LHA/LHD Definitions

Question 1

Advisory Control

Answer 1

A form of air traffic control in
which the controlling agency monitors radar and radio
contact with aircraft under its control and provides
traffic advisories. Traffic separation is the responsibility
of the individual pilot, with the assistance provided by
the control agency.

Question 2

Air Capable Ship

Answer 2

All ships other than CV/CVN
or LHA/LHD from which aircraft can take off, be
recovered, or routinely receive and transfer logistic
support.

Question 3

Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC)

Answer 3

The centralized air traffic control agency
for LHA/LHD responsible for maintaining the status
and operational control of aircraft departing the ship
and recovery of inbound aircraft after a mission is
completed. AATCC is responsible for providing IMC
approach and departure control services. Also, AATCC
is responsible for maintaining the status and tactical
control of airborne helicopters in support of amphibious
assaults as directed by Tactical Air Control Center
(TACC) Helicopter Coordination Section (HCS).

Question 4

Amphibious Assault Aviation Ship

Answer 4

An LHA or LHD

Question 5

Angels

Answer 5

Altitude in thousands of feet

Question 6

Approach Control

Answer 6

A control station in AATCC
responsible for controlling air traffic within the control
area except that controlled by final, departure, or marshal
control. It also is responsible for providing positive
control for all CCA waveoff traffic until a radar handoff
to another control station has been accomplished.

Question 7

Bent

Answer 7

A term used to identify when a radar or NAVAIDis

down/out of service.

Question 8

Ball

Answer 8

A pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid

is in sight.

Question 9

Bingo

Answer 9

An order to proceed and land at the field specified,
utilizing a bingo profile. Aircraft is considered to be in an emergency/fuel critical situation. Bearing, distance,
and destination shall be provided.

Question 10

Buster

Answer 10

An order used by a ship controller to direct an

aircraft to proceed at maximum safe speed.

Question 11

Charlie

Answer 11

A signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship. A
number suffix indicates time delay in minutes before
landing may be anticipated.

Question 12

Clara

Answer 12

A pilot transmission meaning he does NOT have

the visual landing aid (meatball) in sight.

Question 13

Control Area

Answer 13

A circular airspace with a radius of 50
nm around the ship that extends upward from the surface
to unlimited altitude and is under the cognizance of
AATCC.

Question 14

Control Zone

Answer 14

The airspace within a circular limit
is defined by 5 nm horizontal radius from the ship,
extending upward from the surface to and including
2,500 feet unless otherwise designated for special
operations, and is under the cognizance of the air officer
during VMC.

Question 15

Crutched

Answer 15

Refers to any helicopter in a folded
configuration with blade clamps and support poles
installed.

Question 16

Dearming (safing)

Answer 16

An operation in which a weapon
is changed from a state of readiness for initiation to a
safe condition.

Question 17

Dearming Area

Answer 17

That area where ordnance is changed
from a state of readiness to a safe condition. All
dearming evolutions are to be conducted in the dearming
area by the individual stores loading manual/checklist.
The area ahead/behind and/or surrounding the aircraft
shall be kept clear until all weapons/ordnance are
completely safe. When taxiing aircraft from the landing
area to the dearming area, care must be taken to
minimize exposure of the armed ordnance to personnel
and equipment.

Question 18

Delta

Answer 18

A signal given to hold and conserve fuel at an
altitude and position appropriate to type aircraft and case
recovery in effect. Also a pattern around the ship used to
hold aircraft pending further clearance, assignment, etc.

Question 19

Density Altitude

Answer 19

Pressure altitude in feet corrected
for temperature and relative humidity. The higher the
ambient air temperature/relative humidity, the higher
the density altitude, resulting in a decrease in aircraft
performance.

Question 20

Departure Control

Answer 20

A control station in AATCC that

is responsible for the orderly flow of departing traffic.

Question 21

Divert

Answer 21

An order for an aircraft to proceed and land at the

field specified. This is a nonemergency situation.

Question 22

Downloading

Answer 22

An operation that removes airborne

weapons/stores from an aircraft.

Question 23

Easy Rider

Answer 23

Precision approach landing system used for
CCA approaches (SPN-46/35)

Question 24

Emergency Expected Approach Time

Answer 24

The future time, assigned prior to launch,
at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound
or penetrate from a preassigned fix under lost
communications conditions.

Question 25

EFB Emergency Final Bearing

Answer 25

A magnetic heading provided by AATCC to all flightcrews prior to launch to be used when executing emergency procedures for communications failure in IMC. The emergency marshal pattern shall be relative to the EFB and is the final bearing for the lost communications tacan approach.

Question 26

Emergency Marshal

Answer 26

A marshal established by AATCC and assigned to each aircraft prior to launch. The emergency marshal consists of a radial, DME, altitude, and emergency expected approach time.

Question 27

Emission Control (EMCON)

Answer 27

Control of all electromagnetic radiations, including electronic communications, radar, and visual systems. During its imposition, no electronic emitting device within the designated bands shall be operated unless absolutely essential to the mission of the force.

Question 28

Expected approach time (EAT)

Answer 28

The future time at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound from a prearranged fix. Aircraft shall depart and commence approach at assigned time if no further instructions are received.

Question 29

Father

Answer 29

Tacan

Question 30

Final Bearing

Answer 30

The magnetic bearing assigned by AATCC for final approach. It is an extension of the landing area centerline.

Question 31

Final Control

Answer 31

A control station in AATCC responsible for controlling traffic in instrument meteorological conditions until pilot reports “VMC” or “meatball” or reaches approach minimums.

Question 32

Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility

Answer 32

A U.S. Navy fixed, shore-based air traffic control facility. Designated to manage offshore and inland operating areas and other assigned airspace, including special use airspace. Provides joint-use scheduling and control of surface, subsurface, and airborne military platforms operating within and transiting to and from these areas. Administers services to support the coexistence of military government and nongovernment agencies consistent with national priorities.

Question 33

Gadget

Answer 33

All inclusive term for air search radar.

Question 34

Ground Resonance

Answer 34

A condition of geometric imbalance on helicopters caused by offset dynamic forces when the helicopter makes improper contact with the deck. If allowed to continue, destruction of the helicopter is imminent. Improper tiedowns aggravate the onset of ground resonance.

Question 35

HERO safe ordnance

Answer 35

Any ordnance item that is sufficiently shielded or otherwise so protected that all EEDs/CADs contained by the item are immune to adverse effects (safety or reliability) when the item is employed in its expected shipboard RF environments, provided that the general HERO requirements are observed.

Question 36

HERO susceptible ordnance system

Answer 36

Any ordnance system proven (by tests) to contain EEDs/CADs that can be adversely affected by RF energy to the point that the safety and/or reliability of the system is in jeopardy when the system is employed in expected shipboard RF environments.

Question 37

HERO unsafe ordnance

Answer 37

Any ordnance item is defined as being HERO unsafe when its external wiring is physically exposed; when tests are being conducted on the item that result in additional electrical connections to the item; when EEDs/CADs having exposed wire leads are present, handled, or loaded; when the item is being assembled/disassembled; or when the item is in a disassembled condition. Ordnance items that fall into the above classification may be exempted from being classified as HERO unsafe ordnance as the result of HERO tests conducted to determine specific susceptibility.

Question 38

IMC

Answer 38

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling, are less than the minimal specified for visual meteorological conditions.

Question 39

KILO report

Answer 39

A pilot report indicating aircraft mission | readiness.

Question 40

Marshal

Answer 40

A bearing, distance, and altitude fix designated by AATCC from which pilots shall orient holding and from which initial approach shall commence.

Question 41

Marshal Control

Answer 41

A control station in AATCC that is | responsible for the orderly flow of inbound traffic.

Question 42

Meatball (or ball)

Answer 42

A pilot report indicating that the VLA is in sight, e.g., amber beam of stabilized glideslope indicator.

Question 43

Mixed Operations

Answer 43

Simultaneous fixed-wing and helicopter air operations. Tiltrotor involvement with either type aircraft in the appropriate mode does not constitute mixed operations

Question 44

Monitor Control

Answer 44

The monitoring of radar and radio | channels for emergency transmissions.

Question 45

Mother

Answer 45

Parent Vessel

Question 46

NVD

Answer 46

Any device (NVG, FLIR, low-light TC, etc.) that aids an individual’s vision at night.

Question 47

Nonprecision approach

Answer 47

Radar-controlled approach or an approach flown by reference to navigation aids in which glideslope information is not available.

Question 48

Nonradar Control

Answer 48

A form of air traffic control in which the pilot flies according to a published procedure or as prescribed by the controlling agency. Traffic separation is provided by the controlling agency using frequent pilot position reports and modified separation criteria. This form of control is used in case of emergency, when all shipboard control radar is inoperative or, in the opinion of the AATCC officer, unsafe.

Question 49

NVD Compatible

Answer 49

Lighting systems which are only required for the unaided operator and shall have no adverse effect on the operator equipped with ANVIS devices. A system virtually invisible to the ANVIS devices

Question 50

NVD Compliant

Answer 50

Components that are NVD compatible, NVD shipboard friendly, and incompatible systems which are dimmed, baffled or hidden from direct line of sight of the aided operator. A NVD compliant ship consisting of this lighting discipline can be used for aided and unaided operations so the ship’s mission is not compromised and the aided/unaided personnel can perform all their duties, tasks and functions in a safe and efficient manner.

Question 51

NVD shipboard covert

Answer 51

NVD shipboard covert. Only required to be seen by aided operators and cannot be detected by the unaided observer.

Question 52

NVD shipboard friendly

Answer 52

Lighting systems which are required to be seen by both the aided and unaided operators simultaneously and/or independently. Has spectral energy emitted in a controlled fashion to allow direct aided view/recognition without impacting the devices to the point that critical visual cues are washed out or obscured.

Question 53

Operational Necessity

Answer 53

A mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.

Question 54

Ordnance Handling

Answer 54

The physical act of moving explosive devices manually or with powered equipment within the confines of the ship.

Question 55

Parrot

Answer 55

Military IFF/transponder

Question 56

PMC

Answer 56

An administrative/logistics flight scheduled for transfer of personnel and/or material to/from the ship. PMC does not include lifts of combat troops for actual or training vertical assaults or withdrawals.

Question 57

Pigeons

Answer 57

Magnetic bearing and distance from an aircraft to a specified location

Question 58

POGO

Answer 58

A term utilized by a controlling agency indicating return to last assigned frequency if no contact experienced on newly assigned frequency.

Question 59

POPEYE

Answer 59

A pilot term used to indicate that his aircraft has | entered IMC.

Question 60

Positive Control

Answer 60

A form of air traffic control in which the controlling agency has radar and radio contact with the aircraft being controlled and published approach and departure procedures are complied with, or where specific assignments regarding heading and altitude are issued by the controller. While altitude separation is provided by pilot maintaining assigned altitude, lateral and time separation is the responsibility of the air traffic controller. Speed changes may be directed by the air traffic controller.

Question 61

Precision Approach

Answer 61

An approach in which azimuth and glideslope information are provided to the pilot (CCA).

Question 62

Primary Flight Control (PRIFLY)

Answer 62

The controlling agency that is responsible for aircraft traffic control within the control zone.

Question 63

Ramp Time

Answer 63

The time that the deck will be ready to recover aircraft and an aircraft is expected to arrive at the ramp.

Question 64

Raspberry

Answer 64

A ship-to-shore HF radio net, used for flight | following and administrative traffic concerning aircraft

Question 65

Tactical Air Control Center (TACC) (afloat)

Answer 65

When embarked, TACC is the primary air control agency for the Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) and/or Amphibious Task Force (ATF), responsible for all air operations supporting the amphibious force. This control refers to all airborne operations not incidental to the actual launch or recovery of aircraft, instrument departure, approach and marshal.

Question 66

Tactical Direction

Answer 66

A form of nonradar control in which tactical information is passed to an aircraft by the controlling unit, but the aircraft commander is responsible for navigation and safety.

Question 67

three nautical mile DME fix

Answer 67

A checkpoint in a CCA on the final bearing 3 miles from the ship through which all helicopters shall pass in a landing configuration

Question 68

VMC

Answer 68

Weather conditions in which VFR applies, expressed in terms of visibility, ceiling height, and aircraft clearance from clouds along the flightpath. When these criteria do not exist, IMC prevails and IFR must be complied with.

Question 69

Case I

Answer 69

Fixed wing weather ceiling to be no lower than 3,000 feet and not less than 5-nm visibility (1,000-foot ceiling and 3-nm visibility for helicopters).

Question 70

Case II

Answer 70

Fixed wing weather ceiling to be no lower than 1,000 feet and not less than 5-nm visibility unless modified by ship’s commanding officer for special operations (500-foot ceiling and 1-nm visibility absolute minimum Case II for helicopters).

Question 71

Case III

Answer 71

V/STOL weather ceiling below 1,000 feet or visibility below 5 nm or ceiling and visibility below Case II minimums set by ship’s commanding officer for special operations (below 500-foot ceiling or less than 1-nm visibility for helicopters).

Question 72

ZIPLIP

Answer 72

A condition that may be prescribed for flight operations during day or night VMC under which positive communications control is waived and radio transmissions are held to the minimum necessary for safety of flight.