Limits Flashcards

1
Q

Nozzles ground idle limit

A

77-83%

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2
Q

Nozzles mil limit

A

0-45%

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3
Q

Nozzles MAX limit

A

50-100%

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4
Q

Oil pressure start limit

A

With a minimum of 10% N2 and minimum oil pressure of 10 psi within 30 seconds

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5
Q

Oil pressure ground idle limit

A

35-90 psi

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6
Q

Oil pressure steady state (MIL/MAX) limit

A

80-150 psi

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7
Q

Engine vibration fan VIB limit

A

1.6 ips max

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8
Q

Engine vibration core VIB limit

A

2.2 ips max

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9
Q

CG limitation

A

16.8-31.8% MAC

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10
Q

Gross weight field takeoff/inflight limit

A

66,000

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11
Q

Gross weight field landing/FCLP/T&G limit

A

50,600

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12
Q

Gross weight catapult limit

A

66,000

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13
Q

Gross weight carrier landing/barricade limit

A

44,000

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14
Q

Refueling probe extension/retraction airspeed limit

A

300 KCAS

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15
Q

Refueling probe extended airspeed limit

A

400 KCAS

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16
Q

Landing gear normal extension/retraction airspeed limit

A

250 KCAS

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17
Q

Landing gear emergency extension airspeed limit

A

170 KCAS

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18
Q

Nose gear tire limit

A

195 KGS

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19
Q

Main gear tire limit

A

210 KGS

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20
Q

Flaps airspeed limit

A

250 KCAS

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21
Q

Canopy/wingfold limit

A

60 knots

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22
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL AOA limit

A

0-14 degrees AOA

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23
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL angle of bank limit

A

less than or equal to 90 degrees

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24
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL symmetrical acceleration limit

A

0.0-2.0g

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25
Flaps HALF or FULL asymmetrical acceleration limit
0.5-1.5g
26
Max range AOA
3.4 degrees
27
Max endurance AOA
4.8 degrees
28
Prohibited maneuver: Flight in lightening or ____
Thunderstorm
29
Prohibited maneuver: Use of RALT hold below ____ AGL
500'
30
Prohibited maneuver: Selection of ____ with the ECS MODE switch
MAN
31
Prohibited maneuver: Landing with auto-pilot engage except: a. ____ b. ____ c. ____
Mode 1 ACL Field landings with FPAH/ROLL PLM engaged
32
Prohibited maneuver: ____ departures/spins
Intentional
33
Prohibited maneuver: Takeoff with a FADEC ____
DEGD
34
Prohibited maneuver: ____ g except transient
0
35
Prohibited maneuver: ____ release of fuel tanks or ARS
AUX
36
Prohibited maneuver: Aerobraking with greater than ____ knots crosswind, pitch greater than ____ degrees, airspeed less than ____ KCAS, GAIN ORIDE, FCS AIR DAT caution or FLAP SCHED caution
5, 10, 80
37
N2 start limit
Greater than or equal to 10%
38
N2 flight idle limit
Greater than or equal to 61%
39
N2 maximum steady state limit
100%
40
N2 maximum transient limit
102%
41
N1 steady state limit
100%
42
N1 transient limit
103%
43
EGT steady state MIL limit
932
44
EGT steady state MAX limit
952
45
EGT transient start limit
871
46
EGT transient MIL limit
976
47
EGT transient MAX limit
976
48
Flight in lightening or thunderstorms is ____. If thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable, fly at ____ cruise airspeed but not less than ____ KCAS if above ____ feet
Prohibited, optimum, 250, 35,000
49
Flight through known icing conditions should be ____
Avoided
50
If possible icing conditions, inlet temperature should be maintained at a minimum of ____. An inlet temperature of ____ is desired. Maintain less than ____ AOA to prevent LEX ice accumulation
+5 C, +10 C, 6 degrees
51
On the ground if the ambient temperature is less than ____ and visible moisture is present, engine anti-ice should be on
45 F
52
For cold weather starts, avoid actuating any hydraulic system for ____ minute(s) after both engines are online
2
53
During cold weather starts in temperatures less than ____, up to ____ FCS exerciser BITs may be required to get a successful FCS reset
0 C, 3
54
If the landing gear has accumulated snow or slush, leave the landing gear down for ____ minute(s) after takeoff to allow the snow or slush to clear
1
55
During cold weather starts, oil pressure may appear invalid if the pressure is above ____ psi. The maximum oil pressure 2.5 minutes after start is ____ psi
200, 180
56
Can you take off with any channel of the FADEC degraded?
No
57
F414-GE-400 thrust at MIL
13,900 lbs
58
F414-GE-400 thrust at MAX
20,700 lbs
59
Zero g flight (except transient-over ____ seconds between ____g and ____g) is ____
2, -0.2, +0.2, prohibited
60
Negative g flight over ____ seconds is prohibited. A minimum of ____ seconds should elapse between negative g maneuvers
10, 30
61
A L/R AMAD PR caution indicates a loss of respective ____. It could indicate an AMAD ____ and result in possible engine or AMAD ____
AMAD oil pressure, AMAD oil leak, fire
62
A L/R OIL hot could indicate either: - ____ - ____ - The our of limit parameter will be highlighted and surrounded by <> on the ENG page
High AMAD oil temperature, high engine oil temperature
63
Do not catapult with an external tank that is not empty (____) or full (____)
<100 lbs, >2700 lbs
64
Do not perform a carrier arrestment or touch and go with more than ____ lbs in an external tank
800
65
Pulling any FCS ____ except when directed by NATOPS is prohibited
Circuit breaker
66
Selection of ____ on the ECS mode switch is prohbited
MAN
67
Selection of ____ with the ECS mode switch while the aft cooling fan shutoff valve is open may cause the fan to overspeed causing a catastrophic fan failure potentially leading to a loss of OBOGS
MAN
68
The emergency oxygen located in the seat pan provides oxygen for approximately ____ minutes. Under less than optimal conditions (low altitude, heavy breathing, loose mask), it may provide as few as ____ minutes of oxygen
10-20, 3
69
Zero airspeed ____ and intentional ____ are prohibited
Tailslides, spins/departures
70
Yaw rates above ____ are prohibited
40 degrees per second
71
Holding roll inputs (lateral stick or rudder pedal) past ____ is prohibited
360 degrees
72
Inflight selection of ____ on the SPIN switch is prohibited
RCVY
73
Pushing above -1g and above ____ KCAS and below ____ feet is prohibited
700, 10,000
74
Holding lateral stick past ____ bank angle change when pushing between 0.0 and -1.0g's
180 degrees
75
Abrupt full stick (full aft stick within 0.5 seconds) with less than ___ lbs of fuel is prohibited
3500
76
Flight with GAIN ORIDE selected above ____ AOA, above ____ KCAS (Flaps AUTO), ____ KCAS (Flaps HALF), ____ KCAS (Flaps FULL) is prohibited
10, 350, 200, 190
77
Nominal hydraulic pressure is ____ psi
3000
78
High pressure (____ psi) is commanded by the FCCs when airloads are high during high speed flight
5000
79
Hydraulic caution (1A/1B/2A/2B) comes on when pressure falls below ____ psi
1400
80
RLS: - System A off: ____% - System A on/System B off: ____% - System A on/System B on: ____%
50, 30, 15
81
For field takeoff and in-flight, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs. For the asymmetry calculation use stations ____ through ____ stores, pylons and external fuel and include internal wing fuel split with a ____ caution
29000, 2, 10, FUEL XFER
82
For field landing, FCLP and T&G landings, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs. For the asymmetry calculations, use stations ____ through ____ stores, pylons and external fuel and include ____ fuel splits
33000, 1, 11, internal wing
83
For catapult launches, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs when using stations 2 though 10 stores, pylons and fuel and not to exceed ____ ft-lbs when using stations 1 though 11 and including internal wing fuel imbalance
29000, 30800
84
For carrier landings, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs and uses stations 1 through 11 and internal wing fuel imbalance in the calculations
30800
85
For MC OFP H3E and up, the lateral symmetry is calculated and displayed on the CHKLST page. The ____ value is used for field takeoff, catapult maximum asymmetry and in-flight. The ____ value is used for landing events and catapult end speed and weight board calculations
FLY, LAND