LONG TEST 1 Flashcards

(30 cards)

1
Q

Pulmonary reactions that include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is characterized by “farmer’s lung” is under what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type Ill hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Type Ill hypersensitivity

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2
Q

What test procedure should be performed when testing for antibodies to a specific allergen?
a. RIST
b. RAST
c. CRP
d. RPR

A

RAST

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3
Q

What method works on the principle of complement fixation test?

a. Kahn test
b. Laurell technique
c. VDRL
d. Wasserman

A

Wasserman

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4
Q

In the Enzyme - linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the visible reaction is due to a reaction between:

a. Enzyme and antibody
b. Enzyme and substrate
c. Fluorescent dye and Antigen
d. Latex particles and antibody

A

Enzyme and substrate

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5
Q

What is the indicator system used in the complement fixation test?

a. Sensitized sheep red blood cells
b. Fluorescent - labelled antihuman globulin
c. Enzyme labelled antihuman globulin
d. Guinea pig kidney cells

A

Sensitized sheep red blood cells

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6
Q

In patients with human immunodeficiency virus infection, immune status can be monitored by measuring the ratio of _

a.CD2+ cells to CD4+ cells
b. CD4+ cells to CD8+ cells
c. Lymphocyte to monocybes
d. T cells to B cells

A

CD4+ cells to CD8+ cells

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7
Q

Which of the following is a confirmatory test for HIV?

a. Westernblot
b. PCR
c. Both
d. Neither
e. Both

A

Westernblot

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8
Q

Which of the following is most likely a Positive in the Western blot test for infection with HIV?

a. Band at p24
b. Band at gp60
c. Bands at p24 and p 31
d. Bands at p24 and gp120

A

Bands at p24 and gp120

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9
Q

Which CD4 : CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)?

a. 2: 1
b. 3: 1
c. 2: 3
d. 1: 2

A

1: 2

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10
Q

Which of the following Is used as the most sensitive indicator of the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment for
monitoring an HIV?

a. HIV antibody titer
b. CD4 : CD8 ratio
c. HIV viral load
d. Absolute total T-cell count

A

HIV viral load

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11
Q

Which of the following test is the most suitable for testing HIV vertical transmission in a newborn?

a. HIV PCR test
b. CD4 count
c. Rapid HIV Antibody test
d. HIV IgM antibody test

A

HIV PCR test

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12
Q

What is the best method for screening cerebrospinal fluid for syphilis?

a. Darkfield microscopy
b. FTA-abs
c. RPR
d. VRDL

A

VRDL

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13
Q

The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is rotated at what speed and length of time?

a. 100 rpms for 8 minutes
c. 120 rpms for 8 minutes
b. 100 rpms for 10 minuets
d. 120 rpms for 20 minutes

A

100 rpms for 8 minutes

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14
Q

The Treponema pallidum Immobilization (TPI) test requires

a. Fixed Treponema pallidum on the glass slide
b. Live Treporema pallidum
c. Reagin antibody
d. Treponema pallidum extract

A

Live Treporema pallidum

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15
Q

Cytomegalovirus belongs to what group?

a. Adenovirus
b. Retrovirus
c. Herpes virus
d. Picornavirus

A

Herpes virus

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16
Q

Which of the following virus/es should be tested prior to Blood transfusion?

a. CMV
b. EBV
c. HTLV-ITI
d. HDV

17
Q

What is the diagnostic method used to confirm equivocal CMV IgM results?

a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Chemiluminiscence
d. IFA

18
Q

What is the rapid test used for diagnosis of CMV in immunocompromised patients or organ donors?

a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Chemiluminiscence
d. IFA

19
Q

Transfusion-acquired CMV infection can manifest which of the following?

a. Mononucleosis-like syndrome
c. Hepatitis
b. Rejection of transplanted organ
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

20
Q

What type of cell culture best supports the growth of cytomegalovirus?

a. HeLa cells
b. Hep-2 cells
c. Human fibroblast cells
d. Primary monkey kidney cells

A

Human fibroblast cells

21
Q

The heterophil antibody produced in infectious mononucleosis is classified as what type of immunoglobulin?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgM

22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of heterophil antibodies produced in infectious mononucleosis?

a. Absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells
c. Absorbed by beef red cells
b. Not absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells
d. React with horse, ox and sheep red cells

A

Absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells

23
Q

Which statement is TRUE about non-Forssman heterophile antibody?

a. It is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen
b. It is absorbed by guinea pig antinen.
c. It does not agglutinate horse RBCS
d. It does not agalutinate sheep RBCs

A

It is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen

24
Q

Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to give a definitive result for the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis?

a. Nephelometric assay of anti-IgG
b. Anti-CCP
c. Agglutination test for Rheumatoid Factor
d. Immunofluorescence testing for antinuclear antibodies

A

Immunofluorescence testing for antinuclear antibodies

25
Which of the following organism is more often noted for the production of a lymphocytosis rather than a mononucleosis? a. Bordetella pertusis b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Human Immunodeficiency virus d. Listeria monocytogenes
Bordetella pertusis
26
What is the causative agent if the diagnosis to the patiemt is highly suggestive of infectious mononucleosis? a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Herpesvirus c. HIV d. HPV
Epstein-Barr virus
27
Infectious mononucleosis is commonly referred to as: a. Kissing Disease b. Glandular fever c. Both d. None of the above
Both
28
What is the target cell of Epstein barr virus? a. T cell b. B cell c. Macrophage d. Monocyte
B cell
29
Which of the following is not associated with Epstein barr virus infection? a. Burkitt lymphoma b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c. Hodgkin's lymphoma d. Gumma
Gumma
30
Which of the following is a marker of a past infection with EBV? a. Anti-EBNA b. EA-D c. EA-R d. VCA IgG
Anti-EBNA