Lecture Exam 3 Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship

A

Commensalism

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2
Q

Which of the following could result in a type II hypersensitivity?

A

Wrong

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3
Q

All the following are true of most diseases caused by fungus except

a. Fungi spores enter the body thru a cut or a wound
b. Fungi could release enzymes that attack host cells
c. Fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids
d. Fungi produce mycotoxins, which cause disease if ingested by humans

A

C. Fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids

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4
Q

Giardia intestinalis, a Protozoan, posses the following virulence factor

A

Adhesive disc

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5
Q

Physical barriers of nonspecific defenses

A

Include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete

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6
Q

Which statement about chemical barriers is false

a. High salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria
b. Chemical barriers include mechanism to limit free iron
c. Secreted defensins form pores in microbe membranes
d. Chemical barriers include eosinophils and macrophages

A

d. Chemical barriers include eosinophils and macrophages

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7
Q

Allergens binds to sensitized mast cells carrying surface ____ molecules, causing degranulation

A

Wrong

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8
Q

_____ is the after affects of the disease after recovery

A

Sequelae

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9
Q

Granulocytes include all of the following except

A

Good

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10
Q

Leukocytes responsible for killing intracellular viruses are ____

A

Natural killer cells

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11
Q

Heat pain, redness and swelling are symptoms of

A

Inflammation

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12
Q

The rapid transfer of microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species ____

A

Good

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13
Q

Which of the following must be true in order to satisfy some of Koch’s postulates?

A

Good

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14
Q

Toxoid

A

Good

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15
Q

The granulocytes that releases the inflammatory agent histamine is a

A

Wrong

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16
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur in the process of phagocytosis?

A

Wrong

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17
Q

Factors that improve the chances of pathogen’s ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as

A

Good

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18
Q

The spreading of exotoxins from the site of infection via the blood is called

A

Wrong

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19
Q

Some strain of streptococcus pyogenes (flesh eating bacteria is a causative agent of

A

Good

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20
Q

Toll-like receptors

A

Wrong

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21
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity includes

22
Q

The condition that is caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens is called

23
Q

HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the ____ antigen (s. on their surface

24
Q

Gas gangrene, with gas production leading to tissues necrosis is due to

25
Interferons which are stimulated by viruses and ____
Good
26
What is the difference between rubella and rubeola?
Good
27
Cytokines
Wrong
28
Adaptive immunity is ____
Good
29
Injection of a patient with ready-made antibodies produced in a different host is an example of what type of immunity?
Good
30
Injection of a person with a vaccine that induces protective immunity in that individual is an example of what type of immunity
Good
31
Colostrum, which contains high concentrations of antibodies passed onto an infant from a mother during breast-feeding is an example of what type of immunity?
Good
32
HAART (Highly Active Antiretrovial Therapy is
Good
33
A protein molecules produced in a host in response to an agent which is capable of binding to that antigen is a/an
Good
34
Burn infections
Wrong
35
What is the site where stem cells develop into B lymphocytes in humans?
Good
36
All of the following are symptoms of measles except
Good
37
Which class of immunoglobulin consists of five units (pentamer connected by J chains?
Good
38
All of the following have correctly matched antibody class with their function except
Wrong
39
Antigens that have capacity to activate huge numbers of immune T cells non-specifically resulting in a large immune response that results in disease are ____
Good
40
Which of the following T cells secretes lymphokines that further activate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells?
Good
41
Which one is the first antibody to be produced?
Good
42
Hypersensitivity or allergy refers to the immune system responding ____
Good
43
Anaphylaxis is associated with which type of hypersensitivity?
Good
44
Staphylococcus aureus causes all of the following except
Good
45
Scarlet fever can lead to serious complications including
Good
46
Which of the following Staphylococcal infections is matched correctly with the infection site?
Good
47
Which of the following statement about scalded skin syndrome is incorrect?
Wrong
48
Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes?
Good
49
Debridement
Good
50
Eosinophils are present in large number during worm infections
True
51
1. List the stages of infectious diseases in order And define each stage 2. A women gave birth to a still born, and the test showed that the infant was infected with rubella. Mother’s medical history showed that she was immunized with MMR when she was young and she had no signs or symptoms during or before her pregnancy. She has two children, and they both were born normal. Both were immunized at appropriate age, and her youngest one was immunized 9 months ago. A. How did the mother become infected with rubella? B. What specific test was done on infant that was positive for rubella?
Answer