LOCO revision 7 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

State which disease causes A-C

A

A: RA
B: OA
C: gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Saw tooth erosion is associated with which type of OA? [1]

A

Erosive OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 30-year-old female presents to a clinic with worsening joint pains, low-grade fever and tiredness for the past 5 months. She also has chest pain that increases when breathing in. On examination, there are painless ulcers in her oral cavity. There is a reddish butterfly-patterned rash on her cheeks. She mentions that the rash worsens when she goes out into the sun. Her blood tests show:

Hb 98 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 95 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 3.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
ESR 90 mm/hr (0 - 20)

Urinalysis reveals proteinuria and red cell casts. Investigations for autoantibodies are sent for the patient.

Which of the following has the highest sensitivity for the condition this patient is most likely to have?

Anti-La antibodies
Anti-Ro antibodies
Anti-Smith antibodies
Anti-dsDNA antibodies
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

A

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is true regarding rheumatoid factor?

It is usually an IgM molecule reacting against patient’s own IgG
High titres are not associated with severe disease
Rose-Waaler test involves agglutination of IgG coated latex particles
80% of SLE patients are RF positive
90% of patients with Sjogren’s syndrome are RF positiv

A

It is usually an IgM molecule reacting against patient’s own IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which one of the following confers the least risk of developing osteoporosis?

Obesity

Long term unfractionated heparin therapy

Gastrectomy

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Diabetes

A

Obesity: Low BMI increases the risk of OP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 34-year-old male is asked to grasp a piece of paper between his thumb and index finger. He is unable to do this.

Which other action is the patient most likely to be struggle with?

Abduction of the thumb
Adduction of his fingers
Extension of his wrist
Pronation of the wrist
Supination of the wrist

A

Adduction of his fingers: nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Question 28 of 152
A 23-year-old woman suffers from recurrent anterior dislocations of her left shoulder. A CT scan reveals a Bankart lesion. This is a lesion of the anterior glenoid labrum. Which rotator cuff muscle tendon is found at the anterior aspect of the shoulder capsule?

Teres minor

Supraspinatus tendon

Teres major

Subscapularis tendon

Infraspinatus tendon

A

Subscapularis tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the pathophysiological process causing rickets?

Excessive activity of receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-Β ligand (RANKL)

Excessive mineralised osteoid

Excessive non-mineralised osteoid

Excessive osteoclast activity

Inadequate osteoclast activity

A

Excessive non-mineralised osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his right hand after a fall 5 days ago. The pain is on the dorsum of the hand, at the base of his thumb. He explains that he fell forwards whilst playing football but managed to catch himself with his right hand before his head hit the floor.

On examination, there is marked tenderness on palpation of the base of the first metacarpal on the dorsum of his hand. There is also swelling in this area.

What type of fracture is the patient most likely to have sustained?

Boxer’s fracture
Colles’ fracture
Galeazzi fracture
Scaphoid fracture
Smith’s fracture

A

Falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is the most common mechanism causing a scaphoid fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 61-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. She is started on a short course of steroids and a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug. What type of joint is primarily affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

Synovial
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synostosis
Hyaline

A

Synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 52-year-old woman with muscle aches presents to the general practice. She has been experiencing this for well over a year and it affects her chest and back more so than her limbs. On questioning, she alludes to having bouts on average every 3 months of becoming short of breath. She lives a very healthy lifestyle remaining abstinent from drinking and smoking.

On examination, she has a flat erythematous rash on her torso and purple discolouration bilaterally around the eyelids which she explains she has had for a long time.

Which antibody is associated with the patient’s condition?

Anti-Jo-1

Anti-Scl-70

Anti-smooth muscle

Anti-histone

C-ANCA

A

Anti-Jo-1

Dermatomyositis is associated with the anti-Jo-1 antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 70-year-old woman who has a strong family history of fragility fractures secondary to osteoporosis presents as she is concerned about her own risk. What is the most appropriate way to assess her risk?

Order an x-ray of her hips and lumbar spine
Assess her using the Birmingham Hip Score tool
Order a MRI of her hips and lumbar spine
Check her calcium and phosphate levels
Assess her using the FRAX tool

A

Assess her using the FRAX tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 27-year-old male attends his general practitioner with lower back pain. He reports that the back pain has been present for the past year and has minimal improvement with oral ibuprofen and paracetamol. He has found that it is worse in the morning and swimming helps alleviate his symptoms. He has no history of trauma and works as a tax analyst, preferring to run for exercise than perform heavy lifting routines. He has no past medical history of note and no drug allergies.

What is the most likely radiological finding in this patient?

‘Pencil in cup’ deformity
Bamboo spine
Osteophytes
Sacroiliitis
Vertebral collapse

A

Sacroiliitis (Bamboo spine is a sign of late stage AS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An 84-year-old gentleman presents to GP with stiffness and swelling of the joints on his right hand. On inspection, you see uniform swellings predominantly affecting the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints, which are non-tender and hard on palpation. He is otherwise systemically well and no other joints are affected. There is no relevant past medical history.

What is the most likely clinical sign described?

Boutonniere deformity
Bouchard’s nodes
Rheumatoid nodules
Heberden’s nodes
Calcinosis cutis

A

Heberden’s nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

RA

Methotrexate and Rituximab would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

Third line treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RA

Methotrexate and a 2nd line DMARD would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

First line treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RA

Methotrexate & a TNF-inhibitor would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

Second line treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Methotrexate inhibits which enzyme? [1]

A

dihydrofolate reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RA

Sulfasalazine is a prodrug for [1]

A

5-ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RA Treatment:

Hydroxychloroquine blocks:

TLR7
TLR8
TLR9
TLR10
TLR11

A

TLR9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

RA

Leflunomide inhibits which enzyme? [1]

What is the effect of this? [2]

A

Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH): stops pyrimidine synthesis & therefore reduces pro-inflammatory cytokines: IL-1, TNF-A and IL-6; Blocks T cell proliferation

22
Q

Which is the staple treatment for RA?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which is the staple treatment for RA?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

23
Q

Which treatment for RA inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which treatment for RA inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

24
Q

Which treatment for RA reduces purine synthesis?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

25
Which treatment for RA reduces pyrimidine synthesis? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Leflunomide**
26
Which treatment for RA is safe for pregnant people? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Sulfasalazine**
27
Which treatment for RA is prodrug that operates in large intestine? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
Which treatment for RA is prodrug that operates in large intestine? Methotrexate **Sulfasalazine** Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
28
Which treatment for RA that targets TLR-9? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Hydroxychloroquine**
29
Which treatment for RA that reduces dendritic cell activation? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Hydroxychloroquine**
30
Which is a treatment for RA that inhibits dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Leflunomide**
31
Which treatment for RA requires folate to be given alongside? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Methotrexate**
32
Which treatment for RA is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Infliximab**
33
Which treatment for RA is a monoclonal antibody? Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Hydroxychloroquine Leflunomide Infliximab
**Infliximab**
34
Which treatment for RA is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody? Etanercept Adalimumab Anakinra Rituximab Abatacept Tolizumab
**Rituximab**
35
Which treatment for RA causes B cell depletion? Etanercept Adalimumab Anakinra Rituximab Abatacept Tolizumab
**Rituximab**
36
Which treatment for RA leads to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production? Etanercept Adalimumab Anakinra Rituximab Abatacept Tolizumab
**Abatacept**
37
Which treatment for RA is an IL-1 antagonist? Etanercept Adalimumab Anakinra Rituximab Abatacept Tolizumab
**Anakinra**
38
Which treatment for RA targets IL-6? Etanercept Adalimumab Anakinra Rituximab Abatacept Tolizumab
**Tolizumab**
39
Which treatment for RA targets upregulates CTLA-4, which switches T cell off? Etanercept Adalimumab Anakinra Rituximab Abatacept Tolizumab
**Tolizumab**
40
Which one of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with hydroxychloroquine? Liver impairment Interstitial lung disease Hypertension Liver impairment Interstitial lung disease Hypertension
**Retinopathy**
41
Hepatoxicity
42
This image shows which type of fracture? Hangman fracture Colles fracture Smith fracture Wedge fracture
**Colles fracture**
43
A garden spade deformity arises from a Hangman fracture Colles fracture Smith fracture Wedge fracture
**Smith fracture**
44
This shows what type of deformity? [1] What type of fracture would this have arisen from? [1]
**Garden spade**; due to **Smith** fracture
45
This shows a Hangman fracture Colles fracture Smith fracture Wedge fracture
**Wedge fracture**
46
*hyperflexion injuries to the vertebral body resulting from axial loading* This best describes a Hangman fracture Colles fracture Smith fracture Wedge fracture
**Wedge fracture**
47
Dinner fork deformity arises from improper healing of a Hangman fracture Colles fracture Smith fracture Wedge fracture
**Colles fracture**
48
What is the name for this type of fracture? [1]
**Jefferson fracture**
49
What is impingement syndrome Compression of the musculocutaneous nerve Compression of the long thoracic nerve Inflammation of the long head of the biceps brachii Inflammation of the supraspinatus tendon Compression of the axillary artery
**Inflammation of the supraspinatus tendon**
50
Patient fractures their medial epicodondyle of the humerus, how do they present clinically? Claw hand Hand of benediction Thumb wasting Wrist drop Basically normal
**Basically normal**: proximal ulnar damage