Lesson 2 Cell Biology Flashcards

(135 cards)

1
Q

What is the basic unit of life?

A

The cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the general parts of a cell?

A
  • Plasma (cell) membrane
  • Nucleus
  • Cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of the plasma (cell) membrane?

A

Allows cell interaction with its external environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the nucleus do?

A

Directs cell activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is cytoplasm?

A

Located between plasma membrane and nucleus; contains organelles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does cell metabolism include?

A

All chemical reactions that occur in the cell, often involving energy transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What types of molecules do cells synthesize?

A
  • Proteins
  • Nucleic acids
  • Lipids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do cells communicate?

A

Cells produce and receive electrical and chemical signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the role of DNA in cells?

A

Contains a complete copy of all genetic information for the individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of microscope has a resolution of about 0.1µm?

A

Light microscope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the resolution of an electron microscope?

A

About 0.1nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the functions of the plasma membrane?

A
  • Separates intracellular from extracellular substances
  • Encloses and supports cell contents
  • Attaches to the extracellular environment or other cells
  • Recognizes and communicates with other cells
  • Determines what moves in and out of cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is membrane potential?

A

An electrical charge difference across the plasma membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What predominates in membrane lipids?

A
  • Phospholipids
  • Cholesterol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the structure of phospholipids in the membrane?

A

Bilayer with polar heads facing water and nonpolar tails facing each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

A

Determines fluid nature and provides stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

Combinations of carbohydrates and lipids (glycolipids) and proteins (glycoproteins) on the outer surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are integral membrane proteins?

A

Proteins that extend deeply into the membrane and can form channels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are peripheral membrane proteins?

A

Attached to integral proteins or to polar heads of phospholipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are marker molecules?

A

Glycoproteins or glycolipids that allow cells to identify one another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are cadherins?

A

Integral proteins that attach cells to other cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the main cause of autoimmune blistering diseases?

A

Autoantibody-mediated attacks on cadherin-associated adhesion complexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do transport proteins include?

A
  • Channel proteins
  • Carrier proteins
  • ATP-powered pumps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are leak ion channels?

A

Always open and responsible for the permeability of the plasma membrane to ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is cystic fibrosis caused by?
Mutations in the CFTR gene affecting chloride ion channels.
26
What do local anesthetics like lidocaine block?
Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels.
27
What is the function of GLUT4?
Helps absorb glucose from the blood in response to insulin.
28
What does ATP-powered pumps require?
The breakdown of ATP.
29
What is the function of LDL receptors?
Bind and remove low-density lipoprotein (LDL) from circulation.
30
What is osmolarity?
A measure of how concentrated a solution is, indicating the number of particles dissolved in liquid.
31
What is the normal range of human body fluid osmolarity?
275–295 mOsm/Litre.
32
What is passive membrane transport?
Movement from higher concentration to lower concentration without ATP.
33
What is osmosis?
Diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
34
What are aquaporins?
Water channel proteins.
35
What factors affect the rate of simple diffusion?
* Magnitude of concentration gradient * Temperature of solution * Size of diffusing molecules * Viscosity of solvent
36
What is facilitated diffusion?
Passive transport of solutes across the plasma membrane with the assistance of transporters.
37
What is the difference between symporters and antiporters?
* Symporters move two ions/molecules in the same direction * Antiporters move two ions/molecules in opposite directions
38
What is osmolarity?
Way to measure how concentrated a solution is; tells us how many tiny particles are dissolved in a certain amount of liquid.
39
What does a value outside the normal osmolarity range indicate?
Can indicate dehydration, overhydration, or other medical conditions.
40
Define isosmotic solutions.
Solutions with the same concentrations of solute particles; equal osmotic pressures.
41
What is a hyperosmotic solution?
Solution with a greater concentration of solute; has a greater osmotic pressure.
42
What is a hypoosmotic solution?
Solution with a lesser concentration of solute; has a lesser osmotic pressure.
43
What happens to a cell in an isotonic solution?
Cell neither shrinks nor swells.
44
What occurs to a cell in a hypertonic solution?
Cell shrinks (crenation) as water moves out of the cell.
45
What happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution?
Cell swells and may rupture (lysis) as water moves into the cell.
46
What is facilitated diffusion?
Mediated transport process carried out by carrier/channel proteins; no ATP required.
47
What types of molecules are moved by facilitated diffusion?
Large, water-soluble molecules or electrically charged molecules.
48
What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump?
Moves sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell, creating electrical potentials across membranes.
49
What does active transport require?
Requires ATP.
50
Define secondary active transport.
Use of potential energy in concentration gradient of one substance to help move another substance.
51
List the types of vesicular transport.
* Endocytosis * Exocytosis * Phagocytosis * Pinocytosis * Transcytosis
52
What is receptor-mediated endocytosis?
Specific molecules in the extracellular fluid bind to receptors in the plasma membrane, forming a vesicle.
53
What is the function of lysosomes?
Digest cellular material, including nutrients and phagocytized bacteria.
54
What is Tay-Sachs disease?
A rare genetic disorder caused by the inability of lysosomal enzymes to break down gangliosides, leading to cell damage.
55
What is the primary role of ribosomes?
Sites of protein synthesis.
56
What are the two types of endoplasmic reticulum?
* Rough ER * Smooth ER
57
What does the rough endoplasmic reticulum do?
Has attached ribosomes; where proteins are produced and modified.
58
What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
Modifies, packages, and distributes proteins and lipids for secretion or internal use.
59
What happens to proteins produced at the ribosomes attached to the rough ER?
They are packed into transport vesicles and moved to the Golgi apparatus.
60
What type of proteins do free ribosomes synthesize?
Proteins used inside the cell.
61
What is the role of peroxisomes?
Contain enzymes to break down fatty acids and amino acids; also detoxify hydrogen peroxide.
62
What is the structure of chromosomes?
DNA associated with proteins called histones to form nucleosomes.
63
Describe the nucleus.
Large membrane-bound structure containing DNA, surrounded by a nuclear envelope with nuclear pores.
64
What is the nucleolus?
Dense region within the nucleus where ribosomes are manufactured.
65
What causes progeria?
A mutation in the LMNA gene affecting the nuclear envelope, leading to unstable cell nuclei.
66
What is the function of the cytoskeleton?
Supports the cell and allows for movements like changes in cell shape.
67
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.
cytosol
68
What are the primary symptoms of Tay-Sachs disease?
Paralysis, blindness, and death, usually before age 5 ## Footnote Damage to the central nervous system begins in the fetus, with symptoms appearing several months after birth.
69
What causes Tay-Sachs disease?
Deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A in the lysosome ## Footnote This enzyme is responsible for breaking down GM2 ganglioside, leading to its accumulation and neurodegeneration.
70
What is the typical age of death for individuals with Tay-Sachs disease?
Usually by age 4 or 5
71
What is a common method to reduce the incidence of Tay-Sachs disease?
Genetic counseling accompanied by prenatal screening
72
What is the role of proteasomes in cells?
Break down and recycle proteins ## Footnote Proteasomes consist of large protein complexes that form a barrel-like structure.
73
Which neurodegenerative disease is commonly linked to proteasomal dysfunction?
Parkinson's disease
74
What is the hallmark protein accumulation in Parkinson's disease?
Alpha-synuclein
75
What is the primary function of mitochondria?
Major site of ATP synthesis
76
What is Leber's Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)?
A mitochondrial genetic disorder causing sudden vision loss
77
What causes LHON?
Mutations in mitochondrial DNA that affect complex I of the mitochondrial respiratory chain
78
What structure do centrioles form part of?
Centrosome
79
What role do centrioles play in cell division?
Organize microtubules called spindle fibers
80
What disorder is linked to defects in cilia structure or function?
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia (PCD)
81
What autoimmune disorder is associated with damaged microvilli?
Celiac disease
82
What are genes?
Functional units of heredity
83
What is gene expression?
The production of RNA and/or proteins from the information stored in DNA
84
What are the two steps involved in gene expression?
Transcription and translation
85
What occurs during transcription?
Information from DNA is used to produce mRNA
86
What are introns?
Regions of the gene that are not part of the code for a protein
87
What is alternative splicing?
Joining various combinations of exons into mRNA to produce different proteins from the same gene
88
What is the genetic code?
Information contained in mRNA that relates the nucleotide sequence to the amino acid sequence of a protein
89
What are codons?
Three nucleotide sequences in mRNA that specify amino acids during translation
90
What is the start codon?
AUG, which codes for methionine
91
What is the function of tRNA during translation?
Carries specific amino acids to the ribosomes
92
What is a polyribosome?
A cluster of ribosomes attached to the same mRNA
93
What is posttranslational protein processing?
The modification of proteins after their synthesis
94
What occurs during the G1 phase of interphase?
Cells carry out normal activities and increase in size
95
What is the role of DNA polymerase?
Catalyzes DNA synthesis during replication
96
What is the difference between diploid and haploid number of chromosomes?
Diploid has two sets of chromosomes; haploid has one set
97
What is the function of spliceosomes?
Remove introns from pre-mRNA
98
What is the role of a poly-A tail in mRNA?
Ensures mRNA travels from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
99
What occurs during DNA replication?
The strands of DNA separate, old strands serve as templates for new strands, resulting in two identical DNA molecules ## Footnote DNA synthesis is catalyzed by DNA polymerase.
100
What is the role of DNA ligase in DNA replication?
DNA ligase splices Okazaki fragments together ## Footnote This is essential for the completion of the lagging strand.
101
What type of chromosome number do somatic cells have?
Diploid ## Footnote Somatic cells contain two sets of chromosomes.
102
What type of chromosome number do sex cells have?
Haploid ## Footnote Sex cells contain one set of chromosomes.
103
What happens to chromatin during mitosis?
Chromatin condenses to form chromatids, which are joined at the centromere ## Footnote This forms a single chromosome.
104
Name the phases of mitosis in order.
1. Prophase 2. Prometaphase 3. Metaphase 4. Anaphase 5. Telophase ## Footnote Cytokinesis is a separate process that follows mitosis.
105
What is apoptosis?
Programmed cell death to maintain normal cell numbers and remove excess or potentially dangerous cells ## Footnote It is regulated by specific genes.
106
List some hypotheses regarding how aging occurs.
* Cellular clock * Death genes * DNA damage * Free radicals * Mitochondrial damage ## Footnote These hypotheses explore different mechanisms of cellular aging.
107
What is the structure of the plasma membrane?
Consists of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins ## Footnote The bilayer has hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails.
108
What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?
Contains the cell's genetic information, determining its structure and function ## Footnote It directs the cell’s activities.
109
What are the two types of organelles found in a cell?
* Non-membranous organelles * Membranous organelles ## Footnote Examples include ribosomes (non-membranous) and mitochondria (membranous).
110
What is facilitated diffusion?
The process where molecules pass through a membrane via a carrier protein ## Footnote This process does not require energy.
111
What does the sodium-potassium pump do?
Transports sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell ## Footnote This process requires energy (ATP).
112
What is the effect of a hypotonic solution on red blood cells?
Causes water to enter the cell, leading to swelling or bursting ## Footnote This is due to osmosis.
113
What is osmotic pressure?
The pressure required to prevent the flow of water across a selectively permeable membrane ## Footnote It is influenced by solute concentration.
114
True or False: Cytokinesis is part of mitosis.
False ## Footnote Cytokinesis is a separate process that occurs after mitosis.
115
What are the extensions of the plasma membrane called?
* Microvilli * Cilia * Flagellum ## Footnote These structures increase surface area or assist in movement.
116
Fill in the blank: The process of programmed cell death is known as _______.
apoptosis
117
What is the primary function of ribosomes?
Protein synthesis ## Footnote Ribosomes can be free in the cytoplasm or bound to the endoplasmic reticulum.
118
What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?
The nucleus contains the cell's genetic material and controls cellular activities ## Footnote The nucleus is often referred to as the control center of the cell.
119
What structures are found within the nucleus?
The structures found within the nucleus include: * Nucleolus * Chromatin * Nuclear envelope * Nuclear pores
120
What are the main components of the nuclear envelope?
The nuclear envelope consists of: * Outer membrane * Inner membrane * Nuclear pores
121
What is the role of the Golgi apparatus?
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins for secretion or use within the cell.
122
Fill in the blank: Proteins are produced at the _______.
rough endoplasmic reticulum
123
During which phase does DNA replication occur in the cell cycle?
S phase
124
What are the phases of the cell cycle?
The phases of the cell cycle include: * G1 phase * S phase * G2 phase * M phase (mitosis)
125
What happens during cytokinesis?
Cytokinesis is the process where the cytoplasm divides, forming two new cells.
126
List the stages of mitosis in order.
The stages of mitosis are: * Prophase * Prometaphase * Metaphase * Anaphase * Telophase
127
What is the role of the nucleolus?
The nucleolus is responsible for the production of ribosomes.
128
True or False: The G0 phase occurs after the G1 phase.
True
129
What occurs during the prophase stage of mitosis?
During prophase, chromosomes thicken and shorten to form chromatids, and the spindle fibers begin to form.
130
What is a splice in mRNA processing?
A splice refers to the joining of exons after introns are removed during mRNA processing.
131
What are the components of pre-mRNA?
Pre-mRNA consists of: * Exon 1 * Intron * Exon 2
132
What happens to proteins after they are modified by the Golgi apparatus?
Modified proteins can be released from the Golgi apparatus or used within the cell.
133
Fill in the blank: The _______ phase is also known as the first gap phase.
G1
134
What is the function of ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Ribosomes synthesize proteins during translation.
135
What marks the end of the M phase in the cell cycle?
Cytokinesis marks the end of the M phase.