases * Segments of DNA removed * In E. coli: UvrA, UvrB, UvrC, UvrD * Uvr= ultraviolet light repair
Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER) (general response)
68
in NER, Complex of 2 UvrA and 1 UvrB scans DNA for distortions, and if one encountered, and binds to it, UvrA is released and UvrC binds, UvrC cuts the dimer, UvrD is a helicase and ______
removes the damaged region
69
what fills in the gap after UvrC removes the damaged region of DNA?
DNA polymerase and DNA ligase join the fragments
70
________: * Adenines in “GATC” sites are methylated * DAM (deoxyadenosine methylase) adds methyl group Recall: * Before replication, dsDNA is methylated on both strands → fully methylated * After replication, dsDNA is methylated only one strand (template) → hemi- methylated → requires DAM activity to complete methylation of new strand
Methyl-directed Mismatch Repair
71
Most mistakes occur in ______
newly synthesized DNA
72
If mismatch made by DNA polymerase is not caught by proof-reading components, then ______ repair can catch the mistake
mismatch
73
How does one know which strand is the “correct strand’?
Hemi-methylation distinguishes daughter strand for repair by complex
74
this explains the process of.... 1. MutS protein dimer binds to alteration in DNA causing minor distortion in helix 2. Two MutL proteins binds to MutS 3. One MutH binds the nearest GATC/CTAG sequence 4. MutH nuclease cuts the unmethylated DNA at GATC/CTAG sequence 5. Small segment of DNA containing mismatch is removed by UvrD helicase 6. Gap enlarged by exonucleases 7. New DNA region synthesized by DNA polymerase III and ligated to ends by ligase 8. GATC sites DAM’ed
mismatch repair
75
what is the error prone repair system?
the SOS response
76
_______: * Induced when DNA suffers extensive damage * Inaccurate – prone to mistakes * Results in mutations of any kind * Involves many of the same enzymes as other repair systems * Present at much higher levels * Accelerated repair
The SOS Response
77
_______ and _____ are the error-prone DNA polymerases
DNA pol IV (dinB) and DNA pol V (umuCD)
78
DNA pol IV (dinB) and DNA pol V (umuCD) can...
Can synthesize DNA over short gaps without a template * No proofreading – tendency to insert wrong nucleotides (just trying to maintain chromosome integrity)
79
Approximately 40 genes are involved in SOS repair * Includes genes for recA, uvrABC, dinB, umuCD, lexA, other genes * Genes are separated, but controlled by a common regulatory protein... what us it?
LexA (LexA regulon)
80
Under normal conditions: * All SOS repair genes are at least partially repressed by _____ * Some may be transcribed at low levels * Sufficient for DNA repair under normal conditions
LexA
81
Under heavy DNA damage conditions: * Occurrence of many single-stranded regions due to DNA replication in the presence of lesions.. what are the next two steps?
1. ssDNA activates RecA which stimulates LexA to undergo autoproteolysis 2. Loss of LexA leads to increased expression of SOS repair and lexA genes * LexA levels increase so that when ssDNA regions have been repaired SOS is shut off – autoregulation