Lecture Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Compare and contrast the general composition, function, and distribution of gray and white
matter throughout the central nervous system.

A

In general, gray matter within the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of dendrites and cell bodies that serve as processing, or “decision-making,” areas, whereas white matter is composed of myelinated axons that relay nerve signals to and from the gray matter.
Both the brain and the spinal cord contain white and gray matter. In both organs, the white matter contains the myelinated axons, whereas the gray matter contains the cell bodies and nonmyelinated processes of neurons. Yet, the location of the white and gray matters differ in the brain and the spinal cord.

The gray matter is the outermost structure in both the cerebrum and cerebellum. Having the gray matter on the outside assures a large surface area for the cell bodies of the cortical neurons, which send and receive information via the white matter underneath.

In the spinal cord, the gray matter is on the inside, surrounded by the white matter. The spinal cord has thirty-one spinal nerves arising at every vertebral level. Hence, in the spinal cord, the white matter on the outside carries axon tracts to and from the brain but also allows easy exit at every vertebral level. This leaves the cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons to be on the inner core of the spinal cord.

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2
Q

Explain the three functions of cerebrospinal fluid

A

Protect brain and spinal cord from trauma.

Supply nutrients to nervous system tissue.

Remove waste products from cerebral metabolism.

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3
Q

Describe the components that form the blood-brain barrier & how it protects the brain.

A

The perivascular feet of
the astrocytes and the tight endothelial junctions and thickened basement membrane of the capillaries work together to prevent harmful materials in the blood from reaching the brain. The blood brain barrier regulates the movement of most substances, but lipid-soluble substances can pass through the barrier freely.
The BBB is formed of specialized capillaries surrounded by astrocytes. Capillaries are typically composed of an endothelial lining resting on a basement membrane. Capillaries forming the BBB exhibit three significant structural differences from other capillaries. (1) The endothelial cells contain tight junctions, which prevent the passage of materials between cells. Thus, most substances are forced through the endothelial cells and their movement is controlled by membrane transport processes . (2) The capillary wall is made more substantial by a thickened basement membrane that further restricts the passage of substances from the blood into the brain. (3) The capillaries forming the BBB are wrapped in the perivascular feet of astrocytes, which form the outermost portion of the BBB.

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4
Q

explain the general functions of the left and right cerebral hemispheres

A
  1. Right hemi = language comprehension and visuospatial tasks (artistic tasks) and control the left side of the body
  2. Left hemi = The left hemisphere function is to control the right side of the body and is the educational and rational side of the brain. The left hemispheres functions are language, logic, science, written, communications, numbers. Skills, and reasoning.
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5
Q

Identify the role of the corpus callosum

A

The largest of these white matter tracts, the corpus callosum connects the hemispheres. The corpus callosum provides the main method of communication between these hemispheres.

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6
Q

Locate and list the general functions of the motor cortical regions & their association areas

A

Primary motor cortex- located at precentral gyrus of frontal lobe; controls skeletal muscles

Association- Premotor cortex, located in front of precentral gyrus, deals with coordination

Certain motor functions have been mapped to specific areas of the frontal lobe, including the motor speech area and the frontal eye field. The motor speech area (also known as the Broca area) is located in most individuals within the inferolateral portion of the left frontal lobe. This region is responsible for regulating the breathing and controlling the muscular movements necessary for vocalization. The frontal eye field is within the frontal lobe immediately superior to the motor speech area. This cortical area controls and regulates the eye movements needed for reading and coordinating binocular vision. Some investigators include the frontal eye fields within the premotor area.
The primary motor cortical regions are connected to adjacent association areas that coordinate discrete skeletal muscle movement. The premotor cortex also is called the somatic motor association area, and it is located within the frontal lobe immediately anterior to the precentral gyrus. It is primarily responsible for coordinating learned, skilled motor activities, such as moving the eyes in a coordinated fashion when reading a book or playing the guitar.

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7
Q

Compare and contrast the sensory cortical regions and their association areas

A

Each primary cortical region typically has an association area. The general function of association areas is to receive input from the primary region and integrate the current sensory input with previous experiences and memories.
The primary somatosensory cortex is housed within the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobes. Neurons within this cortex receive general somatic sensory information from receptors of the skin regarding touch, pressure, pain, and temperature, as well as sensory input from proprioceptors from the joints and muscles regarding the conscious interpretation of body position. We typically are conscious of the sensations received by this cortex. A sensory homunculus may be traced on the postcentral gyrus surface, similar to a motor homunculus. Thus, the lips, fingers, and genital region occupy larger portions of the homunculus, whereas the trunk of the body has proportionately fewer receptors, so its associated homunculus region is smaller.
The somatosensory association area is located within the parietal lobe and lies immediately posterior to the primary somatosensory cortex. It integrates sensory information and interprets sensations to determine the texture, temperature, pressure, and shape of objects. The somatosensory association area allows us to identify known objects without seeing them.
The primary visual cortex is located within the occipital lobe, where it receives and processes incoming visual information. The visual association area is located within the occipital lobe and it surrounds the primary visual area. The primary auditory cortex is located within the temporal lobe, where it receives and processes auditory information. The auditory association area is located within the temporal lobe, posteroinferior to the primary auditory cortex. Within this association area, the cortical neurons interpret the characteristics of sound and store memories of sounds heard in the past.
The primary olfactory cortex is also located within the temporal lobe and provides conscious awareness of smells. Finally, the primary gustatory cortex is within the insula and is involved in processing taste information.

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8
Q

Explain the functions of the prefrontal cortex

A

A functional brain region acts as a multi-association area between lobes for integrating information from individual association areas. One functional brain region is the prefrontal cortex, located in the most anterior (rostral) portions of the frontal lobes. The prefrontal cortex is associated with many higher intellectual functions such as complex thought, judgment, expression of personality, planning future behaviors, and decision making.

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9
Q

Describe the main functions of the Wernicke area

A

Another functional brain region is the Wernicke area, which is typically located only within the left hemisphere. The Wernicke area is involved in recognizing, understanding, and comprehending spoken or written language.

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10
Q

Identify and describe the three main tracts of the central white matter.

A

Association tracts connect different regions of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.
Commissural tracts extend between the cerebral hemispheres through axonal bridges called commissures. The prominent commissural tracts that link the left and right cerebral hemispheres include the large, C-shaped corpus callosum and the smaller anterior and posterior commissure
Projection tracts link the cerebral cor- tex to both the inferior brain regions and the spinal cord.

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11
Q

Define cerebral lateralization & contrast the general functions of the left and right hemispheres in most individuals.

A

The hemispheres also differ with respect to some of their functions. Each hemisphere tends to be specialized for certain tasks, a phenomenon called cerebral lateralization or hemispheric lateralization. Higher-order centers in both hemispheres tend to have different but complementary functions.
In most people, the left hemisphere is the categorical hemisphere. It usually contains the Wernicke area and the motor speech area. It is specialized for language abilities and is important in performing sequential and analytical reasoning tasks, such as those required in science and mathematics. The term categorical hemisphere reflects this hemisphere’s function in categorization and identification.
The right hemisphere is called the representational hemisphere, because it is concerned with visuospatial relationships and analyses. It is the seat of imagination and insight, musical and artistic skill, perception of patterns and spatial relationships, and comparison of sights, sounds, smells, and tastes.

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12
Q

Describe the primary function of the cerebral nuclei

A

The cerebral nuclei are paired, irregular masses of gray matter buried deep within the central white matter in the basal (deepest) region of the cerebral hemispheres inferior to the floor of the lateral ventricle. In general, the cerebral nuclei primarily help regulate motor output initiated by the cerebral cortex, to help inhibit unwanted movements. Diseases that affect the cerebral nuclei often are associated with jerky, involuntary movements.

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13
Q

Describe components composing the epithalamus and explain their functions.

A

The epithalamus partially forms the posterior roof of the diencephalon and covers the third ventricle. The posterior portion of the epithalamus houses the pineal gland and the habenular nuclei.
The pineal gland, or pineal body, is an endocrine gland. It secretes the hormone melatonin, which appears to help regulate day-night cycles known as the body’s circadian rhythm.
The habenular nuclei relay signals from the limbic system to the midbrain and are involved in visceral and emotional responses to odors.

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14
Q

Explain the functions of the thalamus

A

The thalamus is the principal and final relay point for incoming sensory information that is processed and then projected to the appropriate lobe of the cerebral cortex. Only a relatively small portion of the sensory information that arrives at the thalamus is forwarded to the cerebrum because the thalamus acts as an information filter. For example, the thalamus is responsible for filtering out the sounds and sights in a crowded cafeteria when you are trying to study. The thalamus also “clues in” the cerebrum about where this sensory information came from. For example, the thalamus lets the cerebrum know that sensory information it receives came from the eye, indicating that the information is visual.

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15
Q

Describe the functions of the hypothalamus.

A

Master control of the autonomic nervous system
Master control of the endocrine system
Regulation of body temperature
Control of food intake
Control of water intake
Regulation of sleep-wake (circadian) rhythms
Control of emotional behavior

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16
Q

Describe the major components of the midbrain and explain their functions

A

The midbrain and hindbrain together form the brainstem. The midbrain connects the forebrain to the hindbrain. The parts of the midbrain are:

  1. Tectum: It is involved in reflex actions in response to the auditory and visual stimuli.
  2. Cerebral aqueduct: It links the third and the fourth ventricle and is involved in the continuity of the cerebrospinal fluid. This area controls all the major movements of the eye.
  3. Tegmentum: It is involved in giving our memory its sharpness. It is also involved in homeostasis and reflex actions. The ventral tegmental area is the largest dopamine-producing area of the brain.The tegmentum contains the pigmented red nuclei and the reticular formation. The reddish color of these nuclei is due to both blood vessel density and iron pigmentation in the neuronal cell bodies. The tegmentum integrates information from the cerebrum and cerebellum and issues involuntary motor commands to the erector spinae muscles of the back to help maintain posture while standing, bending at the waist, or walking.
  4. Cerebral peduncles: It is mainly involved in motor-planning, learning, addiction, and other activities.

5.The substantia nigra consists of bilaterally symmetric nuclei within the midbrain. Its name derives from its almost black appearance due to melanin pigmentation. The substantia nigra houses clusters of neurons that produce the neurotransmitter dopamine, which affects brain processes to control movement, emotional response, and ability to experience pleasure and pain.

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17
Q

Describe the major structures in the pons and explain their functions.

A

The pons is a bulging region on the anterior part of the brainstem. Sensory and motor tracts are located within the pons and extend through it to connect to the brain and spinal cord. Additionally, the middle cerebellar peduncles are transverse axons that connect the pons to the cerebellum.
The pons houses autonomic nuclei in the pontine respiratory center . This vital center, along with the medullary respiratory center within the medulla oblongata, regulates the skeletal muscles of breathing. The primary function of the pontine respiratory center is to regulate a smooth transition between breathing in and breathing out.
The superior olivary nuclei are located in the inferior portion of the pons. Each nucleus receives auditory input and is involved in the pathway for sound localization.
The pons also houses sensory and motor cranial nerve nuclei for the trigeminal (CN V), abducens (CN VI), and facial (CN VII) cranial nerves. Some of the nuclei for the vestibulocochlear cranial nerve (CN VIII) also are located there.

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18
Q

Describe the major structures in the medulla oblongata and explain their functions.

A

It is the most inferior part of the brainstem and is continuous with the spinal cord inferiorly. All communication between the brain and spinal cord involves tracts that ascend or descend through the medulla oblongata
The anterior surface exhibits two longitudinal ridges called the pyramids, which house the motor projection tracts called the corticospinal (pyramidal) tracts that extend through the medulla oblongata. In the anterior region of the medulla, most of the axons of the pyramidal tracts cross to the opposite side of the brain at a point called the decussation of the pyramids. As a result of the crossover, each cerebral hemisphere controls the voluntary movements of the opposite side of the body. Immediately lateral to each pyramid is a distinct bulge, called the olive, which contains a large fold of gray matter called the inferior olivary nucleus. The inferior olivary nuclei relay ascending sensory nerve signals, especially proprioceptive information, to the cerebellum. Additionally, paired inferior cerebellar peduncles are tracts that connect the medulla oblongata to the cerebellum.

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19
Q

Explain the functions of the cerebellum

A

The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain. It coordinates fine control over skeletal muscle actions and stores memories of movement patterns, such as the playing of scales on a piano. The cerebellum has several additional functions. Skeletal muscle activity is adjusted to maintain equilibrium and posture. It also receives proprioceptive (sensory) information from the muscles and joints and uses this information to regulate the body’s position.

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20
Q

Explain how the cerebellum and cerebral regions control and modify motor programming to produce somatic motor movement.

A

Voluntary movements
The primary motor cortex and the basal nuclei in the forebrain send impulses through the nuclei of the pons to the cerebellum.

Assessment of voluntary movements
Proprioceptors in skeletal muscles and joints report degree of movement to the cerebellum.

Integration and analysis
The cerebellum compares the planned movements (motor signals) against the results of the actual movements (sensory signals).

Corrective feedback
The cerebellum sends impulses through the thalamus to the primary motor cortex and to motor nuclei in the brainstem.

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21
Q

Describe the main functions of the limbic system

A

The limbic system is composed of multiple cerebral and diencephalic structures that collectively process and experience emotions. Thus, the limbic system is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain.

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22
Q

Describe the function of the reticular formation

A

Projecting vertically through the core of the midbrain, pons, and medulla is a loosely organized mass of gray matter called the reticular formation. The reticular formation extends slightly into the diencephalon and the spinal cord as well. This func- tional brain system has both motor and sensory components.
The motor component of the reticular formation communicates with the spinal cord and is responsible for regulating muscle tone. This motor component also assists in autonomic motor functions, such as respiration, blood pressure, and heart rate, by working with the autonomic centers in the medulla and pons.
The sensory component of the reticular formation is responsible for alerting the cerebrum to incoming sensory information. This sensory component is called the reticular activating system (RAS), and it contains sensory axons that project to the cerebral cortex. The RAS processes visual, auditory, and touch stimuli and uses this infor- mation to keep us in a state of mental alertness. Additionally, the RAS arouses us from sleep.
Consciousness includes an awareness of sensation, voluntary control of motor activities, and the activities necessary for higher mental processing.

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23
Q

Describe how an electroencephalogram examines brain activity

A

An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a diagnostic test where electrodes are attached to the head to record the electrical activity of the brain. This procedure is performed to investigate sleep disorders and lesions, and to determine if an individual is in a coma or a persistent vegetative state. EEGs also may evaluate a seizure, which is an event of abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Epilepsy is the condition where a person experiences repeated seizures over time.
An EEG measures and plots four types of brain waves (i.e., alpha, beta, theta, and delta). The distribution and frequency of these waves vary, depending upon whether the person is a child or an adult and if the individual is in a deep sleep, having a seizure, or experiencing a pathologic state of consciousness. For example, alpha and beta waves are typically seen in an awake or alert state, whereas theta and delta waves are more common during sleep. The presence of theta and delta waves in an awake adult is suggestive of a brain abnormality. Each electrode attached to a person’s head will register a brain wave over that region of the head, so a patient’s EEG printout will show multiple brain waves over a period of time.

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24
Q

Describe the main characteristics of sleep, including comparing non-REM & REM sleep

A

Both types are distinguished by their EEG patterns and the absence or presence of rapid eye movements, respectively. In addition, it is during REM sleep that we have our most memorable dreams. We spend about 75% of our total sleep time in non-REM sleep, and the remaining 25% in REM sleep.
Non-REM sleep may be further subdivided into four stages. The EEG has helped scientists detect these four stages. We cycle through these non-REM stages and REM sleep multiple times throughout a normal-length sleep cycle. The different stages of non-REM sleep differ in the types of brain waves present (e.g., alpha, beta, theta, and delta) and the ease at which one may be awakened. After about 90 minutes of non-REM sleep, the first incidence of REM sleep occurs and typically lasts about 10 minutes. The body then cycles back into non-REM sleep and then a longer period of REM sleep.

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25
Q

Compare and contrast short-term and long-term memory and describe the parts of the brain involved with each

A

Short-term memory (STM) is generally characterized by limited capacity (approximately seven small segments of information) and brief duration (typically lasting less than 1 minute unless the information is rehearsed). Once information is placed into long-term memory (LTM), it may exist for limitless periods of time. So, for example, if over the weekend you practice retrieving the information from lecture and/or work with a study partner to explain a lecture concept, you likely will store the information as LTM within the cerebral lobes.
Conversion from STM to LTM is called encoding, or memory consolidation. Encoding requires the proper functioning of two components of the limbic system: the hippocampus and the amygdaloid body. The hippocampus is required for the formation of STM, whereas LTM is stored primarily in the corresponding association areas of the cerebral cortex. For example, voluntary motor activity memory is stored in the premotor cortex, whereas memory of sounds is stored in the auditory association area.
Because STM and LTM involve different anatomic structures, loss of the ability to form STM does not affect the maintenance or accessibility of LTM.

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26
Q

Explain the interactions of the prefrontal cortex and the limbic system inexpression of
emotions

A

Expression of our emotions is interpreted by our limbic system but ultimately is controlled by the prefrontal cortex. Irrespective of how we feel, this cortical region decides the appropriate way to show our feelings. Researchers have learned that many important aspects of emotion also depend upon an intact, functional amygdaloid body and hippocampus (components of the limbic system). If specific regions of either of these structures are damaged or artificially stimulated, we exhibit either deadened or exaggerated expressions of aggression, affection, anger, fear, love, pain, pleasure, or sexuality, as well as anomalies in learning and memory.

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27
Q

Cranial nerves I

A

CN I Olfactory Nerve
Sensory nerve for olfaction (smell)

CN II Optic Nerve
Sensory nerve for vision

CN III Oculomotor Nerve
Motor nerve that controls muscles that move eye, lift eyelid, change pupil diameter, change lens shape

CN IV Trochlear Nerve
Motor nerve that controls superior oblique eye muscle

CN V Trigeminal Nerve
Mixed nerve that receives somatic sensation from face; controls muscles involved in chewing

CN VI Abducens Nerve
Motor nerve that controls lateral rectus muscle that abducts eye

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28
Q

Cranial nerves II

A

CN VII Facial Nerve
Mixed nerve that controls muscles of facial expression and conducts taste sensations from tongue

CN VIII Vestibulocochlear Nerve
Sensory nerve involved in hearing and equilibrium

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve
Mixed nerve that receives taste and touch from tongue; motor control of pharynx muscle

CN X Vagus Nerve
Mixed nerve that controls muscles in pharynx and larynx; conducts sensation from many viscera; major source of parasympathetic output

CN XI Accessory Nerve
Motor nerve that controls muscles of neck, pharynx

CN XII Hypoglossal Nerve
Motor nerve that controls tongue muscles

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29
Q

Describe the two primary functions of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.

A

Their first function is to provide an essential structural and functional link between the brain and the torso and limbs of the body. Sensory input is relayed from the torso and limbs to the brain, and motor output is relayed from the brain to the torso and limbs. These vital inputs and outputs are relayed along neuron pathways that are within the spinal cord and spinal nerves. Notice that both sensory input and motor output are relayed along the pathways within the spinal cord and spinal nerves.
The second important function of the spinal cord and spinal nerves is their role in spinal reflexes. These involve nervous system responses that do not require the involvement of the brain, but instead have the spinal cord as the integration center. Spinal reflexes initiate our quickest reactions to a stimulus. It is through spinal reflexes that the spinal cord exhibits some functional independence from the brain.

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30
Q

Trace sensory input to the spinal cord and motor output from the spinal cord

A

sensory input is relayed from receptors within torso and limbs to the brain

motor output is relayed from brain to effectors, or the muscles and glands of the torso and limbs.

This information is relayed along various neural pathways

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31
Q

List the four anatomic divisions of the white matter and describe their general composition

A

White matter is (1) primarily composed of myelinated axons and (2) functioning to relay nerve signals. The white matter of the spinal cord is external to the gray matter and on each side of the cord is partitioned into three distinct anatomic structural regions based upon their location within the spinal cord. Each of these regions is called a funiculus. Each posterior funiculus is white matter that lies between the posterior gray horns on the posterior side of the cord and the posterior median sulcus. The lateral funiculus is the white matter on each lateral side of the spinal cord. The anterior funiculus is composed of white matter that occupies the space on each anterior side of the cord between anterior gray horns and the anterior median fissure; the anterior funiculi are interconnected by the white commissure. The axons within each funiculus are organized into smaller structural units (or bundles of myelinated axons) called fasciculi.

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32
Q

Define a tract and differentiate between sensory and motor tracts.

A

White matter on each side of the cord can also be referred to as tracts, which have common functions. Individual tracts are either (1) sensory (or ascending) tracts, which conduct nerve signals from the spinal cord to the brain, or (2) motor (or descending) tracts, which conduct nerve signals from the brain to the spinal cord.

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33
Q

Differentiate between sensory pathways and motor pathways

A

Sensory pathways include the sensory neurons that relay sensory input to the brain. Sensory pathways are also called ascending pathways because the nerve signals are relayed from the sensory receptors superiorly to the brain. Motor pathways include the series of motor neurons that relay motor output from the brain. Motor pathways are also called descending pathways because the nerve signals are relayed from the brain inferiorly to the body’s muscles and glands.

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34
Q

List and explain the features common to all pathways

A

Most conduction pathways—whether sensory or motor—share several general characteristics:

Paired tracts. All pathways are composed of paired tracts. Thus, a pathway on one side of the CNS has a matching tract on the other side of the CNS.

Composed of two or more neurons. Most pathways are composed of a series of two or three neurons that form the pathway.
Common location of neuron cell bodies. Neuron cell bodies are located in one of three general places: the posterior root ganglion, the gray horns within the spinal cord, or nuclei within the brain along the pathway.

Common location of axons. The axons of the different neurons extend through spinal nerves, the spinal cord (as named tracts or fasciculi), and the brain.

Decussation. Most pathways include neurons that cross over, or decussate, from one side of the body to the other side at some point along the pathway—within either the spinal cord or the brain. This means that the left side of the brain receives sensory input from or initiates motor output to the right side of the body, whereas the right side of the brain receives sensory input from or initiates motor output to the left side of the body. The term contralateral is used to indicate the relationship to the opposite side. Over 90% of all neurons within pathways decussate.

Limited ipsilateral pathway. Pathways may have some neurons (about 10%) that remain on the same side of the body. The term ipsilateral is used to indicate the relationship to the same side.

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35
Q

Define a general sense receptor and describe its subcategories

A

General sense receptors are sensory receptors located throughout the body. General sense receptors are subdivided into two categories: somatic sensory (or somatosensory) receptors and visceral sensory receptors. Somatic sensory (or somatosensory) receptors are tactile receptors or proprioceptors. Tactile receptors are housed within both the skin and mucous membranes that line body cavities. These sensory receptors monitor characteristics of an object (e.g., texture). Proprioceptors are located within joints, muscles, and tendons to detect stretch and pressure relative to position and movement of the skeleton and skeletal muscles. Visceral sensory receptors are located in the walls of the viscera (internal organs) and blood vessels. They detect changes to an organ or a blood vessel (e.g., stretch).

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36
Q

List and describe the three type of neurons used in a sensory pathway

A

Sensory pathways use a series of two or three neurons to transmit nerve signals from the sensory receptors to the brain, which are the primary neuron, secondary neuron, and tertiary neuron.
∙ The primary neuron is the first neuron in the chain of neurons. The primary neuron extends from the sensory receptor to the CNS (brain or spinal cord), where it synapses with a secondary neuron.
∙ The secondary neuron is an interneuron that extends from the primary neuron to either the tertiary neuron or the cerebellum.
∙ The tertiary neuron is also an interneuron. It extends from the secondary neuron to the cerebrum (specifically, the primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe). Pathways that lead to the cerebellum do not have a tertiary neuron.

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37
Q

List the three major somatosensory pathways and type of receptors in each

A

The anterolateral pathway (or spinothalamic pathway) uses a chain of three neurons to communicate with the brain about a specific stimulus. This pathway originates at tactile somatosensory receptors within both the skin and mucous membranes. This sensory input is providing information to the brain (specifically, the cerebral cortex) about crude touch and pressure as well as pain and temperature.

The posterior funiculus–medial lemniscal pathway uses a chain of three sensory neurons to communicate with the brain about a specific stimulus. This pathway originates at either of the two types of somatosensory receptors: (1) tactile receptors housed within both the skin and mucous membranes or (2) proprioceptors within joints, muscles, and tendons. This sensory input is providing information to the brain (specifically, the cerebral cortex) about discriminative touch, precise pressure, and vibration sensations from the tactile receptors of the skin and with conscious perception of the skeleton and skeletal muscles from proprioceptors.

The spinocerebellar pathway uses a chain of only two neurons to communicate with the brain about a specific stimulus. This pathway originates at proprioceptors within joints, muscles, and tendons at different locations in the body. This sensory input is providing information to the brain (specifically, the cerebellum) related to subconscious postural input, which helps in maintaining balance

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38
Q

Distinguish between an upper motor neuron and a lower motor neuron, based upon function and cell body location

A

An upper motor neuron is the first neuron in a chain of neurons. The cell body of the upper motor neuron is housed within the cerebral cortex, cerebral nuclei, or a specific nucleus within the brainstem. Axons of the upper motor neuron synapse either directly upon lower motor neurons (in direct pathways) or upon interneurons that ultimately synapse upon lower motor neurons (in indirect pathways). The upper motor neurons either excite or inhibit the activity of lower motor neurons.
∙ The lower motor neuron is the last neuron in the chain of neurons. The cell body of a lower motor neuron is housed within the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Axons of the lower motor neurons exit the spinal cord through the anterior root and project to and innervate a specific skeletal muscle. The lower motor neuron always excites the skeletal muscle fibers to contract.

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39
Q

Compare the functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways

A

DIRECT PATHWAY houses Corticobulbar tracts: Voluntary movement of cranial and facial muscles
Lateral corticospinal tracts: Voluntary movement of appendicular muscles
Anterior corticospinal tracts: Voluntary movement of axial muscles

INDIRECT PATHWAY houses
Lateral Pathway:
Rubrospinal tract: Regulates and controls precise discrete movements and tone in flexor muscles of the limbs

Medial Pathway:
Reticulospinal tract:
Controls reflexive movements related to posture and maintaining balance
Tectospinal tract: Regulates reflexive positional changes of the upper limbs, eyes, head, and neck due to visual and auditory stimuli
Vestibulospinal tract: Regulates reflexive muscular activity that helps maintain balance during sitting, standing, and walking

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40
Q

Describe the properties of a reflex

A

Reflexes are rapid, preprogrammed, involuntary responses of muscles or glands to a stimulus.
All reflexes have similar properties:
∙ A stimulus is required to initiate a reflex.
∙ A rapid response requires that few neurons are involved and synaptic delay is minimal.
∙ A preprogrammed response occurs the same way every time.
∙ An involuntary response requires no conscious intent or preawareness of the reflex activity. Thus, reflexes are usually not suppressed.

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41
Q

Explain the general function of a reflex

A

A reflex is a survival mechanism; it allows us to quickly respond to a stimulus that may be detrimental to our well-being without having to wait for the brain to process the information. Awareness of the stimulus occurs after the reflex action has been completed, in time to correct or avoid a potentially dangerous situation. (This is possible because sensory input has reached the cerebral cortex.)

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42
Q

List the structures involved in a reflex arc and explain the main steps in a reflex

A

1 A stimulus activates a sensory receptor. A sensory receptor (dendritic endings of a sensory neuron or specialized receptor cells) responds to external and internal stimuli, such as temperature, pressure, or tactile changes. Proprioceptors are sensory receptors found in muscles and tendons, and a stimulus to a proprioceptor (such as the tapping of tendon) may initiate a reflex as well.
2 The sensory neuron transmits a nerve signal to the CNS. A sensory neuron transmits a nerve signal from the receptor to the spinal cord (or brain).
3 Information from the nerve signal is processed in the integration center by interneurons.
4 The motor neuron transmits a nerve signal from the CNS to an effector. A motor neuron transmits a nerve signal from the CNS to a peripheral effector organ—a gland or a muscle.
5 The effector responds to the nerve signal from the motor neuron. An effector is a muscle or a gland that responds to the nerve signal from the motor neuron. This response is intended to counteract or remove the original stimulus.

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43
Q

Explain the five ways a reflex may be classified

A

Spinal reflex or cranial reflex. A reflex may be identified by the specific area of the central nervous system (integration center) that serves as the processing site. Spinal reflexes involve the spinal cord, whereas cranial reflexes involve the brain.

∙ Somatic reflex or visceral reflex. This classification criterion is determined by the type of effector that is stimulated by the motor neurons involved in the reflex. Somatic reflexes involve skeletal muscle as the effector. Visceral (or autonomic) reflexes involve cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, or a gland as the effector.

∙ Monosynaptic reflex or polysynaptic reflex. A reflex may also be classified by the number of neurons participating in the reflex. A monosynaptic reflex has only a sensory neuron and a motor neuron. The axon of the sensory neuron synapses directly on the motor neuron, whose axon projects to the effector. Thus, there is only one synapse between neurons.

Ipsilateral reflex or contralateral reflex. The reflex may also be classified based upon whether it involves only one side of the body. An ipsilateral reflex is a reflex in which both the receptor and effector organs are on the same side of the spinal cord. A contralateral reflex is a reflex that involves an effector on the opposite side of the body from the receptor that detected the stimulus. Note that this terminology is only applicable to reflexes that involve the limbs.

Innate reflex or acquired reflex. The reflex may be classified based upon whether you are born with it.

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44
Q

Name and describe four common spinal reflexes

A

A stretch reflex is a simple monosynaptic reflex. A stretching force detected by a muscle spindle results in the contraction of that muscle. Conversely, antagonistic muscle contraction is dampened, in a process called reciprocal inhibition.

A Golgi tendon reflex is a polysynaptic reflex. A contraction force detected by a Golgi tendon organ (within the tendon of the muscle) results in relaxation of that muscle. Conversely, antagonistic muscles are stimulated to contract, a process called reciprocal activation.

A withdrawal reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that is initiated by a painful stimulus. The crossed-extensor reflex occurs in response to the withdrawal reflex, by stimulating the extensor muscles in the opposite limb and thereby ensuring the opposite limb supports the body’s weight.

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45
Q

Differentiate between the SNS and the ANS

A

Similarities: Sensory & Motor components
Differences: SNS: Detect stimuli and transmission of nerve signals from the special senses, skin, & proprioreceptors to the CNS.
Ex. Taste dinner, see mountains, or smell a babies skin.
ANS: functions below the conscious level. Detect stimuli associated with blood vessels & internal organs. Initiate and transmit nerve signals from the CNS to cardiac, smooth muscle, and glands.
Ex. Monitor carbon dioxide concentration in the blood

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46
Q

Compare and contrast lower motor neurons in the SNS and ANS

A

Somatic Nervous System
Number of neurons in pathway
One neuron from CNS: Somatic motor neuron axon extends from CNS to effector

Axon properties
Myelinated and thicker in diameter; fast nerve signal propagation

Neurotransmitter released
Acetylcholine (ACh)

Response of effector
Excitation only

Ganglia associated with motor neurons: None

Autonomic Nervous Systems
Number of neurons:
Two neurons from CNS: Preganglionic neuron has preganglionic axon that projects to ganglionic neuron; ganglionic neuron has postganglionic axon that projects to effector

Axon properties
Preganglionic axons are myelinated and small in diameter
Postganglionic axons are unmyelinated and smaller in diameter; both have relatively slow nerve signal propagation

Neurotransmitter released
Preganglionic axons release ACh
Postganglionic axons release either ACh or norepinephrine (NE)

Response of effector
Either excitation or inhibition

Ganglia associated
Parasympathetic division: terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia Sympathetic division: sympathetic trunk ganglia, prevertebral ganglia

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47
Q

Describe how the two-neuron chain in the ANS facilitates communication and control

A

The autonomic nervous system employs a chain of two lower motor neurons, a preganglionic neuron and a ganglionic neuron. The dendrites and cell body of a preganglionic neuron are housed within the CNS (brain or spinal cord). The preganglionic axon synapses with a ganglionic neuron within an autonomic ganglion. The postganglionic axon extends to an effector organ, which includes cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands.

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48
Q

Describe the CNS hierarchy that controls the autonomic nervous system

A

Autonomic function is regulated by three CNS regions: the hypothalamus, brainstem, and spinal cord. These CNS regions may be influenced by the cerebrum, thalamus, and limbic system.

Hypothalamus: Integration and command center for autonomic functions; involved in emotions

Brainstem: Contains major ANS reflex centers

Spinal Cord: Contains ANS reflex centers for defecation and urination

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49
Q

Compare and contrast the general functions of the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

The parasympathetic division functions to maintain homeostasis when we are at rest. This division is primarily concerned with conserving energy and replenishing nutrient stores. Because it is most active when the body is at rest or digesting a meal, the parasympathetic division has been nicknamed the rest-and-digest division.
The sympathetic division functions to maintain homeostasis during exercise or times of stress or emergency, which includes the release of nutrients from stores (e.g., glucose released from the liver). Because of its function in regulating the more active states, the sympathetic division has been nicknamed the fight-or-flight division. (three Es: exercise, excitement, or emergency.)

50
Q

Compare and contrast the anatomic differences in the lower motor neurons and associated ganglia of the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions

A

One of the major differences is where the preganglionic neuron cell bodies are housed in the CNS. Parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies are located in either the brainstem or the lateral gray matter of the S2–S4 spinal cord segments, and for this reason this division is also termed the craniosacral division. In comparison, sympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in the lateral horns of the T1–L2 spinal cord segments, and so this division also goes by the phrase the thoracolumbar division.
Other anatomic differences between the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system include:
∙ Length of preganglionic and postganglionic axons. Parasympathetic preganglionic axons are longer, and postganglionic axons are shorter, when compared to their counterparts in the sympathetic division. In the sympathetic division, preganglionic axons are shorter and postganglionic axons are longer.
∙ Number of preganglionic axon branches. Parasympathetic preganglionic axons tend to have few (less than 4) branches, whereas sympathetic preganglionic axons tend to have many branches (more than 20).
Location of ganglia. Parasympathetic autonomic ganglia are either close to or within the effector (terminal ganglia and intramural ganglia, respectively). In comparison, sympathetic autonomic ganglia are relatively close to the spinal cord, and are on either side of the spinal cord or anterior to the spinal cord (sympathetic trunk ganglia and prevertebral ganglia, respectively).

51
Q

Explain why parasympathetic activation is local and discrete, and sympathetic activation can result in mass activation

A

It is the combination of long preganglionic axons with limited branches that results in a local response when the parasympathetic division is activated. Parasympathetic activity regulates either one or only a few structures at the same time without having to “turn on” or “turn off” all the other organs.
In comparison, the combination of short preganglionic axons with more extensive branching within the sympathetic division allows for significant neuronal divergence and facilitates the activation of many structures simultaneously, a process called mass activation. This process is facilitated when the adrenal medulla is stimulated by the sympathetic division, which causes this gland to release norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood. Mass activation is especially important in response to stress, when it is necessary to coordinate rapid changes in activity with numerous structures at once.

52
Q

Name the four cranial nerves associated with the parasympathetic division and describe their functions

A

The cranial nerves containing neurons from the parasympathetic division are the oculomotor (CN III), facial (CN VII), glossopharyngeal (CN IX), and vagus (CN X) nerves. he first three of these nerves transmit parasympathetic innervation to the head, whereas the vagus nerve is the source of parasympathetic innervation for the thoracic and most abdominal organs.
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates both (1) the ciliary muscle (within the eye) to adjust the shape of the lens to see close-up objects and (2) the sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris (which constricts the pupil) to allow less light into the eye, such as when we first walk outside on a bright, sunny day

The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands in the floor of the mouth, lacrimal glands in the superior portion of each orbit, and small glands of the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and palate. Stimulation by the parasympathetic division increases release of secretion by these glands. Your mouth waters when you smell an aromatic meal due in part to these parasympathetic neurons within the facial nerve.

The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) innervates the parotid salivary glands and stimulates these glands to increase the release of their secretions. The axons of the preganglionic neurons extend from cell bodies within the brainstem to the otic ganglion, which is anterior to the ear. Postganglionic axons project from this ganglion to innervate the parotid salivary glands

The vagus nerve (CN X) innervates the thoracic organs and most of the abdominal organs, as well as the gonads (ovaries and testes). The influence of the vagus nerve is extensive, given the significant number of autonomic effectors this cranial nerve innervates.

53
Q

Describe the anatomic location of the cell bodies of the pelvic splanchnic nerves and the actions of the pelvic splanchnic nerves

A

These preganglionic axons extend through the anterior root and then branch to form the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which contribute to a superior and inferior hypogastric plexus on each side of the body. The preganglionic axons that continue through each plexus project to the ganglionic neurons within either the terminal or intramural ganglia. The postganglionic axons extend to the effector.
The target organs innervated include the distal portion of the large intestine, the rectum, the urinary bladder, the distal part of the ureter, and most of the reproductive organs. The parasympathetic regulation of these target organs causes increased smooth muscle motility (muscle contraction) and secretory activity in these portions of the digestive tract, contraction of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder wall and relaxation of the smooth muscle of the internal urethral sphincter, and erection of the female clitoris and the male penis.

54
Q

Describe where the sympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are located.

A

The sympathetic pre-ganglionic neuron cell bodies are housed in the lateral horn of the T1–L2 regions of the spinal cord. From there, the preganglionic sympathetic axons travel with somatic motor axons to exit the spinal cord through first the anterior roots and then the T1–L2 spinal nerves.

55
Q

Describe the components of left and right sympathetic trunks

A

Immediately lateral to the vertebral column and anterior to the paired spinal nerves are the left and right sympathetic trunks. A sympathetic trunk looks much like a pearl necklace. The “string” of the necklace is composed of bundles of axons, whereas the “pearls” are the sympathetic trunk ganglia (also known as paravertebral or sympathetic chain ganglia), which house sympathetic ganglionic neuron cell bodies.

56
Q

Describe the four pathways of sympathetic neurons after they exit sympathetic trunk

A

Each type of pathway is dependent upon the location of the effector organ being innervated. Axons exit the sympathetic trunk by one of four pathways.
The spinal nerve pathway extends from the spinal cord to effectors of the skin of the neck, torso, and limbs. Skin effectors include sweat glands, smooth muscle forming arrector pili muscles (which produce “goose bumps”), and smooth muscle cells within the walls of blood vessels. In this pathway, a preganglionic neuron synapses with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion at either the same or different level

The postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway extends from the spinal cord to the internal organs of the thoracic cavity (including the esophagus, heart, lungs, and thoracic blood vessels), the effectors of the skin of the head (sweat glands, arrector pili, and blood vessels of the skin), the neck viscera, and the superior tarsal and dilator pupillae muscles in the eye

The splanchnic nerve pathway extends from the spinal cord to the abdominal and pelvic organs (e.g., stomach, small intestines, kidney). In this pathway, a preganglionic neuron does not synapse with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion.

The final pathway is the adrenal medulla pathway. The internal region of the adrenal gland, called the adrenal medulla, is directly innervated by preganglionic sympathetic axons.

57
Q

Describe the changes to effectors due to stimulation by the sympathetic division

A

Due to the stimulation of the sympathetic division, you would experience increased respiratory rate, increased peripheral vasoconstriction and elevation of blood pressure, increased heart rate and force of contraction, and an increased rate of glucose release into the bloodstream.

58
Q

Describe the structure of the autonomic plexuses and identify the main autonomic plexuses in the thoracic and abdominal cavities

A

Autonomic plexuses are collections of sympathetic postganglionic axons and parasympathetic preganglionic axons, as well as some visceral sensory axons. These sympathetic and parasympathetic axons are close to one another, but they do not interact with each another. Although these plexuses look like disorganized masses of axons, they provide a complex innervation pattern to their target organs. Autonomic plexuses are located in both the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The cardiac, pulmonary, and esophageal plexuses are in the thoracic cavity. The abdominal aortic plexus consists of the celiac plexus, superior mesenteric plexus, and inferior mesenteric plexus.

59
Q

Explain the function and location of the enteric nervous system (ENS)

A

The enteric nervous system (ENS) is an array of neurons (both autonomic motor and visceral sensory) that are arranged throughout the wall of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, from the esophagus to the anus. The ENS not only innervates the smooth muscle and glands of the GI tract but also mediates the complex coordinated reflexes for peristalsis, or movement of materials through the GI tract. ENS neurons are located both within numerous small ganglia throughout the GI tract wall and within two large plexuses: (1) the submucosal plexus (also called the Meissner plexus) and (2) the myenteric plexus (also called the Auerbach plexus)

60
Q

List the neurotransmitters of the ANS, the term for the type of neuron that releases each, and the names of the receptors that bind them.

A

In the parasympathetic pathway, both the preganglionic and postganglionic axons release acetylcholine (ACh). In the sympathetic pathways, all preganglionic axons and a few specific postganglionic axons release ACh. Most postganglionic sympathetic axons release norepinephrine (NE).
Neurons that synthesize and release acetylcholine (ACh) are called cholinergic neurons. Receptors that bind ACh are called cholinergic receptors.
Neurons that synthesize and secrete norepinephrine (NE) are called adrenergic neurons. Most other sympathetic ganglionic neurons are adrenergic. Receptors that bind NE (or a related molecule, like epinephrine) are called adrenergic receptors.

61
Q

Define autonomic tone and list some examples of autonomic tone

A

The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions both continuously release neurotransmitter to regulate specific target organs for either sustained stimulation or inhibition, a process referred to as the autonomic tone. Activity of an organ may be controlled merely by the change in tone within a single ANS division.

autonomic tone is the background rate of activity of the ANS
-it is the balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic tone
-parasympathetic tone maintains smooth muscle tone in the intestines and holds resting heart rate down to about 70-80 beats/minute
-if the parasympathetic Vagus nerves to the heart are cut the heart beats as its own intrinsic rate of about 100 beats/minute

-sympathetic tone keeps most blood vessels partially constricted and this maintains BP; loss of sympathetic tone can cause such a rapid drop in BP that a person goes into shock

62
Q

Define dual innervation

A

Many effectors of the ANS have dual innervation, meaning that they are innervated by postganglionic axons from both parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. The actions caused by activities of both the divisions on the same organ usually result in effects that are antagonistic or cooperative.

63
Q

Describe the systems innervated only by the sympathetic division and how they function.

A

the neurosecretory cells of the adrenal medulla also are innervated only by the sympathetic division.
In addition, many blood vessels are innervated by sympathetic axons only. Increased sympathetic stimulation increases smooth muscle contraction, resulting in increased blood pressure.
Decreasing the sympathetic stimulation below the autonomic tone will result in vasodilation, just as lifting your foot off the gas pedal may slow a car down (because you are not supplying the gas). Thus, opposing effects are achieved merely by increasing or decreasing the auto- nomic tone in the sympathetic division.
Other examples of innervation by only the sympathetic division are seen in sweat glands in the trunk (stimulates sweating) and innervation of arrector pili muscles in the skin to cause “goose bumps”

64
Q

Describe some examples of autonomic reflexes

A

Cardiovascular reflex. A classic autonomic reflex involves the reduction of blood pressure. When blood pressure elevates, stretch receptors in the walls of large blood vessels are stimulated and nerve signals are propagated along visceral sensory neurons to the cardiac center in the medulla oblongata. These nerve signals inhibit sympathetic output and activate parasympathetic output to the heart to slow heart rate and decrease the volume of blood ejected, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure.

∙ Gastrointestinal reflex. Autonomic reflexes control defecation. Fecal matter entering the rectum causes stretch of the rectal wall. Sensory neurons relay increased nerve signals to the spinal cord, which initiates a change in nerve signals along motor neurons to the rectum and anal sphincter.

∙ Micturition reflex. The mechanism leading to bladder emptying is similar to that for fecal emptying of the colon. In a young child who is not yet toilet trained, stretch receptors send nerve signals to the sacral spinal cord when urine fills the bladder. The reflex results in contraction of the smooth muscle in the bladder wall and relaxation of the urinary sphincters.

65
Q

Describe the general function of sensory receptors as transducers

A

The original energy form detected is specific to the type of sensory receptor (e.g., light energy is detect- ed by the eye, sound energy by the ear, and mechanical energy by blood vessels). However, the form the energy is transduced, or changed, to is always electrical energy, and it is sent along a sensory neuron. This sensory information is propagated as nerve signals to the CNS for interpretation. It is because sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy to electrical energy that sensory receptors are referred to as transducers

66
Q

Describe receptive field and its significance

A

A receptive field is the area within which the dendritic endings of a single sensory neuron are distributed. The concept of a receptive field and its significance is most clearly shown with a comparison of receptive fields within the skin. Note the relative amount of area that sensory neurons of the skin are distributed in two different regions of the body—the skin of the fingertips and the skin of the upper back. The size of the receptive field will determine the ability of the CNS to identify the exact location of a stimulus. A small receptive field provides us with the ability to identify the stimulus location more specifically.

67
Q

Explain the various characteristics of a stimulus that sensory receptors provide to the CNS

A

These characteristics include its modality, location, intensity, and duration. The modality or form of a stimulus is provided by a given type of sensory receptor relaying sensory input along designated sensory neurons to specific regions of the CNS.

68
Q

Describe the three criteria used to classify receptors

A

Three criteria are used to categorize sensory receptors—receptor distribution, stimulus origin, and modality of stimulus.

69
Q

Classify the various types of sensory receptors based upon each of the three criteria

A

The eyes, for example, are special senses because they are located in the head (sensory receptor distribution); exteroceptors because they detect stimuli outside the body (stimulus origin); and photoreceptors because they detect light (modality of stimulus). In comparison, sensory receptors that detect stretch of blood vessels are classified as general senses because they are distributed throughout the body, interoceptors because they detect stimuli within the body, and mechanoreceptors (specifically, baroreceptors) because they detect changes in distension of the organ wall.

70
Q

Compare and contrast muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint kinesthetic receptors

A

Golgi Tendon Organs: proprioceptors located at the junction of a tendon with a muscle.
Protect tendons and associated muscles from damage due to excessive tension.

Muscle Spindles: proprioceptors found between the skeletal muscle fibers in the muscle belly
When a muscle is stretched, the spindle sends a signal to the CNS indicating how much and how fast the muscle’s length is changing.
Muscle spindles also cause stretch reflex

Joint Kinesthetic Receptors: proprioceptors located in and around synovial joints
Respond to pressure, acceleration, deceleration, and excessive strain on a joint.
Provide feedback about whether movements are two slow, too fast, or in the wrong direction

Vestibular Apparatus: a collective group of receptor organs in the inner ear
Responds to changes in posture and balance
Monitor the position of the head, provide sensory information regarding static equilibrium and the maintenance of body position when motionless.
They also contribute to dynamic equilibrium, which is the maintenance of body position in response to movement, by monitoring changes in linear acceleration.

71
Q

Define referred pain and explain its significance in diagnosis

A

Referred pain occurs when sensory nerve signals from certain viscera are perceived as originating not from the organ, but from somatic sensory receptors within the skin and skeletal muscle. Numerous somatic sensory neurons and visceral sensory neurons conduct nerve signals on the same ascending tracts within the spinal cord. As a result, the somatosensory cortex in the brain is unable to accurately determine the actual source of the stimulus, and thus the stimulus may be localized incorrectly. Misinterpretation of a pain source occurs when nerve signals from two different organs are sent to the brain in a common sensory pathway.

72
Q

Name the components of the olfactory epithelium and discuss the function of each component

A

The sensory receptor organ for smell is the olfactory epithelium. This epithelium lines the superior region of the nasal cavity, covering both the inferior surface of the cribriform plate and superior nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone. The olfactory epithelium is composed of three distinct cell types:
∙ Olfactory receptor cells (also called olfactory neurons), which detect odors
∙ Supporting cells (also called sustentacular cells), which sustain the olfactory receptor cells
∙ Basal cells, which function as neural stem cells to continually replace olfactory receptor cells

73
Q

Describe the olfactory pathways that relay sensory input to the brain

A

Odorant –> Receptor cells
(axons: CN I) –> Olfactory bulb –> Olfactory tracts –> Temporal lobe
(primary olfactory cortex) or Selected different regions including hypothalamus and amygdala

Binding of neurotransmitter by secondary neurons results in propagation of nerve signals through the various olfactory pathways. Sensory information reaches different regions of the brain, including the (1) cerebral cortex, which allows us to consciously perceive and identify the smell; (2) hypothalamus, which controls visceral reactions to smell, such as salivation, sneezing, or gagging; and (3) amygdala, which is a center for recognition of odors and often associating those odors to a particular emotion

74
Q

Describe the structure and function of papillae of the tongue

A

On the dorsal surface of the tongue are epithelial and connective tis- sue elevations called papillae, which are of four types: filiform, fungiform, foliate, and vallate:
Filiform papillae are short and spiked; they are distributed on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue surface. These papillae do not house taste buds and thus, have no role in gustation. Instead, their bristlelike structure serves a mechanical function; they assist in detecting texture and manipulating food.

Fungiform papillae are blocklike projections primarily located on the tip and sides of the tongue. Each contains only a few taste buds.

Foliate papillae are not well developed on the human tongue. They extend as ridges on the posterior lateral sides of the tongue and house only a few taste buds during infancy and early childhood.

Vallate papillae, or circumvallate papillae, are the least numerous (about 10 to 12) yet are the largest papillae on the tongue. They are arranged in an inverted V shape on the posterior dorsal surface of the tongue. Most of our taste buds are housed within the walls of these papillae along the side facing the depression.

75
Q

Describe the components of taste buds and general function of each component.

A

Taste buds are cylindrical sensory receptor organs containing cells that have the appearance of an onion. Each taste bud is composed of three distinct cell types:
∙ Gustatory cells (also called gustatory receptors), which detect tastants (taste-producing molecules and ions) in our food
∙ Supporting cells that sustain the gustatory cells
∙ Basal cells, which function as neural stem cells to continually
replace the relatively short-lived gustatory cells

76
Q

Describe the gustatory pathways that relay sensory input to the brain

A

Dendritic endings of primary neurons are associated with gustatory cells, with each neuron contacting several gustatory cells. These sensory neurons are primarily components of the facial nerve (CN VII), which innervates taste buds from the anterior two- thirds of the tongue and the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which innervates taste buds from the posterior one-third of the tongue. Axons within these nerves project to the medulla oblongata (specifically, the nucleus solitarius) to synapse with secondary neurons. These secondary neurons project to the thalamus, and axons of tertiary neurons project to the primary gustatory cortex in the insula of the cerebrum.

77
Q

Describe the five types of tastes and explain the association of smell with taste

A

Sweet tastes are produced by organic compounds such as sugar or other molecules (e.g., artificial sweeteners).
∙ Salt tastes are produced by metal ions, such as sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+).
∙ Sour tastes are associated with acids in the ingested material, such as hydrogen ions (H+) in vinegar.
∙ Bitter tastes are produced primarily by alkaloids such as quinine, unsweetened chocolate, nicotine, and caffeine.
Umami stimuli: Umami (u’ma-mē) is a Japanese word meaning “delicious flavor.” It is a taste related to amino acids, such as glutamate and aspartate, to produce a meaty flavor.
association of smell with taste

Taste is integrated with temperature, texture, and especially smell
Food has less taste if olfaction is blocked (having a cold)

78
Q

Describe the concept of light refraction

A

Light rays are straight as they first enter the eye. However, the ability to see clearly requires refraction (or bending) of the light rays so that they hit on the retina—specifically, at the fovea centralis, the portion of the retina that is predominantly composed of cones and pro- vides the sharpest vision. Light rays are refracted when (1) they pass between two media of different densities and (2) these media meet at a curved surface. Each medium—such as air, water, and other clear fluids, and even clear solids such as glass—is assigned a refractive index, a number that represents its comparative density. The refraction of light rays is greater when there is a larger difference in the refractive index between adjacent media, such as between air and water and with increasing curvature of the media surface.
Before light can reach the photoreceptor cells, it must pass from the air through the cor- nea, aqueous humor, lens, and vitreous humor, as well as through the cells forming the inner layers of the retina. Both the cornea and lens play a significant role in refraction of light for vision—the cornea because of the relatively large refraction of light that occur as light passes from air into the cornea and the lens because of its ability to change shape. Recall that the curvature of the lens (and thus the refraction of light) can be altered through accommodation by relaxation and contraction of the ciliary muscles

79
Q

Anterior cavity (2 chambers) and posterior cavity
Lens
Tunics of the eye wall
Retina: optic disc, macula lutea, fovea centralis

A

The anterior cavity is subdivided into two chambers by the iris (the colored part of the eye): the anterior chamber, which is located between the iris and cornea, and the posterior chamber, which is located between the iris and the lens.
The external layer of the eye wall is called the fibrous tunic, or external tunic. It is composed of the posterior sclera and the anterior cornea.
The middle layer of the eye wall is the vascular tunic, also called the uvea. The vascular tunic houses an extensive array of blood vessels, lymph vessels, and the intrinsic muscles of the eye.
The most anterior region of the vascular tunic is the iris, which is the colored portion of the eye. The iris is composed of two layers of smooth muscle fibers, melanocytes, and an array of vascular and nervous structures. In the center of the iris is an opening called the pupil, which allows light to enter the eye to reach the retina. The iris controls pupil size, or diameter—and thus the amount of light entering the eye—using its two smooth muscle layers

The optic disc contains no photoreceptors. This is where axons of the ganglion cells extend from the back of the eye as the optic nerve. It is commonly called the blind spot because it lacks photoreceptor cells, and no image forms there. The macula lutea is a rounded, yellowish region just lateral to the optic disc. Within the macula lutea is a depressed pit called the fovea centralis, which contains the highest proportion of cones and almost no rods. The lens focuses incoming light onto the retina, and its shape determines the degree of light refraction.

80
Q

Explain how light is focused on the retina: viewing distant/near objects

A

Distant vision: Eyes best adapted for distant vision, far point vision (distance beyond which no change in lens shape needed for focusing)
Ciliary muscles relaxed
Lens stretched flat by tension in ciliary zone

Close vision: light from close objects (<6 m) diverges as approaches eye (requires eye to make active adjustments using three simultaneous processes) accommodation of lenses, constriction of pupils, convergence of eyeballs

Accommodation: changing lens shape to increase refraction
- Near point vision (closest point on which the eye can focus

Constriction: accommodation pupillary reflex constricts pupils to prevent most divergent light rays from entering eye

Convergence: medial rotation of eyeballs toward object being views
Close vision contracts the ciliary muscle, loosening the ciliary zonule, allowing the lens to bulge

81
Q

Define phototransduction

A

Phototransduction is the converting of light energy into an electrical signal. Photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) are the specific cells within the neural layer of the retina that engage in phototransduction.

82
Q

Compare and contrast the two general types of photoreceptors

A

Rods
* More numerous than cones
* Primarily located within peripheral retina * Specialized for dim light, night vision
* Cannot distinguish color; poor at sharpness of vision

Cones
* Less numerous than rods
* Primarily located within fovea centralis * Respond to stimulation by bright light * Specialized for color recognition and sharpness of vision
* Subdivided into blue, green, and
red cones

83
Q

Describe the visual pathway from the photoreceptors to the brain

A

Each optic nerve conducts visual stimuli information. At the optic chiasm, some axons from the optic nerve decussate. The optic tract on each side then contains axons from both eyes. Visual stimuli information is processed by the thalamus and then interpreted by visual association areas within the occipital lobe of the cerebrum. Visual sensory input involved in reflexes is relayed to nuclei within the midbrain (superior colliculi and pretectal nuclei).

Retina
Photoreceptors and neurons in the retina process the stimulus from incoming light.
Optic nerve
Axons of retinal ganglion cells form optic nerves and exit the eye.
Optic chiasm
Optic nerve axons from the medial region of the retina cross at the optic chiasm; the axons from the lateral region of the retina remain uncrossed.
Optic tract
The optic tract contains axons from both eyes, and these axons will project to either the thalamus or the midbrain.
Lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus
The majority of the optic tract axons project to the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus.
Pretectal nucleus of the midbrain
Limited number of optic tract axons project to the pretectal nucleus of the midbrain.
Superior colliculus of midbrain
Some optic tract axons project to the superior colliculus in the midbrain.
Primary visual cortex of occipital lobe
Receives processed information from the thalamus

84
Q

Describe the structures of the outer, middle, and inner ear

A

-outer ear: auricle, external acoustic meatus, & tympanic membrane
-middle ear: auditory ossicles) malleus, incus, & stapes (tensor tympani & stapedius)
-inner ear: w/in the bony labyrinth are the portions of the membranous labyrinth for hearing (the cochlear duct) and equilibrium and balance (saccule, utricle, and semicircular ducts). w/in the cochlea, there is the perilymph and the endolymph

85
Q

Name the auditory ossicles and explain how they function in hearing

A

-malleus, incus, stapes
-the auditory ossicle are responsible for amplifying sound waves from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. when sound waves strike the tympanic membrane, the 3 middle ear ossicles vibrate along with the tympanic membrane, causing the footplate of the stapes to move in and out of the oval window,

86
Q

Compare and contrast the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth

A

The inner ear is located within the petrous part of the temporal bone, where there are spaces, or cavities, called the bony labyrinth. Within the bony labyrinth are membranous, fluid-filled tubes and sacs called the membranous labyrinth. Receptors for both hearing and equilibrium are within the membranous labyrinth.
The space between the outer walls of the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth is filled with a fluid called perilymph. The perilymph suspends, supports, and protects the membranous labyrinth from the wall of the bony labyrinth. The space within the membranous labyrinth contains a fluid called endolymph, which is an unusual extracellular fluid because it is similar in composition to intracellular fluid with relatively high levels of K+.
The bony labyrinth is structurally and functionally partitioned into three distinct regions, including the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals

87
Q

Describe how cochlea function in the sense of hearing

A

The cochlea is a portion of the inner ear that looks like a snail shell. It receives sound in the form of vibrations, which cause the stereocilia to move, which then convert these vibrations into nerve impulses which are taken up to the brain to be interpreted.

88
Q

Trace the path of a sound wave from outside the ear to stimulation of the vestibulocochlear nerve
(CN VIII)

A

1 Sound waves are directed by the auricle into the external acoustic meatus, causing the tympanic membrane to vibrate.
2 Tympanic membrane vibration moves auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes); sound waves are amplified.
3 The stapes at the oval window generates pressure waves in the perilymph within the scala vestibuli.
4 Pressure waves cause the vestibular membrane to move, resulting in pressure wave formation in the endolymph within the cochlear duct and displacement of a specific region of the basilar membrane. Hair cells in the spiral organ are distorted, initiating nerve signals in the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).
5 Remaining pressure waves are transferred to the perilymph within the scala tympani and are absorbed as the round window bulges slightly.

89
Q

Describe the auditory pathway from stimulation of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) to the brain

A

1 Movement of the basilar membrane produces nerve signals that are propagated along the cochlear branch of CN VIII to the cochlear nucleus within
the medulla oblongata.
2a Some secondary neurons relay nerve signals directly to the inferior colliculus of the midbrain.
2b Some secondary neurons relay nerve signals to the superior olivary nucleus within the pons, which are then relayed to the inferior colliculus of the midbrain.
3 Nerve signals are relayed from the inferior colliculus to the thalamus (medial geniculate nucleus).
4 Nerve signals are then relayed from the thalamus to the primary auditory cortex of the temporal lobe of the cerebrum for sound perception.

90
Q

Describe the structures of the inner ear involved in equilibrium

A

The term equilibrium refers to our awareness and monitoring of head position. Sensory receptors in the utricle, saccule, and semicircular ducts, collectively called the vestibular apparatus, help monitor and adjust our equilibrium. Our brain receives this sensory input and, along with visual sensory input and input from our proprioceptors, integrates this information so we can keep our balance and make positional adjustments as necessary.
The utricle and saccule detect head position during static equilibrium—that is, when the head is stationary. The utricle and saccule also detect linear acceleration changes of the head. This occurs, for example, when you tilt your head downward to look at your shoes.
The semicircular ducts, in contrast, are responsible for detecting angular acceleration, or rotational movements of the head.

91
Q

Explain how the utricle and saccule detect static equilibrium and linear movements of the head and
explain how the semicircular ducts function to detect rotational movements of the head

A

vestibular apparatus
* utricle, saccule, semicircular ducts

Maculae detect both the orientation of the head when the body is stationary and the linear acceleration of the head. The maculae are located within the walls of the saccule and utricle. The utricle and saccule make up the part of the vestibular apparatus that senses linear movements. The utricle senses side to side (lateral) movements, whereas the saccule senses movements in the sagittal plane (up/down and forward/back). The utricle and saccule contain hair cells covered by a membrane known as the otolithic membrane. When the head move, certain hair cells bend and depolarize, creating an action potential that signals to the central nervous system.

Stereocilia bent toward kinocilium
* Hair cells depolarize, increasing neurotransmitter release
* Increased nerve signal frequency along vestibular branch of CN VIII

Stereocilia bent away from kinocilium
* Hair cells hyperpolarize, inhibiting neurotransmitter release
* Decreased nerve signal frequency along vestibular branch of CN VIII

Rotation of the head causes endolymph within the semicircular duct to push against the cupula covering the hair cells, resulting in bending of their stereocilia and an alteration in the frequency of nerve signal propagation.

92
Q

Describe the process of how hormones are transported between an endocrine gland and its target cells

A

Endocrine glands lack ducts. Hormone molecules are instead released from endocrine gland cells into the interstitial fluid and then enter the blood.
∙ These hormone molecules are transported within the blood from the endocrine gland’s associated capillaries by the cardiovascular system to all body tissues, a process that is relatively slow.
∙ There the hormones randomly leave the blood from these capillaries and enter the interstitial fluid, which provides the hormone molecules access to potentially all body cells. Consequently, the response induced by each hormone can be widespread.
∙ The hormone binds to its target cells’ receptors, which may be either in the plasma membrane or within the cell. The binding of hormones to cellular receptors either initiates or inhibits selective metabolic activities within these cells (e.g., activate enzymes, open ion channels, stimulate protein synthesis or cellular division). These altered metabolic activities can have long-lasting effects and may continue after removal of the hormone.

93
Q

Compare the actions of the endocrine system and the nervous system to control body function

A

Communication Method
Endocrine system - Secretes hormones; hormones are transported within the blood and distributed to target cells throughout body
Nervous system - A nerve signal causes neurotransmitter release from a neuron into a synaptic cleft

Target of Stimulation
Endocrine system - Any cell in the body with a receptor for the hormone

Nervous system - Other neurons, muscle cells, and gland cells

Response Time
Endocrine system - Relatively slow reaction time: Seconds to minutes to hours

Nervous system - Rapid reaction time: Typically milliseconds or seconds

Range of Effect
Endocrine system - Typically has widespread effects throughout the body

Nervous system - Typically has localized, specific effects in the body

Duration of Response
Endocrine system - Long-lasting: Minutes to days to weeks; may continue after stimulus is removed

Nervous system - Short-term: Milliseconds; terminates with removal of stimulus

94
Q

Describe the general functions controlled by the endocrine system

A

Controlling reproductive activities
Controlling digestive processes
Maintaining homeostasis of blood composition and volume
Regulating development, growth, and metabolism

95
Q

List the major endocrine glands and their location within the body

A
  • Pineal gland within the brain superior and posterior to the Hypothalamus.
  • Hypothalamus is within the brain anterior and inferior to the Pineal gland.
    -The Pituitary gland is connected to the Hypothalamus through the infindubulum and is inferior to the Hypothalamus.
    -The Thyroid gland is in the neck and anterior to the Parathyroid glands.
    -The Parathyroid glands are posterior to the Thyroid glands.
    -The Thymus is inferior to the Thyroid/ Parathyroid glands and is anterior to the heart.
    -The adrenal glands are superior to the kidneys.
    -The Ovaries/ Testes like medially within the body between each thigh. The testis are exterior to the body whereas the ovaries are internal and inferior to the belly button.
96
Q

Explain the three reflex mechanisms for regulating secretion of hormones

A

Hormonal stimulation. The stimulus for the release of many hormones from an endocrine gland is the binding of another hormone. An example occurs when thyroid-stimulating hormone (which is released from the anterior pituitary) binds to the thyroid gland to cause release of thyroid hormone.
∙ Humoral stimulation. Some endocrine glands are stimulated to release their hormones in response to a changing level of nutrient molecules or ions within the blood. When either nutrient or ion levels decrease or increase within the blood, an endocrine gland is stimulated to release its hormone molecules. An example of humoral stimulation occurs when blood glucose increases and the pancreas releases insulin.
∙ Nervous system stimulation. A few endocrine glands are stimulated to release hormone(s) by direct stimulation from the nervous system. The classic example is the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine by the adrenal medulla in response to stimulation by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

97
Q

Name the three structural categories of circulating hormones and give examples within each category

A

Steroids
* Lipid-soluble
* Formed from cholesterol
Examples: Estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone

Biogenic amines
Water-soluble (except thyroid hormone)
* Derived from amino acid that is
modified (e.g., tyrosine)
Examples: Norepinephrine, epinephrine, thyroid hormone, melatonin

Proteins
* Water-soluble
* Consists of amino acid chains
Examples: Antidiuretic hormone, insulin, glucagon, growth hormone, erythropoietin

98
Q

Describe the general function of local hormones

A

Local hormones are a large group of short-lived signaling molecules that do not circulate within the blood like Eicosanoids and Prostaglandins. Instead, cells synthesize and release these molecules, which then bind with either the same cell that produced them (autocrine stimulation) or neighboring cells (paracrine stimulation). These signaling molecules have properties similar to hormones because the released ligands (signaling molecules) initiate and regulate cellular changes. They just do so “in the tissue neighborhood.”

99
Q

Compare the transport of lipid-soluble hormones with that of water-soluble hormones

A

Lipid-soluble hormones (e.g., steroids, calcitriol, thyroid hormone) do not dissolve readily within the aqueous environment of the blood (blood plasma), and so they require carrier molecules. These mole-cules are water-soluble proteins synthesized by the liver. Water-soluble hormones (i.e., most biogenic amines and proteins), in comparison, readily dissolve within the aqueous environment of the blood, and so these hormones do not generally require carrier proteins. Thus, water-soluble hormones are generally released directly into the blood and transported to target cells. Note that some water-soluble hormones (e.g., insulin-like growth factor) are transported by carrier proteins, which function to prolong the life of these hormones.

100
Q

Describe the two primary factors that affect the concentration level of a circulating hormone

A

Hormone release. Hormone release from an endocrine gland and hormone concentration within the blood are positively correlated. An increase in release of the hormone results in a higher hormone concentration within the blood. In contrast, a decrease in release of the hormone results in a lower hormone concentration within the blood.
∙ Hormone elimination. Hormones are typically eliminated (1) through enzymatic degradation, which usually occurs in liver cells, (2) through removal of the hormone from the blood by its excretion from the kidneys as a component of urine, or (3) by uptake into target cells. Hormone elimination and hormone concentration in the blood are negatively correlated. The faster the rate of hormone elimination, the lower the hormone concentration within the blood, whereas the slower the rate of hormone elimination, the higher the hormone concentration within the blood.

101
Q

Describe how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones reach their target cell receptors

A

Lipid soluble
1 The unbound hormone diffuses readily through the plasma membrane and binds with an intracellular receptor, either within the cytosol or the nucleus to form a hormone-receptor complex.
2 The hormone-receptor
complex binds with a specific DNA sequence called a hormone-response element (HRE).
3 Binding of the HRE stimulates mRNA synthesis.
4 mRNA exits the nucleus and is translated by a ribosome in the cytosol. A new protein
is synthesized.

Water soluble
1 Hormone (first messenger) binds to receptor and induces shape change to activate the receptor.
2 G protein binds to activated receptor
3 GDP is “bumped off” and GTP binds to G protein; G protein is then activated.
4 Activated G protein (with GTP) is released from the receptor and moves along the inside of the plasma membrane, which results in formation or availability of second messenger

102
Q

Describe the conditions that influence the number of receptors available for a specific hormone

A

Target cells may increase the number of receptors, thereby increasing cell sensitivity to a hormone, a process called up-regulation. In contrast, a target cell may decrease its number of receptors and reduce the target cell’s sensitivity to a hormone through down-regulation
A target cell may increase its number of receptors when there is a lower than normal hormone concentration level, or decrease its number of receptors in response to an elevated hormone level. The ability of a target cell to change the number of its available receptors helps to maintain a normal level of cellular response, preventing either understimulation or overstimulation of the target cell. Changes in receptor number also occur as a consequence of developmental maturity, the target cell’s state of activity, and the different stages of the cell cycle.

103
Q

Compare and contrast the three types of hormone interactions

A

Synergistic interaction occurs when the activity of one hormone reinforces the activity of another hormone. Synergy means “working together.”
Permissive interaction takes place when the activity of one hormone requires a second hormone—as if one hormone “gives permission” for the first hormone to function.
Antagonistic interaction occurs when the activity of one hormone opposes the effects of another hormone.

104
Q

Explain the anatomic relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland

A

The pituitary gland is also called the hypophysis. It lies inferior to the hypothalamus and is connected to the hypothalamus by a very thin stalk, called either the infundibulum or the infundibular stalk. The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract, and the anterior pituitary by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

105
Q

Explain how the hypothalamus regulates the release of the two hormones from the posterior pituitary gland and describe the general functions of each

A

Hormone is released from the posterior pituitary when a nerve signal is sent from the hypothalamus along the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract. Specifically, nerve signals from the supraoptic nucleus primarily cause release of ADH, and those from the paraventricular nucleus primarily stimulate release of oxytocin. These molecules are considered hormones, and not neurotransmitters, because they enter the blood when released, even though they are released from synaptic knobs of neurons.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) functions to help maintain fluid balance, blood volume, and blood pressure.
Oxytocin facilitates the movement of sperm through the reproductive ducts in male. Oxytocin (OT) functions in both the delivery of a baby and the ejection of milk in females.

106
Q

List the hormones released from the hypothalamus that control the anterior pituitary

A

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (also called thyrotropin). TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormone (TH), which regulates the metabolic rate.
* Prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release prolactin, which acts on mammary glands to influence gland growth and stimulate milk production. Prolactin release is inhibited by prolactin-inhibiting hormone
* Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release both follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are collectively called gonadotropins. These hormones act on the gonads in both females and males to stimulate development of gametes (oocyte and sperm). The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone; the testes release testosterone
* Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulates release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (also called corticotropin). ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce and secrete glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol), which raise blood levels of nutrient molecules (e.g., glucose).
* Growth hormone–releasing hormone (GHRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release growth hormone (GH) (or somatotropin). GH stimulates the liver to release both insulin-like growth factor 1 and 2 (IGF-1 and IGF-2) . GH and IGFs function synergistically to cause growth.

107
Q

Explain how the release of growth hormone is regulated

A
  1. STIMULUS
    Variables that influence the release of GHRH from the hypothalamus:
    * Negative feedback by growth hormone
    * Age
    * Time of day
    * Nutrient levels in the blood
    * Stress and exercise
  2. RECEPTOR
    The hypothalamus responds to various stimuli.
  3. CONTROL CENTER
    The hypothalamus releases growth hormone–releasing hormone (GHRH) into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
  4. In response to GHRH, the anterior pituitary releases growth hormone (GH).
  5. GH stimulates hepatocytes to release insulin-like growth factor (IGFs) into the blood.
  6. Both GH and IGFs stimulate target cells (effectors).

NET EFFECT
7. Increased protein synthesis, cellular division, and cell differentiation occur— especially in cartilage, bone, and muscle; release of stored nutrients into the blood.

  1. Increased levels of both GH and IGFs inhibit the release of GHRH from the hypothalamus; Increased levels of GH also inhibits the release of GH from the anterior pituitary.
108
Q

Describe the effects of growth hormone on its primary target organs

A

Bone Muscle All cells
Increased growth
Increased amino acid uptake, which results in protein synthesis Stimulated cellular division
Cell differentiation

Liver tissue
Increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Decreased glycogenesis

Adipose connective tissue
Increased lipolysis
Decreased lipogenesis

109
Q

Identify and describe thyroid gland location

A

The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located immediately inferior to the thyroid cartilage of the larynx and anterior to the trachea. This gland is composed of left and right lobes, which are connected at the anterior midline by a narrow isthmus

110
Q

List the two specific types of endocrine cells within the thyroid and the specific hormone produced by each

A

The follicular cells produce and later release thyroid hormone (TH) by first synthesizing a glycoprotein called thyroglobulin (TGB) and secreting it by exocytosis into the colloid-filled lumen
Parafollicular cells—which are the other, less numerous endocrine cells of the thyroid—are located around the follicular cells. These cells synthesize and release calcitonin

111
Q

Describe the actions of the thyroid hormone

A

All cells, especially neurons
Increased metabolic rate
Increased glucose uptake

Liver tissue
Increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Decreased glycogenesis

Adipose connective tissue
Increased lipolysis
Decreased lipogenesis

Lungs
Increased breathing rate

Heart
Increased heart rate Increased force of contraction

These responses help meet increased O2 demand for aerobic cellular respiration.

112
Q

Explain the role of calcitonin in regulating blood calcium

A

Calcitonin is synthesized and released from the less numerous cells of the thyroid gland call the parafollicular cells. These cells are located around the follicular cells that produce thyroid hormone. The stimulus for calcitonin release from parafollicular cells is a high blood calcium level; it is also secreted in response to stress from exercise. Calcitonin primarily inhibits osteoclast activity within bone tissue (which decreases the breakdown of bone tissue) and stimulates the kidneys to increase the loss of calcium in the urine. The net effect of calcitonin is a reduction in blood calcium levels.

113
Q

Describe the structure and location of the adrenal glands

A

The adrenal glands, or suprarenal glands, are paired, pyramid-shaped endocrine glands anchored on the superior surface of each kidney. These glands (like the kidney that each is superior to) are retroperitoneal, which is posterior to the parietal peritoneum. Each adrenal gland is embedded within fat and fascia to minimize their movement. Two regions constitute an adrenal gland: the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex

114
Q

Name the three zones of the adrenal cortex and the hormones produced in each zone

A

Zona glomerulosa - Mineralocorticoids: hormones that regulate electrolyte levels
Zona fasciculata - Glucocorticoids: hormones that regulate blood sugar
Zona reticularis - Gonadocorticoids: sex hormones

115
Q

Describe the regulation and actions of cortisol

A

The hypothalamus responds to particular stimuli by releasing corticotropin- releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol. Cortisol increases the availability of nutrient molecules to support the response to stress.

Liver
Increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Decreased glycogenesis

Adipose connective tissue
Increased lipolysis Decreased lipogenesis

High doses of cortisol
Increase retention of Na+, H2O Decrease inflammation
Suppress the immune system Inhibit connective tissue repair

All cells
Stimulation of protein catabolism (occurs in all cells except hepatocytes)
Decreased glucose uptake

116
Q

Identify and describe the gross anatomy and cellular structure of the pancreas

A

The pancreas is an elongated organ situated posterior to the stomach. The vast majority of the cells of the pancreas serve an exocrine gland function. These cells, specifically called acinar cells, are modified simple cuboidal epithelial cells arranged in saclike acini. Each is specifically called a pancreatic acinus. The pancreatic acini serve as an exocrine gland by producing digestive enzymes, which are released into the pancreatic ducts and ultimately into the duodenum region of the small intestine

117
Q

Compare and contrast the primary types of pancreatic islet cells and the hormones they produce

A

The endocrine cells of the pancreas are located within small clusters called pancreatic islets, also known as islets of Langerhans. These endocrine cell clusters form only about 1% of the total pancreatic volume. A pancreatic islet is composed of two primary types of cells: alpha cells, which secrete glucagon, and beta cells, which secrete insulin. Minor cells within the pancreatic islets include delta cells, which secrete somatostatin (also described as growth hormone–inhibiting hormone), and F cells, which secrete pancreatic polypeptide.

118
Q

Describe the regulation and action of insulin

A

The release of insulin results in both a decrease in all nutrients in the blood and an increase in the synthesis of the storage form of these molecules within body tissues. By decreasing alternative nutrients (fatty acids and amino acids), the cells of the body are more likely to use the available glucose within the blood and help return blood glucose to a normal level more quickly. The release of insulin is controlled by negative feedback; as blood glucose levels decrease, less insulin is released from the pancreas.

Liver tissue
Increased glycogenesis
Decreased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Adipose connective tissue
Increased lipogenesis
Decreased lipolysis

All cells (especially muscle)
Increased uptake
of amino acids, which stimulates protein anabolism

Most cells
Increased uptake of glucose by increasing glucose transport proteins in the plasma membrane

119
Q

Explain the regulation and action of glucagon

A

Glucagon is released from alpha cells within pancreatic islets in response to low blood glucose levels. Glucagon binds with target cells that increase glucose, glycerol, and fatty acid levels within the blood.

Liver
Increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Decreased glycogenesis

Adipose connective tissue
Decreased lipogenesis
Increased lipolysis

120
Q

Describe the general location, and function of the pineal gland

A

The pineal gland (or pineal body) is a small, cone-shaped structure forming the posterior region of the epithalamus within the diencephalon. The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which makes us drowsy.

121
Q

Describe the regulation and action of the parathyroid glands

A

There are two different types of cells in the parathyroid glands: chief cells and oxyphil cells.
The more common chief cells, or principal cells, are the source of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which is released from the parathyroid gland in response to a decrease in blood calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone functions to increase blood calcium levels. It stimulates release of calcium from bone tissue, decreases loss of calcium in urine, and causes the kidney to release an enzyme to convert the inactive cal- cidiol hormone to the active calcitriol hormone

122
Q

Identify organs/tissues with endocrine functions

A

The T-lymphocytes migrate to the thymus following their formation in the bone marrow, and epithelial cells there secrete thymic hormones (i.e., thymosin, thymulin, and thymopoietin), which participate in the maturation of T-lymphocytes

Endocrine tissue within the atria of the heart synthesizes and releases the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) in response to increased stretch of the atrial wall. This peptide hormone stimulates both the kidneys to increase urine output (which decreases blood volume) and the blood vessels to dilate.

Endocrine tissue within the kidneys release erythropoietin (EPO) when specialized receptors (chemoreceptors) with- in the kidney detect low blood oxygen levels. EPO stimulates red bone marrow to increase the production rate of red blood cells (erythrocytes), which are the oxygen-carrying cells.

The liver releases insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) in response to growth hormone. The liver also releases angiotensinogen, an inactive hormone. The activation of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (the active form of the hormone) requires both an enzyme released from the kidney (renin) and an enzyme anchored within the inner lining of blood vessels

The stomach both synthesizes and releases gastrin. A primary function of gastrin is to increase stomach activity to facilitate digestion within the stomach. The small intestine releases both secretin and cholecystokinin, both of which function to facilitate digestion within the small intestine.

Ultraviolet light penetrates into surface skin cells (keratinocytes) to convert modified cholesterol molecules to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol), which is then released into the blood. Vitamin D3 is converted to calcidiol by an enzyme within the liver and then by an enzyme within the kidney to calcitriol, the active hormone.

Adipose connective tissue is located throughout the body, and it releases the hormone leptin. This hormone helps to regulate food intake by binding to the neurons within the hypothalamus that control appetite. Lower percentage of body fat is associated with lower blood levels of leptin, which stimulates the appetite.