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Prelim RMG0 32 > Lesson 2: Film-Screen/Analog Mammography > Flashcards

Lesson 2: Film-Screen/Analog Mammography Flashcards

1
Q

they established guidelines that require using a dedicated unit when performing screen-film mammography

A

National Councill on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)

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2
Q

what does NCRP stands for?

A

National Councill on Radiation Protection and Measurements

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3
Q

the most important ability – understand and master these factors to produce consistent, high contrast, diagnostic images

A

performance

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4
Q

basic considerations for equipment

A
  • space
  • portability
  • electrical requirements
  • ergonomics
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5
Q

C-ARM:

the range of vertical movement should
accommodate both _____ (approximately _____) and those _____.

A

tall women; 6 ft; who needs to sit

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6
Q

C-ARM:

minimum range of travel is _____ to _____ cm above the floor

A

66; 140

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7
Q

C-ARM:

it should rotate at least _____ degrees

A

180

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8
Q

C-ARM:

the point at which the C-arm connects to the tower/collar should be _____ designed so that when moving from the _____ position to the _____ position, the height does not need to be adjusted

A

isocentrically; craniocaudal; oblique

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9
Q

the controls on both sides of the C-arm which provides easy access for the technologist to adjust the height of the C-arm and raise and lower the compression device while the client is being positioned

A

electronic controls

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10
Q

this should be available to the client to maintain a difficult or awkward position

A

grips or handles

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11
Q

compression device-to-receptor distance should allow adequate space when: (3)

A
  • positioning an obese woman for an oblique view
  • magnifying an area in a large breast
  • raising the compression device over the needle during preoperative localizations
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12
Q

this area of the unit should remain as small as possible to facilitate positioning of the client’s head for the craniocaudal view and during magnification views

A

tube housing or face shield

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13
Q

this is used for the vertical movement of the C-arm and the compression device to free the hands of the technologist while positioning

A

foot controls

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14
Q

FOOT CONTROLS:

the amount of compression exerted by the foot pedal control should be _____

A

minimal

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15
Q

FOOT CONTROLS:

the final compression of the breast should be done using a _____

A

hand-controlled device

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16
Q

this permit fast and easy exchange of different size film buckys or cassettes

A

image receptor support device (ISRD)

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17
Q

IMAGE RECEPTOR SUPPORT DEVICE (ISRD):

both _____ and ______ imaging systems should be available to match the size of the receptor to the size of the breast being imaged

A

8 x 10 inches or 18 x 24 cm; 10 x 12 inches or 24 x 30 cm

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18
Q

it should be easy to read and to adjust

A

control panel

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19
Q

CONTROL PANEL:

all units must have _____

A

automatic exposure control (AEC)

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20
Q

CONTROL PANEL:

when the exposure has ended, the control panel should indicate the _____ used

A

exposure factor

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21
Q

DENSITY SELECTION:

at least _____ density adjustment steps should be available

A

nine (9)

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22
Q

DENSITY SELECTION:

there should be a _____ to _____% difference in optical density between steps

A

10; 15

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23
Q

KILOVOLTAGE:

molybdenum target units: range of at least _____ to _____ kVp in no greater than _____ kVp increments

A

24; 32; 1

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24
Q

KILOVOLTAGE:

rhodium target units: range of at least _____ to _____ kVp in no greater than _____ kVp increments

A

28; 38; 1

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25
Q

MILLIAMPERAGE SELECTION:

this may be _____ or _____

A

fixed; variable

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26
Q

MILLIAMPERAGE SELECTION:

if the mA value automatically decreases while increasing the kVp, it should occur _____ the range of settings routinely used for screen–film mammography – the _____ to _____ kVp range

A

outside; 25; 30

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27
Q

TIME SELECTION:

the grid is not “caught in motion” when using a grid on a thin adipose-replaced breast

A

short exposures

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28
Q

TIME SELECTION:

the time setting must surpass the reciprocity law failure of the recording system

A

long exposures

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29
Q

SOURCE-IMAGE DETECTOR DISTANCE:

standard imaging SID

A

55 cm

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30
Q

SOURCE- IMAGE DETECTOR DISTANCE:

magnification imaging SID

A

60 cm

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31
Q

this is required if the equipment has preoperative needle localization capabilities

A

side-loading cassette holder or bucky

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32
Q

NEEDLE LOCALIZATION CAPABILITY:

the compression device for needle localization either has a series of _____ or a large _____

A

concentric holes; rectangular cutout

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33
Q

FIELD LIGHT:

brightness of the light source should be _____

A

160 LUX or higher

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34
Q

FIELD LIGHT:

misalignment of the x-ray/light field can be a maximum of _____ of the SID

A

2%

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35
Q

ALIGNMENT:

the _____, _____, and _____ must be aligned perfectly at the chest wall edge to ensure that all posterior breast tissue is included

A

focal spot; compression device; image receptor

36
Q

ALIGNMENT:

misaligned focal spots are caused by _____ and must be calibratef by the _____

A

machine defect; service engineer

37
Q

AUTOMATIC TECHNIQUE SELECTION:

units must have a _____ that indicates the technical factors used

A

post exposure display

38
Q

the benefit of this mode is to produce an image using an acceptable length of exposure time to reduce.motion blurring and/or client dose, but without compromising the image quality

A

automatic technique selection

39
Q

the benefit of this mode is to produce an image using an acceptable length of exposure time to _____ and/or _____, but without compromising the image quality

A

reduce motion blurring; client dose

40
Q

EXPOSURE CONTROL:

the operator can make an exposure only when ______ of the x-ray field

A

completely outside

41
Q

RADIATION SHIELD:

equivalent attenuation to at least _____ of lead at 35 kVp or the maximum kVp

A

0.08 mm

42
Q

RADIATION SHIELD:

equivalent attenuation to at least 0.08 mm of lead at 35 kVp or the maximum kVp, this is to limit operator exposure to well below _____ based on _____, _____

A

0.1 mSv/week; 40 patients/day; 5 days/week

43
Q

this terminates the exposure with a sound or visual indicator

A

back up timer

44
Q

suggested limits for back up timer

A
  • minimum: 250 mAs
  • maximum: 600 mAs
  • magnification mode requirements will be different
45
Q

this device must maintain consistent optical density darkening of the film regardless of the kVp setting used, thickness of the compressed breast, and/or ratio of glandular-to-adipose components

A

automatic exposure control

46
Q

increase mAs = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

increase; no effect; no effect; no effect

47
Q

increase kVp = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

increase; decrease; no effect; no effect

48
Q

increase SID = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

decrease; increase; increase; decrease

49
Q

increase OID = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

decrease; increase; decrease; increase

50
Q

increase patient thickness = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

decrease; decrease; no effect; no effect

51
Q

increase film speed = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

increase; increase; decrease; no effect

52
Q

increase motion = _____ density = _____ contrast = _____ detail = _____ distortion

A

no effect; no effect; decrease; no effect

53
Q

safelight filters should be changed _____, every _____ to _____ years, as they deteriorate with time and use

A

periodically; 1; 2

54
Q

SAFELIGHT:

filter used and examples

A

for green light-sensitive films; kodak GBX-2 and wratten 1 or 2

55
Q

SAFELIGHT:

distance

A

at least 4 ft. above the work area

56
Q

SAFELIGHT:

bulb wattage for overhead ceiling fixture

A

no more than 15 watts

57
Q

SAFELIGHT:

bulb wattage for closer fixtures

A

7.5 watts

58
Q

major factor that influence obtaining a quality radiographic image (3)

A
  • temperature
  • humidity
  • ventilation
59
Q

TEMPERATURE:

darkroom

A

approximately 70°F

60
Q

TEMPERATURE:

excessive heat = _____

A

emulsion soften and is more susceptible to scratching

61
Q

TEMPERATURE:

cooler temperature = _____

A

emulsion crack and peel

62
Q

HUMIDITY:

darkroom

A

between 30 to 50%

63
Q

HUMIDITY:

too dry (less than 30%) = _____

A

static marks

64
Q

HUMIDITY:

too moist (above 50%): ______

A

small droplets of water from the air may cling to the film and cause the emulsion to clump, image will appear as if misted with ink

65
Q

VENTILATION:

poor airflow to the processor

A

streaking and mottling of emulsion

66
Q

VENTILATION:

poor exhaust ventilation in the darkroom

A

buildup of chemical fumes, which may lead to chronic headaches and nausea

67
Q

the darkroom’s nemesis, particularly to darkrooms that process mammographic film

A

dust

68
Q

they can obscure an area of minute calcifications, or can mimic cancer, which can lead to misdiagnosis

A

dust

69
Q

DUST MANAGEMENT:

shelving for film storage within the darkroom should have _____, without _____; this keeps the amount of space dust can settle on to a _____

A

doors; protruding handles; minimum

70
Q

DUST MANAGEMENT:

air conditioning systems should be serviced _____, and filters replaced _____, to avoid emission of
precipitates from within the system

A

regularly; routinely

71
Q

PROCESSOR MAINTENANCE:

two rules to obtain maximum quality

A
  • install and operate the processor as the manufacturer suggest
  • clean, maintain, and monitor every processor on a routine basis
72
Q

this is monitored as a part of quality assurance program because improper solution replenishment can be detrimental to film quality

A

chemical replenishment

73
Q

CHEMICAL REPLENISHMENT:

chemical tank levels should be checked ______

A

periodically

74
Q

CHEMICAL REPLENISHMENT:

the tanks would then need to be _____, _____, and _____, and the _____ cleaned.

A

emptied; cleaned; refilled; transport roller racks

75
Q

DEDICATED PROCESSING:

most mammographic film used is _____

A

single emulsion

76
Q

DEDICATED PROCESSING:

dedicating a processor specifically for the use of single emulsion films can reduce the risk of _____, and in some instances, as with extended processing, can control the _____ and _____.

A

processor-related damage; film contrast; speed

77
Q

DEDICATED PROCESSING:

in a processor that is dedicated to only single-emulsion films, less processor related damage will occur if all the films are fed through the processor in the _____

A

same orientation

78
Q

artifacts that occur during the processing procedure, within the processor, by one or more of the processor’s components

this includes roller marks, guide shoe marks, chatter, run back, and more

A

processing artifacts

79
Q

PROCESSING ARTIFACTS:

______ or _____ can cause a repeating artifact on films that will run parallel to the direction of film travel

A

improperly cleaned; worn rollers

80
Q

PROCESSING ARTIFACTS:

film also demonstrate ______ caused by improperly adjusted guide shoes

A

guide shoe marks

81
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL ARTIFACTS:

low humidity = _____

A

static artifacts

82
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL ARTIFACTS

high humidity = ______

A

splotch in the image

83
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL ARTIFACTS:

improper ventilation of darkroom and processor can cause ______ on entrance rollers that will be transferred onto the film

A

condensation

84
Q

the appearance this artifact may vary from one manufacturer to another and one film type to another

A

film-screen handling artifacts

85
Q

FILM AND SCREEN HANDLING ARTIFACTS:

bending of film before exposure = ______

A

minus density artifact

86
Q

FILM AND SCREEN HANDLING ARTIFACTS:

_____ on the film can also cause artifacts; handle films by the _____ while loading and unloading cassettes

A

fingerprints; edges

87
Q

occasionally, something not meant to be imaged will inadvertently show up on the film

in mammography, these could include the patient’s nose, chin or ear, fingers, a necklace, or an examination gown

A

positioning artifacts

Prelim RMG0 32 (2 decks)

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