LM Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many chromosomes does a person have?

A

46 chromosomes
23 pairs of chromosomes

22 pairs of autosomes
2 sex chromosomes (XX females, XY males)

6.6 billion base pairs of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is chromatin?

A

Nucleoprotein complex in nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are telomeres?

A

Compound structures at the ends of chromosomes that protect the DNA from damage

Like plastic at the end of a shoelace

Repeated sequences (TTAGG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a sister chromatid?

A

A sister chromatid refers to the identical copies formed by the DNA replication of a chromosome, with both copies joined together by a common centromere.

In other words, a sister chromatid may also be said to be ‘one-half’ of the duplicated chromosome.

—> duplicated —> X
Chromosome is duplicated and forms sister chromatids which then separate into homologous chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are centromeres?

A

Specialized structures where microtubules attach to control chromosome segregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are chromosomes usually identified?

A

Size and banding patterns after non-specific staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is spectral karyotyping?

A

Aka chromosome painting

Allows for more accurate identification of chromosomes and even parts of chromosomes

Nucleotide probes for specific chromosomes are labeled with different dyes and hybridized to chromosome spreads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are chromosomes located during interphase in the nucleus?

A

Chromosomes remain in non-overlapping territories in the interphase nucleus

They are restricted to a territory or domain within the nucleus

Chromatin is organized into territories!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is chromatin?

A

the material of which the chromosomes of organisms other than bacteria (i.e., eukaryotes) are composed. It consists of protein, RNA, and DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens in the nucleolus?

A

Site of rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the nucleus comprised of?

A

Nucleolus
Heterochromatin
Euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

Condensed chromatin

Dark spots on an EM

Is throughout the nucleus but especially just inside the nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is euchromatin?

A

Decondensed chromatin

Light speckled part of the EM electron micrograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are histones?

A

Small basic proteins that condense DNA

Highly alkaline proteins found in eukaryotic cell nuclei that package and order the DNA into structural units called nucleosomes

They are the chief protein components of chromatin, acting as spools around which DNA winds, and playing a role in gene regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the levels of chromatin structure?

A

DNA —> nucleosomes —> packed nucleosomes in 30 nm chromatin fiber —> extended loops of transcriptionally active chromatin tethered to protein scaffold —> condensed heterochromatin and dispersed euchromatin —> entire chromosome at metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are nucleosomes?

A

DNA coiled around a core of histones

Nucleosomes core stucture consists of an octamer of 2 pairs each of 4 histones proteins (h2a, h2b, h3, and h4) and then the DNA wraps around the outside of the core (146 bp of DNA)

An additional histones H1 is more loosely associated with the nucleosome and there’s only one per nucleosome = linker histone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most open chromatin conformation?

A

Nucleosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most condensed form of chromatin?

A

Condensed circular domains as seen in mitotic chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the region between nucleosomes called?

A

Linker DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What’s another name for 30 nvm fiber?

A

Solenoid/helical structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is chromatin structure changed and how?

A

Chromatin is opened up to allow access for DNA replication, transcription and repair

Chromatin structure is controlled by:

  1. histone modifications (acetylation and methylation)
  2. Methylation of specific cytosine residues in the DNA

DNA is packed into the small space of the nucleus by association with histone proteins to form nucleosomes —> degree of packing is controlled during the cell cycle to form mitotic chromosomes and unpacked to provide access for DNA replication, transcription and repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a nucleotide?

A

Make up DNA

Made of one sugar molecule, one phosphate and one of the four bases

Nucleotide = Base+sugar+phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are nucleic acids?

A

Polymers of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is DNA?

A

The polymer of deoxyribonucleotides

Functions in the storage and transmission of genetic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is RNA
The polymer of ribonucleotides Plays many roles in the expression of genetic information
26
What is a nucleoside?
Base+sugar
27
What are the purine bases? What are their characteristics?
Purine Adenine Guanine Two heterocyclic rings Only adenine and guanine are commonly found in nucleic acids = found in both DNA and RNA
28
What are the pyrimidine bases? What are their characteristics?
Pyrimidine Cytosine Uracil Thymine Single rings
29
Which pyrimidines are found in DNA and which in RNA?
DNA = cytosine and thymine RNA = cytosine and uracil
30
What is the structure of a ribonucleoside?
Ribose+base=ribonucleoside Bases are always attached to the 1’ carbon on the sugar OH in the 2’ position
31
What is the structure of a deoxyribonucleoside?
2’deoxyribose+base = deoxyribonucleoside Bases are always attached to the 1’ carbon on the sugar H at the 2’ position instead of the OH in ribose
32
What is the base, ribonucleoside and ribonucleotide name for A?
``` Base = adenine Side = adenosine Tide = adenosine monophosphate (AMP) ```
33
What is the base, ribonucleoside and ribonucleotide name for G?
``` Base= guanine Side = guanosine Tide = guanosine monophosphate (GMP) ```
34
What is the base, ribonucleoside and ribonucleotide name for C?
``` Base = cytosine Side = cytidine Tide = cytidine monophosphate (CMP) ```
35
What is the base, ribonucleoside and ribonucleotide name for U?
``` Base = uracil Side = uridine Tide = uridine monophosphate (UMP) ```
36
What is the base, deoxyribonucleoside and deoxyribonucleotide name for A?
``` Base = adenine Side = deoxyadenosine Tide = deoxyadenosine monophosphate (dAMP) ```
37
What is the base, deoxyribonucleoside and deoxyribonucleotide name for G?
``` Base = guanine Side = deoxyguanosine Tide = deoxyguanosine monophosphate ```
38
What is the base, deoxyribonucleoside and deoxyribonucleotide name for C?
``` Base = cytosine Side = deoxycytidine Tide = deoxycytidine monophosphate (dCMP) ```
39
What is the base, deoxyribonucleoside and deoxyribonucleotide name for T?
``` Base = thymine Side = thymidine Tide = thymidine monophosphate (TMP) ``` Deoxyribonucleosides are named by specifying the deoxy form. An exception is made for thymidine since thymidine is almost always in the deoxy form, the deoxy designation is omitted - so thymidine monophosphate is called TMP even though it contains deoxyribose
40
What are the base pairs in DNA?
G-C A-T So the % of G always equals the % of C and same with A and T = Chargaff rules
41
What are the chargaff rules?
The % of G is always equal to C and the % of A is always equal to that of T in DNA base pairing
42
What are nucleotides connected by?
Phosphodiester bonds
43
How are polynucleotide sequences written?
5’—>3’ direction Phosphoester bonds are made by adding nucleotides to the 3’ hydroxyl end of the chain Phosphates are in the 3’ and 5’ position of the sugars
44
What is the most common form of DNA in cells?
B DNA
45
What is the backbone of DNA?
Sugar-phosphate backbone!! The sugar-phosphate backbones have opposite polarities in the two strands
46
What are major and minor grooves in DNA?
The are lined by potential hydrogen bond donors and acceptors that can interact with proteins and other molecules (not directly involved in base-pairing) DNA binding proteins can recognize specific sequences and bind to them in the groovesz
47
What are the characteristics of B-form dsDNA?
Two right handed hélices Strands can’t be separated without unwinding the duplex The two strands are anti parallel and complementary in sequences and have opposite polarities
48
What are the major structural differences between DNA and RNA?
The use of uracil instead of thymine and the use of ribose instead of deoxyribose Made single-stranded and forms complex secondary structures due to formation of double stranded regions (rRNA and tRNA) RNA forms more diverse structures
49
What happens to RNA in alkaline solutions?
Hydrolysis The 2’ hydroxyl in the ribose of RNA makes is susceptible of hydrolysis in basic solutions OH- will take the H from the hydroxyl group to make water and leave a negatively charged oxygen on the ribose **DNA is much more stable and suitable for long term storage of genetic information
50
What explains the melting and renaturation of DNA?
The double helical structure formed by complementary strands explains the DNA properties of melting and renaturation (hybridization)
51
What’s the central dogma of molecular biology?d
DNA —> transcription —> RNA —> translation —> protein *can also have reverse transcription **all these processes depend upon formation of complementary base pairing
52
What does dsDNA stand for?
Double stranded DNA
53
What is the general way DNA is replicated? Which way is the strand read?
An old strand serves as template for the new strand and the old strand remains paired with the new strand at the end Template strand is read 3’-5’ and RNA is synthesized 5’-3’
54
What happens in general during transcription?
DsDNA unwinds to allow copying by RNA polymerase of one of the strands into a complementary RNA strand
55
What happens in general during translation?
Complementary antiparallel binding of he anticodon for methionyl-tRNA (CAU)to the mRNA codon for methionine (AUG, the initiation codon for translation) An essential step is recognition of the codon in the mRNA by the anticodon of the corresponding tRNA A complementary strand is NOT synthesized, just recognized
56
What are the different forms DNA exists in?
1. Double-stranded linear 2. Double-stranded circular 3. Single-stranded linear 4. Single stranded circular
57
What are examples of double-stranded linear DNA?
Chromosomal and some viral DNA
58
What are examples of double stranded circular DNA?
Mitochondrial, bacterial and some viral DNA
59
What are examples of single-stranded linear DNA
Some viral DNA
60
What are some examples of single-stranded circular DNA?
Some viral DNA
61
What is denatured DNA?
Single stranded DNA
62
Explain DNA buoyant density. What’s it used for?
It’s based on the % of G-C base pairs High GC content = higher buoyant density Denatured DNA forms a less extended structures packs together better, and is more dense than dsDNA Used for analysis and purification
63
How does density gradient centrifugation of DNA work? What is it used for?
Standard way to separate DNA based on density using cesium chloride (CsCl2) gradient DNA mixed with CsCl2 and centrifuged for many hours so that a gradient of cesium chloride salt is established and then the DNA migrates to its corresponding density in the salt gradient DNA will separate based on different portages of AT and GC bases This can be used to separate DNA from other cellular components like RNA and proteins because they have very different densities than DNA
64
What is the density of DNA proportional to?
G-C content!! The more G-C pairs the more dense!
65
What agents cause DNA to denature? How do they cause DNA to denature?
Heat Extremes of pH Urea Formamide They disrupt hydrogen bonds between the bases **these same things unfold proteins!!
66
What is re-forming dsDNA?
Hybridization = renaturation Heat the DNA to separate the strands then slowly cool to re-form dsDNA or hybridize DNA (re-annealing)
67
What does the annealing rate depend on?
Time and concentration After denaturation, DNA is incubated at a temperature below the melting temperature Next, in the nucleation step (second order), short complementary regions form double strands Then in the second step (first order), if the short regions are within a region of extended complementary sequences, the dsDNA zips up rapidly
68
What is hyperchromicity?
Hyperchromic effect = melted single stranded DNA absorbs more light at 260 nm than dsDNA Absorbance at 260 nm decreases as single strand anneal to form dsDNA The change in absorbance can be used to measure the degree of melting of the nucleic acids (Nucleic acids have an absorbance maximum around 260 no)
69
What is the definition of the melting temperature of DNA?
Tm = temperature at which half of the DNA is single stranded
70
What causes a higher Tm for DNA?
Depends on base composition: High GC content results in higher Tm - linear relationship Depends on ionic strength: high concentration of mono/divalent cations stabilize the duplex DNA (because DNA is negatively charged)
71
What are standard hybridization conditions?
20 C below the estimated melting temperature
72
What applications is Tm important for?
Southern blots and PCR (polymerase chain reaction) Southern blot = hybridization of a labeled DNA probe with DNA immobilized to a filter PCR = method to amplify DNA using alternate cycles of hybridization, polymerization and melting - the GC content of the DNA primers is needed to calculate the hybridization temperature
73
What are the classes of eukaryotic DNA?
1. Single-copy genes (unique sequence) 2. Middle repetitive genes 3. Highly repetitive DNA
74
What are examples of single-copy genes?
Protein coding genes
75
What are examples of middle-repetitive genes?
- tRNA and rRNA coding genes (these coding genes products must be made in large amounts for protein translation) - pseudogenes Most are tandemly duplicated
76
What are examples of highly repetitive DNA?
Simple-sequence DNA (ex. Satellite DNA = ATATAT) Dispersed repetitive DNA = most abundant and derived from mobile genetic elements - arise from endogenous retroviruses which transpose via an RNA intermediate More than 30% of human DNA consists of sequences repeated at least 20 times
77
What is satellite DNA? How are they different than bulk DNA?
Simple repeat sequence like ATATAT Called this because they have a base composition and buoyant density different from bulk DNA - they’re lighter!! After gradient centrifugation, satellite DNA Is a lighter density and shows up as separate bands from the main band
78
Why is DNA replication important?
- ensures transmission of genetic information - errors in replication can give rise to mutations - mutations in somatic cells can lead to cancer (any cell other than reproductive) - enzymes of DNA replication are also involved in DNA recombination and repair - replication provides a target for antimicrobial and chemotherapeutic agents
79
What is the chemical reaction catalyze by DNA polymerase?
DNA polymerase makes DNA by binding nucleotides together! Substrates = dNTPs and the 3’ end of the growing new DNA chain Nucleophilic attack by the 3’-OH on the alpha phosphate of the incoming dNTP which forms a phosphoester bond —> the hydrolysis of the pyrophosphate drives the reaction in the forward direction PP is the leaving group!
80
What are the requirements for DNA polymerase activity?
You need: - all four deoxynucleoside 5’-triphosphates and Mg+2 - a primer (RNA or DNA) with a free 3’OH end - a template of single-stranded or dsDNA Synthesis of the new DNA chain is always in the 5’—>3’ direction
81
What are the three functions of DNA Polymerase I?
1. 5’—>3’ exonuclease activity which hydrolysis the RNA primers 2. 3’—>5’ exonuclease activity removes mismatches bases (proofreading) 3. Required for DNA repair and removal of RNA primers in DNA replication 4. DNA polymerase First known DNA polymerase from E. Coli and composed of a single polypeptide chain
82
What is DNA polymerase III?
The major polymerase for DNA replication in E. Coli An aggregate of 7 different polypeptides 2 enzymatic activities: - DNA polymerase - 3’—>5’ exonuclease activity removes mismatched bases (proofreading)
83
How does DNA Polymerase proofread?
New bases are added to the 3’ end of the growing strand If a wrong base is incorporated, that’s detected and this region of the strand moves to the exonuclease site where the misincorporated base is removed Then the strand returns to the polymerase site and synthesis resumes The strand gets proof read from 3’—>5’
84
How is DNA replication accuracy ensured? 3 ways
1. Only nucleotides that can base pair with the template are incorporated 2. The 3’—>5’ exonuclease activity removes mismatched bases = proofreading 3. Mismatched bases can also be repaired immediately after replication by mismatched repair
85
Which way does DNA polymerase I read?
Has activity in both the 3-5 direction (proofreading) and in the 5-3 direction to remove RNA primers DNA Polymerase III lacks the 5-3 activity
86
How does DNA replication start?
A special RNA polymerase called primase copies a region of DNA into a complementary RNA strand After a tiny stretch of RNA is made, DNA polymerase takes over and synthesized DNA (This is DNA polymerase III in e. Coli) Then to join together then RNA-DNA pieces, DNA polymerase I in e. Coli uses its 5’-3’ exonuclease activity to digest the RNA primer Then DNA polymerase I synthesized DNA to fill the gap - this leaves a nick in the new strand which gets sealed by a DNA ligase (does this via a phosphoester bond)
87
What is the replication fork?
Since DNA can only be synthesized in the 5’-3’ direction, the orientation of synthesis on one of the strands will be in the opposite direction of movement of the replication fork The solution is to copy one strand continuously (leading strand) and the other strand discontinuously (lagging strand)
88
What are Okazaki fragments?
Short DNA fragments from the lagging strand that are briefly present in the vicinity of the replication fork Gaps between Okazaki fragments are filled by DNA polymerase I I would look at slide 66 in LM 1.1-2.1 or khan academy to make sure you get this
89
What does topoisomerase do?
Relieves supercooling ahead of the replication fork
90
What do helicases do?
Enzymes that unwind DNA to make single strands accessible Energy for this reaction comes from hydrolysis of ATP to ADP Required for DNA replication, transcription and repair
91
What is an issue with DNA uncoiling during replication?
It causes supercoiling which has to be relieved by topoisomerase Think about pulling apart two wound up strings, it’ll cause a big knot at the other end
92
What are plasmids?
Small circular DNA molecules
93
What are the types of topoisomerases and their function?
Type I: cuts one strand of the duplex and relieves supercoiling Type II: cuts both strands of the DNA duplex and induces ATP dependent negative supercoiling Both types form tyrosyl DNA-protein covalent intermediates Both types are targets for anti cancer drugs and antibiotics that stabilize the DNA-protein covalent intermediate inducing double strand breaks
94
What are quinolone antibiotics?
They inhibit DNA gyrase (a bacterial topoisomerase II)
95
What are the characteristics of type II topoisomerases?
Require energy from hydrolysis of ATP (type I does NOT) Cleaves both strands of duplex so that another duplex can pass through (unlike type I that just nicks the DNA on one strand and then reseals the nick) Removes positive supercoiling formed ahead of the replication fork Introduces negative supercoiling into relaxed DNA
96
What is DNA gyrase?
Type II topoisomerase inhibited by quinolone drugs DNA gyrase is a bacterial type II topoisomerase that is required for DNA replication. The bacterial enzyme is more sensitive to quinolones than the corresponding eukaryotic enzymes.
97
What are all the enzymatic activities and proteins required for DNA replication?
helicase to separate strands single stranded DNA binding proteins primase-RNA polymerase DNA polymerase 5’-exonuclease to hydrolyze RNA primer 3’-exonuclease “Editor” ligase to join DNA fragments topoisomerase to relieve torsional stress generated from replication fork
98
Characteristics of gene expression
Mostly due to transcription and translation Regulation of expression is required for development, differentiation, and adaptation Different cell types due to differential expression Steroid hormone response mediated by gene expression Cancer arises from dysregulation of gene expression
99
What is transcription?
The process of making an RNA strand complementary to one of the DNA strands RNA polymerase incorporates nucleotides that can base pair and are complementary to the template strand (antisense strand) The other DNA stand that is not the template strand has a sequence that is identical to the copied RNA except for having T instead of U so it’s called the sense strand
100
What is the sense and antisense strand?
Sense strand = not the template strand, has an identical sequence to copied RNA Antisense = template strand
101
What are the functions of RNA polymerase?
Catalyze the initiation and elongation of RNA chains Direction of synthesis is in the 5’-3’ direction Eukaryotes use different RNA polymerase for each class of RNA (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA) ``` RNA polymerase requires energy! ATP —>AMP GTP—>GMP CTP—>CMP + PPi UTP —>UMP ```
102
In what direction is RNA synthesized?
5’-3’ direction Just like DNA!
103
What is the transcription bubble?
During transcription the DNA region being copied unwinds to make a single strand accesible The region of “melted” DNA is referred to as the transcription bubble and moves down the DNA along with the RNA polymerase When transcription is over, RNA disassociates from the DNA which resumes its double-stranded structure
104
Does RNA transcription need a primer?
Nope
105
What are promoters?
DNA elements that control the start site for transcription
106
What are common prokaryotic and eukaryotic promoters?
Eukaryotes: TATA box Prokaryotes: Pribnow box There are always multiple binding sites for different transcription factors
107
What are consensus sequences?
A sequence (DNA or RNA) specifically recognized by a binding protein Some variation allowed, represented by a consensus sequence = represents the most common base at each position Variations = TATAAT< TTATAT< TATTAT
108
What are polycistronic mRNA?
In bacteria, the genes that encode the enzymes for tryptophan in e. Coli are clustered together in an operon The operon is transcribed into one long mRNA The different genes in this mRNA are translated separately to produce distinct proteins This mRNA encoding multiple proteins is called polycistronic ***eukaryotic mRNA are almost always moncistronic and express a single protein!! Each mRNA sequence produces ONE protein
109
Where does translation occur in eukaryotic cells?
Chromosomes are in the nucleus which means that mature mRNA must be transported through the nuclear membrane for translation in the cytoplasm All these steps allow for regulation (: In prokaryotic cells the chromosomes aren’t in the nucleus so translation of mRNA can start even before the whole transcript is made
110
What are the types of eukaryotic RNA?
Ribosomal (rRNA) = most abundant!! Messenger (mRNA) Transfer (tRNA) = 2nd abundant Small nuclear (snRNA) Micro (miRNA)
111
What are the types of eukaryotic RNA polymerase that transcribe different classes of RNA?
RNA polymerase I - rRNA precursor, in the nucleolus RNA polymerase II - mRNA, miRNA, most snRNA, in the nucleoplasm RNA polymerase III - tRNA, rRNA< some snRNA, in the nucleoplasm mtRNA polymerase - all types of RNA in the mitochondria
112
What are the three inhibitors of transcription?
Rifampicin: binds to beta subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase, used to treat tuberculosis Actinomycin D: Inhibits prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription by intercalating in DNA and blocking RNA polymerase progression Alpha-amanitin: Synthesized by the poisonous mushroom, inhibits both eukaryotic RNA polymerase II and III
113
What is the medical use for compounds that inhibit transcription?
Can act as antibiotics!
114
What does rifampicin do?
Rifampicin: binds to beta subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase, used to treat tuberculosis Inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase which blocks transcription
115
What does actinomycin D do?
Intercalating agent that inserts between the bases in DNA distorting its structure It can inhibit transcription in any cell type The first antibiotic to have anti cancer activity!
116
What is alpha-amanitin?
Mushroom toxin Inhibits RNA polymerase II and III
117
Which direction are proteins synthesized?
N-terminal to C-terminal
118
Which inhibitors of transcription could be used as antibacterial antibiotics?
Rifampicin, alpha-amanitin, actinomycin D
119
What are the similarities between RNA and DNA polymerase reactions?
Nucleotides added to the 3’ hydroxyl Requirement for Mg+2 ion Substrates are a type of nucleoside triphosphate Direction of synthesis is 5-3 **difference: RNA polymerase doesn’t need a primer
120
What are transcription factors?
Proteins that regulate transcription! They activate or repress transcription (Activators or repressors) May bind to specific DNA sequences in the regulatory sites that control specific genes May act as adaptor molecules to mediate communication between other factors and RNA polymerase (co-activators and co-repressors)
121
What are DNA binding proteins?
Trans-acting factors The DNA elements that they bind are cis-elements since they regulate genes nearby on the same chromosomal region
122
Where are promoter proximal elements located during transcription? What are they?
Upstream of the transcription start site They are binding sites for transcription factors
123
What are enhancer elements?
They contain binding sites for multiple transcription factors They can be quite a distance from the target gene
124
What helps RNA polymerase II start transcription?
RNA polymerase II can’t start transcription by itself, it needs a lot of accessory factors called TFIIs Each TFII is a complex of proteins The assembly of the pre-initiation complex is usually initiated by binding of the TFIID complex to the TATA box —> TBP is the TATA binding protein and is a subunit of TFIID that directly binds to the TATA box
125
What is TBP?
The TATA binding protein that is a component of the TFIID complex TBP binds to the minor groove of DNA causing the DNA to bend The binding of TBP as part of TFIID to the TATA box forms a platform for binding. Of the other TFIIs and RNA polymerase
126
How is the pre-initiation complex formed for transcription?
Formed by a step-wise assembly of the different general transcription factors (FTIIs) 1. TBP in TFIID binds to the TATA box 2. Other TFIIs bind 3. RNA polymerase binds THEN the initiation of transcription involves melting DNA in the initiation region followed by RNA polymerase moving away from the initiation site to transcribe the first segment of RNA - the TFIIs disassociate and CDT is phosphorylated as RNA polymerase begins to move Slide 22 in LM 2.1
127
What happens are RNA polymerase begins transcription and moves away from the initiation site?
1. TFIIS disassociate 2. Phosphorylation of the CDT, a repetitive domain at the C-terminus of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II - CTD needs to be phosphorylated for RNA polymerase to leave the promoter
128
What is required for activation of transcription? What do they do?
Transcription factors! They have discrete DNA binding and activation domains - they recognize specific short DNA sequences
129
What are trans activation domains?
They are next to the DNA binding domain They recruit general transcription factors such as TFIID
130
Explain enhancers and silencers
They are DNA regulatory sequences (cis elements) that are not part of the basal promoter They can function close to a promoter (binding sites for transcription factors) or at a distance or even from within an intron They bind transcription factors (activators or repressors) that are usually cell specific Activators bind to enhancers and repressors bind to silencers
131
How can promoter activity be increase?
Site specific DNA-binding factors interacting with cis elements in the proximal promoter region and stabilizing the recruitment of transcriptional machinery through direct interaction of the site-specific factor and the general factors Promoter activity can be further stimulated to higher levels by site-specific factors binding to enhancers Enhancer factors can stimulate transcription by recruiting a histone-modifying enzyme to create a more favorable chromatin environment for transcription
132
What are favorite chromatin environments for transcription?
Histone acetylation Recruitment of a kinase to phosphorylate the carboxy-terminal domain of RNA polymerase II and stimulate elongation
133
Where are enhancers located?
Anywhere with respect to the promoter - upstream, downstream, even within the target gene itself
134
What makes rRNA precursors?
RNA polymerase I and III
135
What are tRNA precursors?
RNA polymerase III
136
What are snRNAs made from?
RNA polymerase II
137
Where are mitochondrial mRNAs made?
In the mitochondria!! Made and translated in the mitochondria
138
What is a codon?
Triplets of bases They are read by the translational apparatus as amino acids!! ``` TTT = Phe GGT = Gly ```
139
What is the genetic code?
It takes us from the 4 letter nucleotide alphabet to the 20 letter amino acid table! Each sequence of three nucleotides specifies an amino acid 64 possible triplets are called the genetic code! Most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon = degenerate
140
What is the start codon? What does it code for?
AUG Codes for Met which is ALWAYS the first amino acid in the protein
141
What are the three stop codons?
UGA UAA UAG U go away, U are annoying, U are gross
142
What codon position is least likely to chase a change in the encoded amino acid?
Changes in the third position in a codon are the least likely to change the encoded amino acid
143
What is an open reading frame?
Orf A stretch of consecutive amino acid codons undisrupted by a termination codon
144
What is a substitution mutation?
One nucleotide is switched for another (ex. G substituted in place of C) This changes the codon from AGG to AGC which changes the AA from Arg to Ser The end result is an AA substitution = missense mutation
145
What is a missense mutation?
a point mutation in which a single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid AGG —> AGC Arg —> Ser
146
What is a deletion mutation?
Deletion of a single nucleotide This causes a shift in the reading frame = frameshift mutation
147
What is a frameshift mutation?
Deletion or addition of a nucleotide that makes the sequence nondivisible by 3 and shifts the reading frame AUC-aGG-GUA_AGC Delete a AUC-GGG-UAA Now downstream of the frame shift are codons for incorrect amino acids and stop codons
148
What mutation causes sickle cell?
Mutation in the HBB gene that encodes the hemoglobin beta chain normal: GAG = Glu mutant: GTG = Val
149
What is a null mutation?
Completely eliminates the function of the gene
150
What is a point mutation?
Change involving a single base pair
151
What is a missense mutation?
Change in codon that results in substitution of one amino acid for another
152
What is a nonsense mutation?
Any change in DNA that results in a termination codon replacing an amino acid codon
153
What is a frameshift mutation?
Deletion or insertion of bases that alters reading frame
154
What are the characteristics of ribosomes?
- proteins are assembled on the surface of ribosomes - they’re composed of two dissimilar ribonucleoprotein subunits - each rRNA species is found only once per ribosome subunit - they are drawn from a free pool to be used again after their release from mRNA
155
What are polysomes? Where are the two places they can be found?
A single mRNA molecule being translated by multiple ribosome If they’re free in the cytoplasm they synthesize cytoplasmic or organelle proteins If they’re attached to the ER then they synthesize secreted or plasma membrane proteins
156
What are ribosomes?
A minute particle consisting of RNA and associated proteins found in large numbers in the cytoplasm of living cells They bind messenger RNA and transfer RNA to synthesize polypeptides and proteins.
157
How are ribosomes categorized?
described in terms of their approximate sedimentation in a centrifuge the higher the S value the greater the rate of sedimentation and the larger the size of the ribosome
158
What is a ribosome made of?
A large and a small ribosomal subunit Each subunit is made of specific ribosomal RNA and ribosomal proteins
159
Do prokaryotes have an ER?
No
160
Which ribosomes are soluble preoteins synthesized on?
On ribosomes in the cytosol
161
Which ribosomes are membrane and secreted proteins synthesized on?
On ribosomes associated with the Endoplasmic reticulum
162
What is the function of tRNA?
Transfer-RNA Adaptors that bring the correct AA to the corresponding codon There are separate tRNA for the different amino acids! AA are attached to the 3’ end at the CCA terminus Serve as an adaptor between mRNA and the growing polypeptide chain - the anticodon sequence interacts(base-pairs) with the mRNA codons
163
What is the structure of tRNA
AA are attached to the 3’ end at the CCA terminus All tRNA have the same general structure: - about 50% of the bases are paired - unpaired regions form loops Contain modified nucleosides
164
Which three RNAs are involved in protein synthesis? What are their functions?
mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
165
What is the function of mRNA in protein synthesis?
Nucleotide sequence encodes the order of AA a ribosome assembles into polypeptide chain
166
What is the function of tRNA in protein synthesis?
Each AA type is covalently bound to a subset of tRNAs containing a specific three-nucleotide anticodon sequence Each anticodon basepairs with its complementary mRNA codon to position the encoded amino acid in the ribosome A site where it is covalently linked to the C-terminus of the growing peptide Codon: GGG (mRNA) Anticodon: CCC (tRNA)
167
What is the function of rRNA in protein synthesis?
Ribosomes are made of many proteins and three (bacterial) or four (eukaryotic) rRNA molecules The largest rRNA has a catalytic function in the formation of the peptide bond between incoming AA-tRNA amino group and the carbohydrates terminus of the growing protein chain
168
What is the starting point for protein synthesis?
Charging of tRNA = attachment of AA to tRNA Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases catalyze these processes - there’s at least one aminoacyl tRNA synthetase for each AA Each synthetase recognized its own AA and appropriate tRNA = aminoacyl tRNA synthetases are the molecules that actually translate the genetic code because they have to attach the correct AA to the correct tRNA!
169
What are the steps to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase coupling AA to tRNA?
1. The enzyme couples a specific AA via a high energy ester bond (which actives the AA) to either the 2’ or 3’ hydroxyl of the terminal adenosine in the tRNA that has the proper anticodon for that AA 2. The energy of the ester bond subsequently drives the formation of the peptide bonds linking adjacent AA in a growing polypeptide chain in the ribosome 3. The anticodon three base sequence in the tRNA base-pairs with a complementary codon in the mRNA specifying the attached AA (so on one side of the tRNA is the AA and on the other it base pairs to the mRNA)
170
Two normal tRNAs that are charged with different AA must differ in what?
Anticodon loops Different AA are always encoded by different codons and therefore anticodon
171
What are the three steps of translation?
1. Initiation 2. Elongation 3. Termination Each step is facilitated by specific factors IFs - initiation factors EFs - elongation factors RFs - release factors
172
What happens during intitiation during translation?
Assembly of components *major differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
173
What happens during elongation during translation?
Synthesis of the protein chain Translocation of tRNAs between the sites on the ribosome
174
What happens during termination during translation?
Release of the completed protein chain from the ribosome
175
What is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
In prokaryotes the start site for translation is specified by a sequence directly upstream of the coding sequence called the shine-dalgarno sequence at the 5’ end of the mRNA The complementary rRNA binds to it which positions the small ribosomal subunit for initiation of translation
176
What is the Kozak consensus?
The preinitiation complex slides down the RNA until the first initiation codon for translation is detected If the codon is surrounded by an optimal arrangement of nucleotides then translation will be initiated This ideal arrangement is called the Kozak consensus
177
What’s the difference between translation initiation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
In prokaryotes the ribosome binding side is recognized by 16s rRNA which allows translation of multiple proteins from polycistronic messages - translation can initiate at internal sites in the mRNA In eukaryotes the preinitiation complex scans for translation initiation side from the 5’ end of the mRNA which allows for translation of monocistronic mRNAs - normally only the first translation initiation site is recognized
178
What are the three sites on the large ribosomal subunit?
A (aminoacyl) P (peptidyl) E (Exit) These are binding sites for tRNA
179
How does translation elongation work?
A charged tRNA corresponding to the second codon is recruited to the A site on the ribosome The AA attached to the tRNA in the P site (first codon) is then transferred to the AA in the A site by formation of a peptide bond - this reaction is catalyze by peptidyl transferase Then the ribosome moves down the mRNA one codon so that the tRNA bearing the peptide chain is in the P site and the uncharged tRNA is in the E site from which it exits the ribosome E P A tRNA(Met) tRNA(Val) ``` E P A tRNA tRNA(Val)(Met) ``` ``` E P A tRNA tRNA(Val)(Met) tRNA(Phe) ```
180
How is the peptide bond in the AA chain formed during translation?
Formed by peptidyl transferase Involves a nnucleophilic attack of the carbonyl carbon in the P site amino acid by the amino nitrogen of the amino acid in the A site The growing peptide chain is attached to the tRNA in the A site to form peptidyl tRNA - the peptidyl tRNA then translocates to the P site
181
What does the formation of a peptide bond during protein synthesis involve?
Transfer of an amino acid from its aminoacyl-tRNA to the amino end of the growing peptide chain
182
When is termination of translation signaled?
When a stop codon is in the A site of the ribosome There is no tRNA to recognize stop codons - the stop codon is recognized by proteins called release factors which then fit into the A site Binding of the release factors to the A site promotes cleavage of the peptide chain from the tRNA in the P site
183
What’s the overall process of eukaryotic translation?
1. Initiation - Binding of mRNA 5’ cap by cap-binding protein - initiator Met-tRNA binds to 40S subunit to form pre-initiation complex - mRNA binds to form initiation complex - 60S subunit binds to form active 80S initiation complex: Met-tRNA is in P site of ribosomes 2. Elongation - AAtRNA binds to A site of ribosome - peptide bond forms - translocation of growing peptide from the A site to the P site 3. Termination - stop codon in A site is recognized by eRF - hydrolysis of peptide-tRNA bond - peptide released from ribosome - ribosome disassociates into 60S and 40S subunits
184
What is a wobble?
The first two bases of the codon hydrogen bond with the last two base pairs of the anticodon - these base pairings follow GC AU rules The third anticodon will recognize more than one codon base - base-pairing rules in the third position of the codon are relaxed Separate tRNA is not required for every codon because of wobble tRNA anticodon: 3’AAG5’ mRNA codon: 5’UUU3’ tRNA anticodon: 3’AAG5’ mRNA codon: 5’UUC3’ UUU and UUC both code for Phe
185
What are the allowed pairing in the wobble position?
If A or G are the third codon base then the anticodon U will recognize both of them If U or C are the codon base in mRNA then the tRNA anticodon G will recognize both of them If U,C or A are the codon base in mRNA then the tRNA anticodon I will recognize them tRNA G < U or C 3’ mRNA tRNA U < A or G 3’ mRNA tRNA I < U, C or A 3’ mRNA
186
A Russian youngster was prescribed erythromycin for a bacterial infection, but he developed hearing loss due to use of this drug. This occurred due to what?
Inhibition of mitochondrial protein synthesis Inhibition of mitochondrial protein synthesis. Erythromycin inhibits translation in bacteria. The translational machinery in mitochondria are derived from bacteria, and are sensitive to some antibiotics targeting bacteria
187
What are the strongest bonds?
Covalent bonds
188
What are covalent bonds?
Equal sharing of electrons within the outer shell between two atoms AA are linked together to form proteins using covalent bonds!!
189
What are ionic bonds?
Much weaker than covalent ~6 kJ/mol Involve transfer of an electron between one atom to another Depend on the electronic charge of the atoms interacting Coulomb’s law: E = kq1q2/Dr (Don’t need to know)
190
How do proteins primarily interact with each other in the body?
Via electrostatic/ionic interactions
191
What kind of bonds are hydrogen bonds?
Weak electrostatic bonds! E = 4-13 kJ/mol Because the interaction between NH or OH for example, is polar, H can still interact weakly and at a greater distance with another molecule that becomes the hydrogen bond acceptor
192
What are examples of H bonds in the body?
Amino terminal and carbohydrates terminal as well as many polar R groups in proteins have NH or OH groups where the hydrogen is paired more closely with an N or O acting as the hydrogen bond donor Because the interaction between NH or OH for example, is polar, H can still interact weakly and at a greater distance with another molecule that becomes the hydrogen bond acceptor N-H - - - - - - - - N donor. acceptor
193
What is the van der waals contact distance?
The point at which the two atoms exhibit the greatest attraction for each other It’s that graph you’ve seen tons in chemistry!
194
What are van der waals interactions?
Similar in strength to electrostatic interactions but are what over in hydrophobic environments like in the core of a protein Depend on the distance between the 2 atoms and the non symmetrical charge distribution around each of them
195
What happens to the strength of noncovalent interactions in water?
They are greatly diminished int he very polar environment of water Covalent interactions have much closer bonding lengths = stronger AND their strength is undiminished in water as compared to a vacuum
196
Why is water a good solvent for polar molecules?
It competes for electrostatic interactions between other polar molecules like Na+ and Cl- Has a high D, dielectric constant so slats and alcohols are completely dispersed in water
197
What is the free energy law?
Free energy is released by water when it does not have to surround individual nonpolar molecules in ordered complexes This causes nonpolar molecules to aggregate in aqueous environments If water has to surround individual nonpolar molecules more water has to be in ordered complexes surrounding each molecule but when they aggregate then some of the water molecules are released = higher entropy!! This is why lipid membranes are formed!!!
198
How does the free energy law of water effect protein folding?
Hydrophobic AA that are nonpolar will be located in the interior of protein molecules away from the aqueous environment
199
What happens during respiratory acidosis?
Decrease pH Increase PaCO2 Normal HCO3-
200
What happens during respiratory alkalosis?
Increase pH Decrease PaCO2 Normal HCO3-
201
What happens during metabolic acidosis?
Decrease pH Normal PaCO2 Decrease HCO3-
202
What happens during metabolic alkalosis?
Increase pH Normal PaCO2 Increase HCO3-
203
What’s an acid? Base?
Donates an H+ Accepts an H+ Water can act as either a weak acid or a weak base!! Weak acid has a strong conjugate base
204
Formula for pH
pH = log(1/[H+] = -log[H+] Normal water: [H]=[OH]=1x10-7 M
205
Explain Ka
A weak acid produces a strong conjugate base Strong conjugate bases produce a great pH buffering capacity when the ionization equilibrium (Ka) for the acid is reached When the Ka of a weak aid is reached, then the addition of extra free H+ doesn’t change the pH because instead it reacts with the conjugate base
206
What is the pKa?
pH at which [acid]=[conjugate base] This is when resistance to pH change is the greatest = highest buffering capacity!! S shaped graph (inflection point is the pKa) pKa: [HA]=[A-] Ka=[H+][A-]/[HA]
207
Henderson hasselbalch equation
pH = pKa + log[A-]/[HA] When [A-]=[HA] the pH=pKa
208
What is the normal body pH
7.4
209
What are the causes of respiratory acidosis? What’s the chemical equilibrium equation that goes with it?
Increased H+ in blood due to hypoventilzation and build up of CO2 - pulmonday problems - head injury - drugs - brain tumors H+ HCO3- H2CO3 H2O + CO2
210
What causes respiratory alkalosis?
Hyperventilation Releases too much CO2 and drives the equation to the right which decreases [H+] H+ HCO3- H2CO3 H2O + CO2
211
What is HCO3- regulated by mainly?
HCO3- is mainly regulated by the kidney can be effected by loses of bases through stool, ingestion of acids/bases, decreased excretion of acids
212
What regulates pCO2?
The lungs PCO2 effected by changes in production of volatile acids, pulmonary ventilation or composition of inspired air
213
how many AA are there?
20 used by bacteria and humans!
214
what are alpha amino acids?
the central carbon is linked to the following in these specific positions: 1. amino group (NH3+) 2. Carboxylic group (COO-) 3. distinctive R group side chain 4. a hydrogen atom they are CHIRAL with mirror images called the L-isomer and the D-isomer (rare)
215
what are L amino acids?
constituents of human proteins and have a counter-clockwise direction of arrow from highest to lowest priority substituents
216
which AA isn't chiral?
glycine its R group is an H
217
what isomer are most human AA?
L isomer
218
how are AA classified?
by their R group side chain ``` they give AA: size shape charge hydrogen binding capacity hydrophobic character chemical reactivity ```
219
what is a zwitterion?
how you usually draw AA with charges - this charge changes with pH carboxyl group loses a hydrogen to become negatively charged COO- (weak acid) amine group accepts a hydrogen to become positively charged NH3+ (weak base)
220
what is pI?
isoelectric point the pH at which total net charge is 0 of an AA pI of each AA is the total combination of all three pKa's of that AA
221
which AA side chains have a pKa?
non polar R groups don't have a pKa the R groups that have a pKa are what facilitate chemical reactions and form ionic bonds!
222
which AA is very reactive in the human body? why?
histidine the side chain pKa is 6.0 which is very close to physiological pH and so it's really reactive in the body
223
what is the trend for pKa?
low pKa = more acidic
224
which AA is conformationally restricted? why?
it's the one with the pentagon structure! its R group is bonded to both the nitrogen of the nitro group and the alpha carbon
225
are large aliphatic side chains hydro phobic or philic?
hydrophobic
226
which AA are non polar with neutral R groups?
hydrophobic!! glycine, alanine, proline, valide, leucine, isoleucine, methionine *methionine barely fits into this group because it has a S in the side chain forming a thither sulfur bond but it's not charged = polar-uncharged
227
which AA have aromatic R groups?
phenylalanine, tyrosine, tryptophan
228
are tyrosine and tryptophan hydrophilic or phobic?
both! they are aromatic rings = phobic tyrosine has an OH and tryptophan has an NH = philic used for their unique absorption spectra at 280 nm (trp absorbs better and they're 4.6% of all protein mixtures)
229
which amino acids are polar uncharged?
serine, threonine, cysteine, asparagine, glutamine
230
what's special about cysteine R group?
has an SH group at the end two cysteines together would undergo oxidation to form an S-S covalent disulfide bridge! cysteine + cysteine = cystine
231
which AA have basic R groups?
lysine, arginine and histidine all have positively charged R groups at physiological pH because the amino molecules in the R group at H+ acceptors lysine and arginine are H+ acceptors at neutral pH histidine is reactive at a neutral pH
232
which AA have acidic R groups?
aspartate and glutamate negatively charged at physiological pH because they are H+ donors COO- groups
233
what are the essential AA?
histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine your body can't produce them so you have to incorporate them into your diet!
234
how do you link amino acids together into a polypeptide chain?
the carboxyl group of one AA is covalently linked to the amino group of another AA by a peptide bond and H2O is released O=C-NH input of free energy is required two AA linked together = peptide bond more than two AA = polypeptide chain
235
describe the polypeptide backbone
backbone always contains: a carbonyl group (C=O): hydrogen bond acceptor an amino group (NH): hydrogen bond donor backbones can interact with each other and with side chains
236
why are peptide bonds planar?
they're planar because of the partial double bond characteristics between the C=N peptide bond O=C-NH-CH this bond can only be cis or trans
237
what is the trans configuration of a peptide bond?
the two R groups are on opposite sides of the peptide bond
238
what is always at the beginning and end of a peptide chain?
ALL polypeptide chains are polar the amino "N" terminal is always the beginning and the carboxy "C" terminal is always at the end
239
what is secondary structure? what's it determined by?
the spatial organization of amino acids within a short distance of each other within a single polypeptide sequence determined by: - rigidity of the peptide bond between each AA - restricted set of allowed angles
240
what are the two periodic secondary structures of AA?
alpha helix beta sheets
241
describe the alpha-helix structure?
tightly coiled backbone that's right-handed side chains extend outward this secondary structure is stable because of hydrogen bonding between NH and CO groups in the backbone that are FOUR residues apart ALL backbone NH and CO groups are hydrogen bonded
242
what proteins are in the alpha helix formation?
- keratin (actually a superhelix because it's alpha helices coiled around each other) - ferritin: an iron storage protein that's a bundle of helices
243
what are the two types of B-sheets?
parallel and antiparallel
244
what is the antiparallel b-sheet structure?
the one beta strand amino head is directly across from the other beta strand carboxy tail so they line up perfectly! this is a shorter and stronger hydrogen bond between the C=O and NH in the backbones of adjacent strands
245
what is the parallel b-sheet structure?
both amino head groups are lined up across from each other so that the C=O and NH hydrogen bond between the two backbones is staggered
246
what is the usual shape of beta sheets?
twisted more structurally diverse than alpha helices
247
how can secondary structures be predicted from AA sequences?
protein chains have unique distribution of alpha helices, B strands and reverse turns along their AA length secondary structure can be kind of predicted based on the relative frequencies of each AA because certain AA are more likely to be found in a certain secondary structure
248
explain the progression from primary to quaternary structure of AA
primary = AA seuqnece secondary = substructures (a helices, beta sheets) tertiary = 3D structure quaternary = complex of protein molecules
249
what is tertiary structure?
spatial arrangement of amino acid residues within the polypeptide chain that are far apart in sequence includes disulfide bonds
250
what are the two primary rules that govern tertiary protein folding?
1. thermodynamic stability: the least amount of energy expended to achieve tertiary shape is the better route to take 2. the contribution of each portion of the folding into tertiary shape is important to the overall mechanism of folding
251
what are disulfide bonds?
covalent bond resulting in cross-linking within (intrachain) and between (interchain) proteins by the R groups of cysteines oxidizing the SH side groups of a pair of cysteine residues to S-S forms one cystine
252
what's a hairpin loop?
the backbone C=O group of amino acid i hydrogen bonds with the backbone NH group of amino acid i+3 in the primary amino acid sequence which creates a sharp turn this is how you form compact globular proteins whether the other secondary structures are alpha helices, beta strands or mixture
253
what are the exception to hydrophobic molecules being located on the inside of proteins and hydrophilic on the outside?
porins they're found in hydrophobic lipid membrane and are used as aqueous channels within the membrane to allow polar molecules through the membrane
254
what is the coiled coil video?
when alpha helices bind together using hydrophobic van der waals bonding by putting all the hydrophobic side chains in the center
255
what are protein domains?
compact globular protein regions of a single protein chain connected by flexible segments of polypeptide chains each globular region is a different domain of the same individual protein
256
what is quaternary structure?
the spatial arrangement of proteins containing more than one protein chain or subunit and the nature of subunit interactions ex. dimer that consists of two identical subunits ex. hemoglobin has 4 subunits: two alpha, two beta
257
what is marginal stability?
most proteins are only marginally stable because the energy difference between the folded and unfolded amino acid chain is very small but this is good!! because a lot of enzymes have to undergo conformation changes to induce the fit or release of a substrate this allows a single protein to perform multiple different tasks
258
what is levinathal's paradox?
calculated versus actual time for a protein to fold correctly with all the combinations of amino acids it should take 100 AA 1.6x10ˆ27 years to find the right conformation through a random search but it only takes 5 seconds in e. coli
259
what are the functions of the cell membrane?
- maintains structural integrity - determines how a cell interacts with its environment - maintains the charge differential across the membrane (cytoplasm inside cell is negatively charged) - compartmentalization: of the cell from other cells and environment and also compartmentalization of regions of the cell from each other which allows for specialized functions each individual intracellular organelle also has a membrane
260
what are the major cations and anions in extracellular fluid?
Na+, Cl- and HCO3- more basic than ICF
261
what are the major cations and anions in intracellular fluid?
K+, Mg+2 anions are proteins and organic phosphates more acidic than the ECF
262
what are Na+ concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in the ECF
263
what are K+ concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in the ICF
264
what are Ca+2 concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in ECF
265
what are Mg+2 concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in ICF
266
what are Cl- concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in ECF
267
what are HCO3- concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in ICF
268
what are glucose concentrations in the ECF vs. ICF?
higher in ECF
269
what are the common characteristics of membranes?
closed sheet-like structures 2 molecules thick mostly lipids and proteins (lipid bilayer) able to spontaneously form closed bimolecular sheets in aqueous media due to amphipathic nature fluid structures = fluid mosaic due to asymmetry asymmetric electrically polarized, cytosolic side is negative
270
what is the fluid mosaic model of lipid bilayers?
both the lipid and some protein components of the membrane are laterally mobile and can move across the plane of the membrane
271
what's the basic structure of phospholipids?
polar head and two fatty acyl chains (tail)
272
are proteins in the phospholipid membrane mobile?
eh not really proteins can differ greatly between different membranes
273
how does the plasma membrane govern selective permeability of cells?
regulates nutrient and ion transport into the cell regulates transport of waste out of the cell maintains correct chemical concentrations in the cell
274
what are important roles of the plasma membrane?
provide a site for lipid-based chemical reactions interacts with other cells or the ECM detects and transducer signals from environment to the cell = signal transduction (ex. ligands binding to cell surface receptors)
275
what are the general characteristics of lipids?
1. water insoluble 2. great variety of structure 3. some function in field and energy storage (triglycerides) 4. some function in signaling mechanisms
276
what kind of lipids are usually membrane lipids?
1. phospholipids 2. glycolipids 3. cholesterol
277
what are the general roles of proteins in plasma membranes?
carry out most membrane processes and greatly vary between cells each cell type has a unique set of membrane proteins involved in transport of molecules across the membrane to allow for selective membrane permeability also function in energy uptake, signal transduction, etc.
278
what can and can't favorably pass through the plasma membrane to the cytosol?
favorable: - gases (CO2, N2,O2,NO) - small uncharged polar molecules (ethanol) pass through by diffusion without transport protein unfavorable: - large uncharged polar molecules (glucose) - all ions - charged polar molecules (AA) usually need transmembrane proteins like transporters, channels, pumps to get through
279
what kinds of interactions are happening in a lipid bilayer?
these are all energetically favorable non-covalent interactions!!! you don't need ATP or covalent bonds to make a membrane (: 1. electrostatic and hydrogen bonds between the polar heads and water 2. van der walls forces between the hydrocarbon acyl tails of the phospholipids 3. hydrophobic interactions between the fatty acyl tails that exclude water
280
what is the requirement of a membrane lipid to be able to form a lipid bilayer?
must be amphipathic aka have a hydrophilic and hydrophobic part ``` philic = head phobic = tails ```
281
what is glycerol and how is it in phospholipids?
glycerol is usually the backbone of phospholipids it's a simple alcohol with three carbons in membrane phospholipids the C1 and C2 positions of the glycerol backbone are each attached to a fatty acid hydrocarbon side chain
282
what makes up a general phospholipid?
fatty acid - glycerol - phosphate head group/alchol
283
what makes up a general glycolipid?
fatty acid - glycerol - sugar group glucose or galactose could be the sugar and they're be the polar part of the molecule
284
what makes up a general sphingolipid?
fatty acid - sphingosine - sugar group
285
what is a saturated vs unsaturated bond?
saturated = all single bonds unsaturated = double or triple bonds
286
choline phospholipids are usually loaded on which leaflet?
on the exoplasmic leaflet of the membrane usually, not always though!!
287
amino phospholipids are usually located on which leaflet?
cytoplasmic leaflet of the membrane usually, not always though!!
288
what is an example of how changes in the distribution of membrane lipids i the bilayer can be a signal for the health or other status of the cell?
phosphatidylserine in healthy cells a high % of phosphatidylserine in the membrane is in the cytoplasmic leaflet under certain conditions, this distribution is altered so that there's an increased presence of phosphatidyl serine in the exoplasmic leaflet when phosphatidyl serine is externalized it signals for platelet activation & aggregation, recognition and removal of old cells, apoptosis, etc.
289
what is phosphatidate?
glycerol backbone phosphate group at C3 position acyl chains in C1 and C2 positions - they can be saturated, unsaturated or a mix of both most simple phospholipid
290
why is membrane fluidity important to the function of biological membranes?
- influences arraignment of proteins and lipids - altering fluidity can alter membrane and/or cell fnx - foster assembly/disassembly of protein signaling complex - changes membrane permeability - excessive fluidity leads to membrane destruction - biological membranes have mechanisms to maintain stable, proper levels of fluidity
291
do biological membranes have melting temperatures?
no
292
what increases and decreases the melting temperature of an artificial membrane?
longer acyl tails have more hydrophobic interactions than shorter chains so they're more stable = need more energy to melt them = higher Tm unsaturated side chains have kinks which means the packing and hydrophobic interactions of the tails won't be as good so it'll take less energy to break them up = lower Tm
293
what is largely responsible for maintaining the optimal degree of membrane fluidity in real biological membranes in humans?
cholesterol as temperature falls, cholesterol increases membrane fluidity as temperature rises cholesterol decreases membrane fluidity this is why animal membranes don't have a melting temperatures!
294
what things are made from cholesterol?
steroids, cortisol, vitamin D, etc.
295
what are lipid rafts?
micro-domains of enhanced membrane fluidity that aid rapid movement of lipids and proteins in signaling processes increased amount of cholesterol and glycosphingolipids in these areas **they have no impact on the overall membrane fluidity!!
296
how do bacteria adjust membrane fluidity?
real time alterations of acyl side chain length and/or saturation of membrane phospholipids depending on changes in their environment
297
what are ionophores?
class of antibiotics one type of ionophore is polyene antifungals: they work by selectively disrupting cell membranes of bacteria or yeast without affecting cell membranes in humans/animals (ex. nystatin)
298
how does nystatin work?
Fungal membranes don't contain cholesterol, they have ergosterol so nystatin specifically binds to ergosterol and increases the fluidity of the cell membrane which opens it up to ion flow and the electrochemical gradient is lost and kills the cell
299
what is a micelle?
single layer of phospholipids forming a spherical structure
300
what is a liposome?
small spherical structure of a phospholipid bilayer the center is composed of a polar environment the exterior and interior of the liposome are the phospholipid heads facing either the aqueous outer environment or the aqueous interior
301
how are liposomes used to deliver drugs?
the phospholipid structure protects drugs from degradation polar drugs can be placed in the aqueous center of the liposome and non polar drugs can be embedded in the lipid core of the bilayer because the bilayer structure of liposomes mimics that of the plasma membrane, the liposome can fuse with cell membranes to deliver the drugs to the cell interior extended release drugs like morphine!
302
what are the general functions of plasma membrane proteins?
give strength, flexibility and function to the membrane they carry out most processes occurring at the cell membrane!
303
how are membrane proteins classified?
1. peripheral: more loosely associated with the membrane (sitting on top of it) 2. integral: rightly associated with the membrane (embedded) --> removal requires lipid bilayer destruction
304
what are transmembrane proteins?
completely extend through the lipid bilayer all transmembrane proteins are integral but not all integral membrane proteins are transmembrane because if you're integral just part of the protein has to be in the lipid core
305
how structure are membrane proteins in animal cells to allow them to span the membrane?
alpha helical the R side groups of the individual AA of the alpha helix membrane-spanning region are hydrophobic and/or non polar BUT the AA at the beginning and end of the helix are polar so they can interact with the polar heads for the most part, these membrane spanning alpha helices don't have amino acids whose R groups are polar or charged but sometimes there are polar groups as long as it's overall hydrophobic groups all of these are non-covalent interactions!
306
what are lipid anchors?
hydrocarbon chains that allow their anchored proteins to be very tightly associated with the membrane usually this insertion into the lipid core of the membrane makes the resulting protein integral can also be a short alpha-helix portion
307
what is the typical structure of transporter proteins?
they usually have multiple alpha helical structures passing through the membrane ex. ligand activated ion channels: when a ligand binds to the protein, the channel subunits turn to a different conformation - initially hydrophobic leucine lined the channel interior but after the conformation change, now small polar amino acids line the channel interior which allows ions to pass through
308
what could pass through a membrane without a transport protein? a. glucose b. chloride ion c. ATP d. CO2 e. arginine
CO2! only small uncharged molecules can pass through without help a. glucose is large and polar b. Cl- is a charged ion c. ATP is polar d. arginine is polar
309
what effects the degree of lateral mobility of proteins?
- small proteins are more mobile - dependent on interactions it has/doesn't have with surrounding membrane proteins or proteins of the cytoplasm/extracellular matrix - increase temperature increases mobility - increased mobility within lipid rafts YOU CAN'T PREDICT PROTEIN MOBILITY FROM SECONDARY STRUCTURE!! MUST BE DONE EXPERIMENTALLY
310
where are glycosylated proteins found? what are they?
proteins with a complex sugar group added on signals within the primary structure of a membrane protein would indicate to the cell machinery if glycosylation is to occur on a certain AA of a certain protein only present on the extracellular region of the protein
311
what is the topology of proteins?
refers to how many times they span the membrane or otherwise associate with it also which end of the protein, the amino terminus or carboxyl terminus, is extending extracellularly or intracellularly proteins don't flip flop in membranes because their topology is stable! if they did then polar regions of the protein would have to pass through the membrane
312
how is cancer related to a defect in the plasma membrane proteins?
cell alters its type of membrane proteins for growth factor receptors to attain a higher degree of proliferation then to metastasis, the interaction of the cell with its environment has to be disrupted for the cancer cell to spread and then re-establish in new places
313
which diseases involve problems with the plasma membrane proteins?
- cancer - diabetes type II - heart disease
314
how is type II diabetes related to a defect in the plasma membrane?
defective insulin signaling through the insulin receptor which is a transmembrane plasma membrane protein expressed on specific tissues like adipose and muscle
315
how is cancer related to a defect in the plasma membrane proteins?
connexins these proteins form the gap junctions that syncytial cells such as cardiac muscle use to rapidly communicate directly to each adjacent cardiac muscle defects in connexins lead to inherited cardiac arrhythmias
316
why are membrane proteins useful drug targets?
because many membrane proteins and membrane transporters in particular have a region of their structure facing outward from the cell membrane to the extracellular environment that way the drug itself wouldn't need to cross the cell membrane to exert its action
317
what is the drug and target protein for acid reflux?
prilosec targets gastric transporter that pumps HCl from parietal cells of the stomach into the stomach lumen transporter: H+/K+ ATPase proton pump
318
what is the drug and target protein for type II diabetes?
farxiga targets kidney sodium/glucose cotransporter SGLT2 that reabsorbs glucose helps the kidney reabsorb glucose
319
what is the drug and target protein for high blood pressure?
procardia targets calcium channels in the heart and blocks calcium channels
320
what is the drug and target protein for depression
prozac targets transporter involved in serotonin reuptake in the brain - inhibits the SSR (selective serotonin reuptake) transporter in the brain
321
What is ΔG?
Change in free energy Energy available to do work Approaches zero as reaction proceeds to equilibrium Predicts whether a reaction is favorable The maximum amount of energy that can be obtained from a reaction at constant temperature and pressure! kJ/mol or kcal/mol
322
What is ΔH?
Change in enthalpy Heat released or absorbed during a reaction Does not predict whether a reaction is favorable
323
What is ΔS?
Change in entropy Measure of randomness Dos not predict whether a reaction is favorable
324
What’s the equation for ΔG?
ΔG = ΔH - T ΔS
325
What does it mean if ΔG is positive, negative or equal?
ΔG < 0 = forward reaction ΔG > 0 = reverse reaction ΔG = 0 equal rate If ΔG is negative it means there’s a net loss of energy so the reaction proceeds spontaneously in that direction
326
What is the requirement for ΔG in a reversible reaction?
The free energy of the forward reaction is always equal in magnitude of the reverse reaction but opposite in sign If ΔG for A —> B = -5 kcal/mol Then ΔG for B —> A = +5 kcal/mol
327
What is coupling?
When a reaction with a large + ΔG is coupled with a second process with a larger ΔG so that the + ΔG process can occur because the net ΔG will still be negative Ex. Moving ions against a concentration gradient is favored by coupling it to reactions with a huge negative ΔG like hydrolysis of ATP
328
What is ATP made of?
Adenosine triphosphate Purine base adenine Give carbon sugar ribose 3 phosphate groups The two phosphoanhydride linkages are high-energy bonds and their hydrolysis yields large negative change in free energy
329
Why are some reactions in the metabolic pathway coupled with ATP hydrolysis?
Chemical reactions proceed spontaneously only if ΔG is negative Hydrolysis of ATP has a huge -ΔG and it occurs spontaneously without any energy requirement Coupling with ATP hydrolysis helps to bring the ΔG of unfavorable reactions to a net negative value
330
What are the two categories of metabolism?
Catabolism Anabolism
331
What is catabolism?
The chemical reactions that harvest energy from the degradation of energy rich molecules Degradation of molecules to salvage components Energy is stored in the form of ATP Carbs, fats, proteins —> CO2, H2O, NH3
332
What is anabolism?
Chemical reactions that require energy (usually in the form of hydrolysis of ATP) Biosynthesis of molecules from simple components Often involves reducing chemical reactions involving electron donors like NADH AA, sugars, fatty acids, nitrogenous bases —> proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, nucleic acids
333
What are the steps of catabolism?
Catabolic reactions capture chemical energy in the form of ATP from the degradation of energy rich molecules in 3 steps: 1. Hydrolysis of complex molecules to simple building blocks 2. Conversion of building blocks to simple intermediates like acetyl CoA 3. Oxidation of acetyl CoA (oxidative phosphorylation) NADH can be used to synthesize ATP
334
What is intracellular communications?
Regulatory signals that arise from within the cell such as availability of substrates, inhibition by products, or alternations in the levels of allosteric inhibitors/activators Affects the rate of the metabolic pathway
335
What are intercellular communications?
Regulatory signals between cells that provide for long range integration of metabolism and usually results in a response slower than intracellular signals Ex. Chemical signaling between cells by blood borne hormones, neurotransmitters or even by direct communication between cells through surface contacts or through gap junctions
336
What are common intercellular regulatory mechanisms? Which is the most important for energy metabolism?
1. Synaptic signaling Nerve cell, neurotransmitter, target cell 2. Endocrine signaling Hormone, blood vessel, target cell 3. Direct contact Signaling cell, gap junction, target cell For energy metabolism, the most important route of communication is chemical signaling between cells by blood borne hormones or by neurotransmitters
337
What are second messengers?
Small intracellular molecules that mediate the effects of first messengers (neurotransmitters and hormones) They intervene between the original extracellular messenger and the ultimate intracellular effect They’re part of a cascade of events that convert ligand binding into responses
338
What are extracellular messengers?
Ligands like hormones or neurotransmitters They bind to cell surface receptors and initiate a series of reactions involving these second messenger molecules
339
What are the two most common second messenger systems?
Calcium phosphatidyl inositol system Adenylyl (adenylate) cyclase system
340
How are monosaccharides classified?
According to the number of carbon atoms of carbons
341
What are aldoses?
Carbohydrates with an aldehyde group Have the suffix -ose like y lose, ribose and glucose
342
What are ketoses?
Carbohydrates with a keto group Have the suffix -ulose attached like xylulose
343
What is the classification system of carbohydrates?
By the number of carbon atoms - three = triose: glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone - four = tetrose: erythrose - five = pentose: ribose, ribulose, xylose, xylulose, deoxyribose - six = hexose: glucose, mannose, galactose, fructose, fucose - seven = heptose: sedoheptulose - Eight = octose: none in human bio - nine = nonose: neuraminic acid
344
What are isomers?
Compounds with same chemical formula but different structures Ex. Fructose, glucose, galactose and mannose ar wall C6H12O6
345
What are epimers?
Isomers that differ in the configuration of only one carbon (except the carbonyl CHO) Carbon atoms are numbered beginning at the end which contains the carbonyl carbon (C1)
346
What are enantiomers?
Special type of isomer pairs of structure that are mirror images of each other The two members of the pair are designated as D and L forms
347
What enantiomer form are most sugars in humans in?
D isomer!! In the D-isomer the OH group on the asymmetric C atom farthest from the carbonyl group is on the right and for the L-isoform it’s on the left So in D isomer of a carbohydrate, the the C1 carbon is HC=O and on the other end is CH2OH — the carbon next to CH2OH that’s still chiral and in the backbone, if the OH is on the right then it’s the D isomer, if it’s on the left it’s the L isomer
348
What are isomerases?
Enzymes that can interconvert two enantiomers like D to L
349
What are asymmetric carbons?
Carbon linked to four different groups
350
Explain monosaccharide cyclization?
Most monosaccharides with more than 5 carbon atoms are in a cyclic form Cyclization happens with the reaction of the aldehyde or keto group with the hydroxyl group of the same sugar to form a hemiacetal Cyclization creates a new asymmetric center at C1 for Aldo se and at C2 for ketose (anomeric carbon)
351
What’s an aldehyde?
R-CH=O
352
What is a ketone?
R-C-R || O
353
What’s an anomeric carbon?
The asymmetric carbon made from monosaccharide cyclization
354
What are the anomers of D-glucose?
When glucose turns cyclic, a new pair of isomers is formed = α-D-glucopyranose and B-D-glycopyranose α = OH group on the anomeric carbon is on the same side as the ring or trans to the CH2OH group B = OH group on the anomeric carbon is on the opposite side as the ring or cis to the CH2OH Preferred conformation is the B anaomer because then the OH groups on C1 and C2 are opposite each other Slide 18 LM 7.2
355
What are glycosidic bonds? How are they formed?
Bonds that link sugars Formed between hemiacetal carbon of one sugar and a hydroxyl group of another sugar by enzymes called glycosyltransferases The bonds are blamed according to the numbers of the connected carbons and with regard to the position of the anomeric OH group of the first sugar α-1,4-glycosidic bond
356
What are important disaccharides in our diet? What sugars are they made of?
Lactose = galactose + glucose Sucrose = glucose + fructose Maltose = glucose + glucose
357
What are some of the important polysaccharides?
Glycogen: Heavily branched, animal sources Starch Moderately branched, plant sources Cellulose Unbranched, plant sources All are polymers of glucose
358
What is important about glycogen?
Present in most of our tissues, mostly in muscle and liver Large branched polymer of glucose Main linkages are α,1-4 glycosidic bonds but branches are made of α,1-6 glycosidic bonds
359
What is important about starch?
Nutritional reservoir in plants Branched and unbranched forms More than half of the carbs ingested by humans is starch! Ex. Rice, potatoes, wheat
360
What is important about cellulose?
Found in plants Serves as a structural rather than nutritional role Important components of cell wall Unbranched polymer formed by B,1-4 linkages (starch and glycogen are α linkages)
361
What are reducing sugars?
If the OH group on the anomeric carbon of a cyclized sugar is not involved in a glycosidic bond then the ring can open - these sugars act as reducing agents and can react with chromogenic reagents The aldehyde (RCH=O) group gets oxidized to carboxyl group (RCOH=O) and the reagent is reduced to form a colored compound - used to detect presence of a reducing sugar in urine Fructose has a keto group but is also a reducing sugar since it can be isomerized to an Aldo se like glucose or galactose All monosaccharides are reducing sugars!!
362
What is the overall general purpose of glycolysis?
It’s an energy-conversion pathway Takes place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes and converts one molecules of glucose to 2 molecules of pyruvate with the generation of 2 molecules of ATP
363
why is glucose so prominent as a fuel source?
- thought to be available for primitive biochemical systems because can form under prebiotic conditions - the most stable hexose so it has a low tendency to nonenzymatically glycosylate proteins
364
how is NAD+ regenerated?
anaerobic glycolysis: pyruvate can undergo fermentation in the absence of oxygen to produce NAD+ aerobic glycolysis: pyruvate gets converted into acetyl CoA which then enters the TCA cycle to produce more reducing equivalents
365
what are the two stages of glycolysis?
stage 1: traps glucose in the cell and modifies it so that i can be cleaved into a pair of phosphorylated 3-carbon compounds step 2: oxidizes the 3-carbon compounds to pyruvate while generating 2 ATP
366
what is the first step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
glucose + ATP -----------> glucose 6-phosphate (G-6P) catalyst: hexokinase cofactor: Mg+2 or Mn+2 hexokinase traps glucose in the cell and begins glycolysis. irreversible. G6P can't penetrate the cell membrane due to lack of cell surface receptors and because they are too polar to diffuse through membrane
367
what is the second step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
G6P open chain G6P open chain fructose 6-phosphate fructose 6-phosphate catalyst: phosphoglucose isomerase catalyzes G6P to F6P in the open chain form (aldose to ketose) glucose 6-phosphate is converted into fructose 6-phosphate
368
what is the third step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
F6P + ATP ---------> F1,6-BP + ADP + H+ catalyst: phosphofructokinase (PFK) fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is generated from fructose 6-phosphate ****this is the most important control point and rate limiting and committed step in glycolysis!!!**** IRREVERSIBLE
369
what is the fourth step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
F1,6-BP DHAP + GAP catalyst: aldolase fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is cleaved into two 3 carbon compounds, dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate end of phase 1 of glycolysis, not regulated
370
what is the fifth step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
DHAP GAP catalyst: triode phosphate isomerase DHAP converted to GAP so that it can enter into glycolysis so now you have to GAP molecules and each one will make a pyruvate so TWO pyruvate molecules are generated during a single glycolytic reaction
371
what is dihydroxyacetone phosphate utilized for?
DHAP is used for synthesis of triglycerides
372
what is the sixth step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
GAP + NAD+ + Pi 1,3-BPG + NADH + H+ catalyst: glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is generated from the oxidation of GAP 1,3-BPG has high phosphoryl transfer potential the NAD+ used must be regenerated!! this is the first oxidation-reduction reaction takes two steps actually but just know it's done by coupling an energetically unfavorable reaction with a favorable one
373
what is the seventh step in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
1,3-BPG + ADP + H+ 3-phosphoglycerate + ATP catalyst: phosphoglycerate kinase ATP is formed by transfer of phosphate group from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate since you made 2 GAP molecules, this process happens twice and you get 2 ATP!
374
what are steps 8-10 in glycolysis? what are the products, reactants and catalysts?
3-phosphoglycerate 2-phophoglycerate phosphenolpyruvate + ADP + H+ ------> pyruvate + ATP catalyst 1: phosphoglycerate mutase catalyst 2: enolase catalyst 3: pyruvate kinase additional ATP is generated with the formation of pyruvate you get 2 more ATP here because you had two GAP molecules which made two 1,3-BPG which made two 3-phosphoglycerate
375
what's the net chemical equation of glycolysis?
glucose + 2Pi + 2ADP + 2NAD+ --> 2pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2NADH + 2H + 2H2O
376
which other monosaccharides commonly enter the glycolytic pathway?
galactose and fructose galactose --> glucose-6P (G-6P) fructose --> fructose-6P (F-6P) in adipose tissue** fructose (liver) --> DHAP GAP
377
what is the fructose 1-phosphate pathway? what's it used for?
so that fructose can enter into glycolysis fructose + fructokinase --> fructose 1-phosphate THEN F1P + F1P-aldolase --> glyceraldehyde + *DHAP* THEN glyceraldehyde + ATP + triose kinase --> GAP + ADP DHAP + triode phosphate isomerase --> glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
378
what is the galactose-glucose conversion pathway? what's it used for?
used to convert galactose to glucose so that it can enter glycolysis don't need to know the intermediates but just included it so stuff makes sense
379
how can you regenerate NAD+ from pyruvate?
regeneration of NAD+ is CRUCIAL for continuation of glycolysis ANAEROBIC 1. pyruvate + NADH --> lactate + NAD+ 2. P --> acetaldehyde + CO2 +NADH --> ethanol + NAD+ AEROBIC 3. P --> acetyl CoA + CO2 --> oxidative phosphorylation
380
what are ethanol and lactic acid formation used for?
formation of ethanol and lactate from pyruvate ethanol fermentation is carried out by yeast and bacteria - used to make bread, wine, biofuels lactic acid fermentation is carried out by bacteria in yogurt and your muscles under certain conditions
381
what is lactic acid fermentation?
pyruvate + NADH + H+ lactate + NAD+ catalyst: lactate dehydrogenase net: glucose + 2Pi + 2ADP --> 2lactate + 2ATP + 2H2O anaerobic glycolysis in eukaryotes in poorly vascularized tissues like lenses and cornea of the eye or medulla of the kidney lactic acid fermentation also happens in RBC because they lack mitochondria lactate production also happens in tissues when oxygen is limited like during exercise
382
why is there lactic acid build up during exercise?
NADH production exceeds the oxidative capacity of the electron transport chain so now it's favorable for pyruvate to be reduced to lactate so during exercise lactate accumulates in the muscle which leads to a drop in intracellular pH and causes cramps eventually the lactate diffuses into the blood stream and is used by the liver to make glucose
383
what is cellular respiration?
the combustion of fuels into CO2 and water to generate ATP requires oxygen and takes place inside the double membrane of mitochondria has two parts: 1. TCA cycle 2. oxidative phosphorylation
384
what molecule enters the citric acid cycle?
acetyl CoA
385
where does glycolysis take place?
cytoplasm
386
what is the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
serves as a bridge between carbohydrates and the TCA cycle the complex is made of 3 enzymes: 1. pyruvate dehydrogenase (E1 or PDH) 2. dihydrolipoyl transacetylase (E2 or DLTA) 3. dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase (E3 or DLDH) two regulatory enzymes too that are also part of the complex: pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase and pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
387
what is the net reaction of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
pyruvate + NAD+ + CoA-SH --> acetyl CoA + NADH + H + CO2
388
what are the names of the enzymes and cofactors involved in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
cofactors: lipoamide flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) enzymes: E1, E2, E3
389
what is the first step in the payoff phase of glycolysis?
oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
390
what is the product formed in the first substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis?
3-phosphoglycerate phosphoglycerate kinase transfers phosphoryl group from 1,3-bisphosphoglyverate to ADP to form ATP and 3-phosphoglycerate
391
conversion of one molecules of glucose to lactate in the glycolytic pathway uses how many molecules of oxygen?
zero!! it's anaerobic
392
what does enolase do in glycolysis?
catalyzes the conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol pyruvate
393
what does gluconeogensis mean?
synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors especially important during fasting or starvation because glucose is the primary fuel for the brain and the only field for RBC
394
what are the major sites of gluconeogenesis?
liver can also occur in kidney during a prolonged fast
395
what are the major non-carbohydrate precursors for gluconeogenesis?
lactate, AA, and glycerol - pyruvate is made in the liver from muscle-derived lactate through lactate dehydrogenase - carbon skeleton of AA can be turned into pyruvate or oxaloacetate - glycerol is from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols and can be converted into dihydroxyacetone phosphate
396
what are the three irreversible steps in glycolysis that must be bypassed in gluconeogenesis?
glucose + ATP --> G-6P + ADP fructose 6P + ATP --> fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP --> pyruvate + ATP all have -ΔG which means gluconeogenesis is NOT a complete reversal of glycolysis because these steps have to be bypassed also enzymes for glujconeogeneis are in the cytoplasm except for pyruvate carboxylase in the mitochondria and glucose 6-phosphatase which is membrane bound in the ER
397
how is pyruvate converted to phosphoenolpyruvate for gluconeogenesis?
need two enzymes in the mitochondria: pyruvate + CO2 + ATP + H2O oxaloacetate + ADP + Pi + 2H (enzyme = pyruvate carboxylase) now we need to go to the cytoplasm where everything else is so oxaloacetate is reduced to malate in the mitochondria. then the malate is exported to the cytoplasm and reduced back into oxaloacetate THEN oxaloacetate + GTP phosphoenolpyruvate (enzyme = phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase)
398
how is glycerol converted to dihydroxyacetone phosphate for gluconeogenesis?
glycerol + ATP + glycerol kinase --> glycerol phosphate + ADP glycerol phosphate + glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase + NAD+ --> dihydroxyacetone phosphate + NADH DHAP can go through gluceneogenesis or glycolysis depending on needs of the body two enzymes: glycerol kinase and glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
399
how do you convert fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate for gluconeogenisis?
F 1,6-BP + H2O + fructose bisphosphatase --> F-6P HIGHLY REGULATED STEP
400
how do you generate free glucose?
1. occurs essentially only in the liver is the final step in gluconeogenesis 2. G-6P is transported into the lumen of the ER 3. glucose 6-phosphatase is an integral membrane enzyme on the inner surface of the ER, catalyzes the formation of glucose from glucose 6-phosphate
401
do gluconeogenesis and glycolysis happen together?
no they're regulated so that one is relatively inactive while the other is highly active
402
what are the enzymes involved in the conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenol pyruvate?
pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
403
how many molecules of ATP/GTP are used in the conversion of an AA precursor that enters gluconeogenic pathway through oxaloacetate?
2 one ATP and one GTP used in the formation of oxaloacetate to glucose also one NADH is used
404
why are enzymes important in medicine?
1. defects in specific enzymes cause inherited metabolic diseases - phenylketonuria - phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency which produces abnormal AA metabolism - hemolytic anemia - glucose 6P dehydrogenase deficiency 2. enzymes are targets for many drugs 3. enzymes are useful as diagnostic markers and in the evaluation of organ function
405
what are the key properties of enzymes?
1. proteins that facilitate catalysis 2. enhance reaction rate relative to uncatalyzed reacton 3. often stereospecific, distinguish between R and S isomers
406
what kind of molecule are enzymes?
proteins!! a small number of RNA has catalytic activity also prosthetic groups attached to proteins are usually required for enzyme activity
407
what is Vmax? kcat?
maximum velocity of an enzyme the number of substrate molecules converted to product per unit time under optimal conditions mcat is the turnover number = Vmax/# of active sites
408
what are the 6 enzyme classifications?
1. oxidoreductases 2. transferases 3. hydrolases 4. lyases 5. isomerases 6. ligases
409
what are oxidoreductases?
enzymes that catalyze oxidation/reduction reactions ex. dehydrogenases oxidize a substrate by a reduction reaction that transfers one or more hydrides to an electron acceptor like NAD or NADP ex. lactate + NAD+ pyruvate + NADH via lactate dehydrogenase
410
what are transferases?
enzymes that catalyze transfer of C,N or P containing groups ex. amino, glycosyl, methyl or phosphoryl groups ex. glycogen synthase, kinases ex. serine + THF glycine + THF-CH2 via serine hydroxy-metal transferase
411
what are hydrolyses?
enzymes that catalyze hydrolysis ex. cleavage of C-C, C-O or C-N bonds ex. proteases, nucleases ex. special case of group transfer where h2o is acceptor ex. urea + H2O --> CO2 + 2NH3 via urease
412
what are lyases?
enzymes that catalyze atom elimination often generating a double bond ex. cleavage of C-C or C-N bonds ex. non hydrolytic, nonoxidative ex. pyruvate decarboxylase ex. pyruvate --> acetaldehyde + CO2 via pyruvate decarboxylase
413
what are isomerases?
enzymes that catalyze geometric or structural changes within a molecules ex. phosphohexose isomerase, triode phosphate isomerase ex. methylmalonyl CoA succinylcholine CoA via methylmalonyl CoA mutase
414
what are ligases?
enzymes that catalyze joining two reactants coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP - catalyze formation of bonds between carbon and O, S, and N coupled to hydrolysis of high energy phosphates like ATP many are caked syntheses ex. glutamine synthetase, glutathione synthetase, DNA ligase ex. pyruvate + CO2 + ATP --> oxaloacetate + ADP + Pi