Lectures 9 and 10- Adrenergic pharm Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

what is the minor component of establishment of resting potential (electrochemical gradient)?

A

ion flux from Na/K ATPase pump activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the major component of establishment of resting potential (electrochemical gradient)?

A

potential arising from different membrane permeabilities of Na and K (K channels leaky)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

K is … more permeable than Na

A

100x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

excitable cells have special membrane proteins that are specific channels for Na and K. These proteins are called …. channels because they can be open or closed based on potential difference across the membrane.

The channel for Na responds … to changes in voltage and the K channel responds …

A

voltage gated

faster

slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

APs in cardiac tissue are much … than in nerve or skeletal muscle

A

slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

simplified timeline of AP

A
  1. Na enters through ligand gated channels. cell begins to depolarize
  2. threshold depolarization is reached causing voltage sensitive Na channels to open
  3. depolarization spreads
  4. K channels open (slower)
  5. Na and K close. system back to hyperpolarized resting state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

synaptic transmission timeline

A
  1. Ap in nerve terminal opens calcium channels
  2. calcium entry causes vesicle fusion and transmitter release
  3. receptor channels open, Na enters the postsynaptic cell and AP resumes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the ganglia in the sympathetic system are close to the … in a chain

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the ganglia in the parasympathetic system are close to

A

the target organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sympathetic innervation comes from which part of the spinal cord?

A

thoracolumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

parasympathetic innervation comes from which part of the spinal cord?

A

craniosacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic system are

A

long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic system are

A

short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

is there more branching in the symp or parasymp system

A

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

alpha1 (some alpha2) receptors on … cells increase calcium, increase activity of a MLCK, increase myosin light chain phosphorylation and increase muscle contractility

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

phosphorylated … is essential for muscle contraction

A

MLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

… receptors are most important at presynaptic termini, they inhibit epi and norepi release (CNS and PNS)

A

alpha2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

alpha2 … enhance CNS response

A

antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

alpha2 … attenuate CNS response

A

agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

alpha2 antagonists … HR

alpha2 agonists … HR

A

increase

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
vasoconstrictor or vasodilator?
a1 agonist
a1 antagonist
a2 agonist
a2 antagonist
A

vasoconstrictor
vasodilator
vasodilator
vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

… receptors on smooth muscle cells increase PKA, phosphorylate and inhibit MLCK, diminish calcium levels and inhibit MLCK, diminish phosphorylation of MLC and decrease muscle contractility

A

beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cAMP activates … which in turn inhibits MLCK

24
Q

PKA mediated phosphorylation also activates … which leads to hyperpolarization leading to reduction in cellular calcium producing smooth muscle relaxation because MLCK activity is attenuated

25
... receptors on cardiac muscle cells activate PKA, activate L type calcium channels, increase calcium levels and increase muscle contractility
b1
26
the ... receptor is the dominant receptor in cardiac muscle. drugs that activate this receptor improve contractility of heart, increase HR and excess stimulation can results in arrythmias
b1
27
activation of the ... receptor leads to vascular and non vascular smooth muscle relaxation. (reduce BP, broncodilation, reduce uterine contraction)
b2
28
there are a large number of ... receptors relative to ... receptors on vascular smooth muscle. activation of these will lead to vasoconstriction
a1 b2
29
epi's actions in an emergent situation
stim alpha: increase BP stim b1: positive cardiac effects stim. b2: bronchodilation
30
methoxamine, phenylephrine, levonordefrin, midodrine, oxymetazoline, metaraminol are all
alpha1 receptor agonists (increase BP)
31
denopamine, dobutamine, xamoterol, isoprenaline are all
b1 receptor agonists (treat heart failure)
32
albuterol, pirbuterol, isoprenaline, formoterol, clenbuterol are all
b2 receptor agonists (smooth muscle relax)
33
... is used to reverse soft tissue numbness after administration of local anesthetics with vasoconstrictors. injected when pain relief is no longer needed
phentolamine
34
beta blockers will .... renin release from kidney
diminish
35
ISA stands for
intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (partial agonist)
36
beta blockers without ISA...
decrease HR, decrease renin activity, decrease CO
37
beta blockers with ISA
do not depress cardiac fxn or renin activity but do attenuate agonist driven increases
38
beta blockers can also reduce vitreous production to treat ...
glaucoma
39
beta blockers that get into the CNS can be used to treat ... and ...
migraine | tremor associated anxiety
40
2 blockers that are alpha receptor and beta receptor antagonists
labetalol | carvedilol
41
.... is 7x more potent as a beta blocker, ISA activity, used in long term management of HTN
labetalol
42
.... no ISA activity, effective in tx of CHF, antioxidant activity
carvedilol
43
clonidine causes
xerostomia
44
cholinergic receptors comes in 2 types:
nicotinic and muscarinic
45
odd numbered muscarinic receptors (M1,M3,M5) are linked to ...
Gaq (activate DAG and IP3 signaling)
46
even numbered muscarinic receptors (M2, M4) are linked to ....
Gai (inhibit adenylate cyclase)
47
cholinergic agonists can either be ... or ...
direct acting | indirect acting
48
direct cholinergic agonists bind to ....
muscarnic or nicotinic AcCH receptor or both
49
indirect acting cholinergic agonists are ....
cholintesterase inhibitors (acetylcholine will stick around longer)
50
hydrolysis by cholinesterase has a profound effect on the duration of action of ....
cholinergic agonists
51
acetylcholine is hydrolyzed .... and has the ... duration of action
rapidly | shortest
52
methacholine is hydrolyzed.... somewhat ...duration of action (compared to acetylcholine)
slower | longer
53
carbachol is ... hydrolyzed so longer duration of action
not
54
which are more clinically relevent? muscarinic or nicotinic agonists?
muscarinic
55
does acetylcholine affect muscarinic or nicotinic specificity ?
non selective
56
does carbachol favor muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
nicotinic
57
does methacholine favor muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
muscarinic