LS 7C - Part 2 Flashcards by Joshua Peterson

Which process is responsible for creating MOST of an animal’s nitrogenous waste?

A. protein breakdown during metabolism

B. respiration

C. consuming nitrogen in food

D. toxins in the environment

A. protein breakdown during metabolism

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One of the functions of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is to rid the body of CO2. Where does the CO2 come from?

A. CO2 is a breakdown product of the carbohydrates oxidized in cellular respiration.

B. CO2 is a breakdown product of the carbohydrates reduced in cellular respiration.

C. CO2 is produced when inhaled oxygen combines with carbon atoms from carbohydrates.

D. CO2 is produced when the oxygen atoms of water combine with carbon atoms.

A. CO2 is a breakdown product of the carbohydrates oxidized in cellular respiration.

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The lungs are highly branched. What is the primary purpose of this branching?

A. It increases the surface area of the lungs

B. It increases the volume of the lungs

C. A and B are correct

D. None of the above

A. It increases the surface area of the lungs

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A red blood cell has just left the right ventricle of the heart. It travels to the lungs, back to the heart, to the liver, and then back to the heart again. At each point on its journey (A-D), determine the oxygen saturation level (%) of the hemoglobin molecules found in this red blood cell. (You may assume the pH of the blood is 7.4.)

What is the approximate O2 saturation at point D?

A. 75%

B. 30%

C. 40%

D. 10%

E. None of the above

A. 75%

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How does blood pH at muscle tissue compare to blood pH at the lungs?

A. Blood pH is higher at the muscle

B. Blood pH is lower at the muscle

C. Blood pH is the same at the muscle

B. Blood pH is lower at the muscle

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If carbonic anhydrase stopped working, the amount of oxygen delivered to systemic tissues would _________.

A. Increase
B. Decrease

C. Not change

B. Decrease

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The same red blood cell leaves the heart again, but this time instead of traveling to the liver, it travels to a skeletal muscle that is actively respiring. At each point on its journey (A-D), determine the oxygen saturation level (%) of the hemoglobin molecules found in this red blood cell.

What is the approximate O2 saturation at point D?

A. 75%

B. 25%

C. 40%

D. 10%

E. None of the above

D. 10%

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When the diaphragm contracts, the volume of the lungs _____ and the pressure in the lungs ______

A. Increases; increases

B. Increases; decreases

C. Decreases; increases

D. Decreases; decreases

B. Increases; decreases

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At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is ______ the partial pressure of oxygen at sea level.

A. Higher than

B. Lower than

C. The same as

B. Lower than

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At high altitudes, the percentage of oxygen is ___________ the percentage of oxygen at sea level.

A. Higher than

B. Lower than

C. The same as

Sea level O2 is 21% Total Pressure = 760 mm/Hg Partial pressure of oxygen is 160 mm/Hg

At 10,000 feet O2 is 21% Total Pressure = 523 mm/Hg Partial pressure of oxygen 110 mm/Hg

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A climber is scaling Mt. Everest. As her elevation increases, the average amount of oxygen bound to the hemoglobin in her red blood cells ________.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Does not change

B. Decreases

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A condition called “hypoxia” occurs when not enough oxygen is being delivered to the body. Chemoreceptors on the ________ sense oxygen levels in the blood and relay this information to respiratory control centers in the brain.

A. Aorta

B. Pulmonary trunk

C. Pulmonary vein

D. Superior vena cava

A. Aorta

Follow-up: Why does it make the most sense to monitor oxygen levels in the aorta?

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A condition called “hypoxia” occurs when not enough oxygen is being delivered to the body. What is acting as the homeostatic sensor?

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon Dioxide

C. Heart
D. Brainstem
E. Diaphragm

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A condition called “hypoxia” occurs whennot enough oxygen is being delivered to the body. When brainstem senses hypoxicconditions, the rate of ventilation will …

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Not change

A. Increase

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How many cell membranes does a carbon dioxide molecule diffuse through to move from the cytosol of a red blood cell to the inside of an alveolus in the lungs?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5 or more

E. 5 or more

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Patient A received a complete blood count while Patient B received a chemistry panel. Based on the results, which test analyzes the composition of the cellular portion of the blood?

A. Complete blood count

B. Chemistry panel
C. No way to know

A. Complete blood count

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True or False:

Patient B’s blood pH is buffered by the appropriate amount of bicarbonate

True

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True or False:

Patient A’s blood will likely exhibit difficulty clotting.

False

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True or False:

Patient B likely exhibits some swelling of the body tissues (“edema”) due to an osmotic imbalance in his blood.

True

Low plasma protein concentrations will make the blood hypotonic compared to the interstitial fluid around capillaries. As a result, water will tend to leave the blood, causing surrounding tissues to swell.

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Label these structures on the diagram:

Right Atrium

Right Ventricle

Left Atrium

Left Ventricle

Superior Vena Cava

Inferior Vena Cava

Pulmonary Artery

Pulmonary Vein

Aorta

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Which of the following correctly represents the order in which blood flows through structures of the heart?

A. Right ventricle, left atrium, pulmonary artery

B. Left atrium, pulmonary artery, right atrium

C. Pulmonary artery, aorta, left ventricle, Pulmonary Circuit

D. Superior vena cava, pulmonary vein, aorta

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True or False:

The pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood.

False

Arteries carry blood away from the heart and veins carry blood back to the heart. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit back to the heart.

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At the beginning of ventricular diastole, blood pressure in atria is _______ blood pressure in the ventricles.

A. Higher than
B. Lower than
C. The same as
D. No way to know!

A. Higher than

Blood flows down pressure gradients from high to low pressure

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The ventricles begin to empty at which region of the cardiac cycle?

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At the time that the ventricles begin to empty, blood pressure in aorta is _______ blood pressure in the ventricles. A. Higher than B. Lower than C. The same as D. No way to know!

B. Lower than

During a typical cardiac cycle, cell depolarization triggers muscle _______ and repolarization triggers muscle \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Contraction; contraction B. Contraction; relaxation C. Relaxation; contraction D. Relaxation; relaxation

B. Contraction; relaxation

Depolarization and repolarization... sounds like we’re talking about action potentials. Do muscles have action potentials? A. Totally! B. No way! C. How should I know?

A. Totally!

During a typical cardiac cycle, the atria of the heart contract ______ the ventricles contract. A. Before B. After C. At the same time as

A. Before

The ventricles finish filling with blood after the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Atria depolarize B. Atria repolarize C. Ventricles depolarize D. Ventricles repolarize

A. Atria depolarize

When do the ventricles depolarize? A. P wave B. PR segment C. QRS complex D. ST segment E. T wave

C. QRS complex

When do the atria repolarize? A. P wave B. PR segment C. QRS complex D. ST segment E. T wave

C. QRS complex

What does the ST interval represent? A. The heart is relaxing B. The ventricles are filling C. The atria are filling

C. The atria are filling

What happens during the P wave? A. Atria depolarize B. Atria repolarize C. Ventricles depolarize D. Ventricles repolarize

A. Atria depolarize

Which region on the EKG corresponds to number 2 on the figure??

Signals from the sympathetic nervous system cause arteriole B to constrict. As a result, the amount of blood flowing through the other three arterioles will \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Increase B. Decrease C. Not change

A. Increase

Signals from the sympathetic nervous system cause arteriole B to constrict. Arteriole B is most likely carrying blood to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (Hint: fight or flight) A. The brain B. The small intestine C. A leg muscle D. The heart

B. The small intestine

Consider two chambers of equal volumes. The chambers are separated by a selectively permeable membrane that only allows water through. What will happen to the water molecules? A. Net movement to the right B. Net movement to the left C. No net movement

A. Net movement to the right

C. No net movement

A. Net movement to the right

In the proximal convoluted tubule, which of the following molecules is being secreted? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Glucose D. Urea E. All of the above

D. Urea

Consider the figure below. True or False: The osmolarity of tissue fluids surrounding the nephron is higher at point D than at point G.

True

Consider the figure below. Around point F, the extracellular fluid surrounding the nephron is _______ compared to the fluid in the lumen of the nephron. A. Hypertonic B. Hypotonic C. Isotonic

A. Hypertonic

Consider the figure below. True or False: The cells around region B use more ATP than those in region G.

False Follow-up: in what region(s) of the nephron would you expect to find high numbers of sodium/potassium pumps?

Increased osmolarity of body fluids\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ADH secretion A. Increases B. Decreases C. Has no effect on

A. Increases

Increased ADH secretion\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ urine output A. Increases B. Decreases C. Has no effect on

B. Decreases

Decreased Na+ in body fluids (Na+depletion) __________ renin secretion A. Increases B. Decreases C. Has no effect on

A. Increases

When the volume of blood passing through the kidney increases, renin production by the kidney will most likely \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Increase B. Decrease C. Stay the same

B. Decrease

ACE inhibitors are drugs that inhibit an enzyme called ACE that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II. Treatment with an ACE inhibitor will cause blood pressure to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Increase B. Decrease C. Stay the same

B. Decrease

True or False: ## Footnote The marathon runner’s muscles aren’t working well, you determine itis not due to fatigue. They have been drink water at each watering station. They are still dehydrated and should drink water.

False

The runner begins to experience a headache, and their body temperature has risen slightly. The first aid station gives them water thinking they have heat stroke The runner’s headache will get A. Worse B. Better C. Stay the same

A. Worse

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are commonly prescribed to treat glaucoma. A side effect could be ___________ in stomach pH. A. An increase B. A decrease C. No change

A. An increase

Secretin stimulates the release of bicarbonate ions into the duodenum, which neutralizes acidic chyme from the stomach. One consequence of neutralizing the pH in the intestine is that: A. Carbohydrates are not as easily broken down in this neutral environment B. Enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates are denatured C. Enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates are active D. The enzymatically catalyzed breakdown of carbohydrates that began in the stomach is halted in the duodenum

C. Enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates are active

Based on the diagram shown here, ______ concentration in the duodenum is homeostatically regulated. A. Bicarbonate B. Bile C. CCK D. H+ ion E. Secretin

D. H+ ion

When stomach acid reaches the duodenum, it triggers the release of bicarbonate ions, which increase the pH of the duodenum. This is an example of: A. Negative feedback B. Positive feedback C. Neither; this is not a feedback system

A. Negative feedback

Antacids like pepto-bismal are commonly taken to increase the pH of the stomach. If you take an antacid with your meal, _____ secretin will be released by your duodenum compared with eating an identical meal without an antacid. A. More B. Less C. An equivalent amount of

B. Less

The motility of the digestive tract and secretion of digestive enzymes are optimized for digestion and absorption. For most nutrients, once material is in the digestive tract, the digestive system does not vary its rate of absorption according to body needs. A. This is an example of a homeostatic positive feedback mechanism B. This is an example of a homeostatic negative feedback mechanism C. This response is not homeostatic

C. This response is not homeostatic

You add a toxin that prevents the Na+/K+pump from hydrolyzing ATP. Absorption of which nutrient(s) will be affected? A. Glucose only B. Amino acids only C. Both glucose and amino acids D. Neither will be affected

C. Both glucose and amino acids

What is your prediction: A. All experimental groups will show changes in body weight. B. Only the db/db + ob/ob experimental group will show changes in body weight C. Only the db/db + Lean (WT) and ob/ob + Lean (WT) experimental groups will show changes in body weight D. None of the experimental groups will show changes because they all die from septic shock

A. All experimental groups will show changes in body weight.

True or False: Is this an accurate null hypothesis: None of the experimental groups will exhibit changes in body weight.

True

True or False: Based on these results, it can be concluded that db/dbmice lack the receptor for the hormone leptin.

True

True or False: Based on these results, it can be concluded that db/db mice do not make the hormone leptin.

False

True or False: Based on these results, it can be concluded ob/ob mice do not produce the hormone leptin.

True

(see picture)

Name the blood electrolytes and what they do.

Sodium Potassium Calcium Magnesium Chloride Bicarbonate Osmotic balance, pH buffering, regulation of membrane permeability.

Name 3 plasma proteins and what they do.

Albumin - Osmotic balance, pH buffering Fibrinogen - clotting Immunoglobulins (antibodies) - defense

What is water's function in blood plasma?

It is a solvent for carrying other substances.

What substances are transported by the blood?

Nutrients such as glucose, fatty acids, vitamins. Waste products of metabolism. Respiratory gases (O2 and CO2.) Hormones

Technical name of red blood cells and function.

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and help transport CO2.

Technical name of white blood cells, the 5 types and what they do.

Leukocytes: - Basophil - Neutrophil - Eosinophil - Lymphocyte - Monocyte These all provide defense and immunity.

Sometimes while traveling, people are infected with a protist parasite, Giardia. One of the side effects of Giardia infection is diarrhea. When someone has diarrhea, they lose excessive water and salt from the body. The result is loss of Na+, dehydration that leads to decreased extracellular volume and plasma volume, and decreased arterial blood pressure. Given this would the vasopressin secretion of a person infected with Giardia: A. stay the same B. decrease C. increase

C. increase

One of the effects of the hormone secretin is to stimulate the release of bicarbonate ions into the duodenum, which neutralizes the acid that enters the duodenum with food from the stomach. One consequence of neutralizing the pH in the intestine is that: A. enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of carbohydrates are active. B. the enzymatically catalyzed hydrolysis of carbohydrate that began in the stomach is halted in the duodenum. C. enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of carbohydrates are denatured. D. carbohydrates are not as easily broken down in this neutral environment.

A. enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of carbohydrates are active. Instructional Guidance: This question requires the application of knowledge of what happens in stomach and duodenum.

The duct that connects the pancreas to the duodenum can sometimes become blocked. What is the result? A. Nothing happens because the pancreas does not produce digestive enzymes. B. The digestive enzymes back up into the pancreas and may start to digest the pancreas. C. The digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas still enter the duodenum because they travel by the blood to reach the duodenum, not by a duct. D. The digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas enter the large intestine instead and digestion proceeds as normal. E. The digestive enzymes are not affected because they are stored in the gallbladder until they are needed in the duodenum.

B. The digestive enzymes back up into the pancreas and may start to digest the pancreas.

Glucose enters the epithelial cells of the small intestine against its concentration gradient. Select the BEST explanation from the following. A. Glucose is co-transported with Na+, which moves down its concentration gradient into the cell. B. Glucose is co-transported in the Na+/K+ pump. C. Glucose is transported through a glucose pump in the apical membrane that hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and Pi. D. Glucose enters by diffusion. E. Glucose follows the water that is pumped into the cell.

A. Glucose is co-transported with Na+, which moves down its concentration gradient into the cell.

The loop of Henle is a countercurrent exchanger because it creates a concentration gradient rather than simply maintaining it. A. False B. True

A. False

One of the roles of the kidneys is to help buffer body fluids so that they are not too acidic or too basic. The cells of the renal tubule secrete H+ into the tubule lumen, and absorb bicarbonate (HCO3–), passing it into the tissue fluid. Consider the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, shown in the accompanying figure and below. ## Footnote During heavy exercise, the reaction shifts to the right in the nephron (lumen of the tubule). A. False B. True

B. True

Referring to Figure 10.14, identify which type of cell-cell interaction is most likely to force the products of digestion to be absorbed across microvilli of intestinal cells rather than allowing them to leak between cells. ## Footnote A. tight junctions B. desmosomes C. hemidesmosomes D. gap junctions E. plasmodesmata

A. tight junctions

You discover a new type of marine organism that has the kidneys of a fish but no gills. What effect would the absence of gills have on excretion of nitrogenous waste? A. No effect. Nitrogenous wastes diffuse across the skin. B. Nitrogenous excretion decreases because no nitrogen uptake is occurring at the gills. C. No effect. Fish kidneys excrete all nitrogenous waste. D. Nitrogenous excretion increases at the kidneys because it cannot be lost at the gills.

D. Nitrogenous excretion increases at the kidneys because it cannot be lost at the gills.

Assume that blood pressure drops in a person because of an injury. Indicate which of the following occur by selecting “true” for does occur or “false” for does not occur. Circulating levels of aldosterone will increase. True False

True

False

Assume that blood pressure drops in a person because of an injury. Indicate which of the following occur by selecting “true” for does occur or “false” for does not occur. The sympathetic nervous system stimulates the adrenal glands. True False

True

Assume that blood pressure drops in a person because of an injury. Indicate which of the following occur by selecting “true” for does occur or “false” for does not occur. Water absorption by the distal convoluted tubule will decrease. True False

False

True

Freshwater fish are in a hypotonic environment. How do their gill chloride cells function in this environment? A. Freshwater fish have chloride cells that actively move chloride ions out of the gills into the surrounding water, with sodium ions following. B. Freshwater fish have chloride cells that actively move chloride ions into the gills, with sodium ions moving in the opposite direction. C. Freshwater fish have chloride cells that actively move chloride ions out of the gills into the surrounding water, with sodium ions moving in the opposite direction. D. Freshwater fish have chloride cells that actively move chloride ions into the gills, with sodium ions following.

D. Freshwater fish have chloride cells that actively move chloride ions into the gills, with sodium ions following.

One of the hormones not mentioned in the text is GIP (glucose-dependent insulin trophic peptide), which stimulates the secretion of insulin. It is secreted by cells of the duodenum in response to the presence of glucose. Its secretion and action on insulin production is an example of a: A. homeostatic negative feedback mechanism keeping a system near a set point. B. homeostatic negative feedback mechanism changing the set point. C. homeostatic positive feedback mechanism amplifying the response to glucose ingestion.

A. homeostatic negative feedback mechanism keeping a system near a set point.

Chemoreceptors in the circulatory system detect changes in circulating *p*CO₂. If CO₂ concentrations get too high, the rate of ventilation increases. Why does this make sense? A. Actually it doesn't make sense. There is no relationship between CO₂ and ventilation rate. B. It makes sense because tissues that are more actively working produce more CO₂. C. It makes sense because CO₂ is formed from O₂, and therefore CO₂ is a sign that oxygen is being consumed. D. It makes sense because hemoglobin carries CO₂ and therefore blocks oxygen binding to the heme site, creating an oxygen deficiency.

B. It makes sense because tissues that are more actively working produce more CO₂.

Consider the figure below showing an EKG trace below the typical action potential for the sinoatrial node. Note: You haven’t seen the action potential for the pacemaker cells in the text. Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. 1. Ventricular diastole occurs at the interval labeled 2 on the graph. 2. Atria are emptying at the interval labeled 4 on the graph.

1. False 2. True

Bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPG) is a byproduct of glycolysis released into the bloodstream when an animal's supply of oxygen is low. Like protons, it decreases hemoglobin's affinity for O2. The effect of high BPG levels would be that: A. hemoglobin holds on to more of its O2 than it would without BPG. B. hemoglobin loses its cooperative binding of oxygen. C. hemoblobin releases more of its bound O2 than it would without BPG. D. hemoglobin now binds more oxygen at low partial pressures than at high partial pressures. E. hemoglobin picks up more O2 in the lungs than it would without BPG.

C. hemoblobin releases more of its bound O2 than it would without BPG.

What are desirable characteristics for a gas exchange surface, such as the endothelial cells lining the inside of lung? (Select all that apply.) A. a large surface area B. a thickness under 10 micrometers C. a small surface area D. a thickness of 100 micrometers

A. a large surface area B. a thickness under 10 micrometers

In systemic tissue fluids, the enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reaction CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 (which then can dissociate into H+ and HCO3–). In fact, CO2 released from cells is converted to HCO3– ions and travels in that form in the bloodstream. HCO3– is reconverted to CO2 + H2O in the pulmonary capillaries by the same enzyme, and there the CO2 is exhaled. How is it possible for the same enzyme to catalyze reverse reactions? A. The lungs contain an allosteric inhibitor that prevents the formation of carbonic acid. B. There must be two forms of carbonic anhydrase. One form catalyzes the forward reaction CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 and the other catalyzes the reverse reaction H2CO3 →CO2 + H2O. C. The direction of a reversible reaction is influenced by the concentrations of reactants and products. In pulmonary circulation, the low CO2 concentration favors the formation of CO2 and H2O.

C. The direction of a reversible reaction is influenced by the concentrations of reactants and products. In pulmonary circulation, the low CO2 concentration favors the formation of CO2 and H2O. Instructional Guidance: This question covers the reversibility of reactions, the same enzyme catalyzing both forward and reverse reactions, and Le Chatelier's principle.

During heavy exercise, the pO2 in muscle may drop to 20 mm Hg. Considering the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve below, what is the approximate percent O2 saturation of hemoglobin in venous blood returning from skeletal muscles during heavy exercise? ## Footnote A. approximately 50% B. nearly 0% C. approximately 20% D. approximately 75% E.approximately 100%

C. approximately 20%

Stimulation by the parasympathetic nervous system increases the permeability of the SA node to potassium ions, whereas stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system decreases the permeability of the SA node to this same ion. A. False B. True

A. False

During certain stressful moments, some individuals will begin to hyperventilate—that is, their breathing will be very shallow and quick. A by-product of hyperventilation is much lowered levels of CO2 in the blood. Which of the following would you also expect to find? (Select all that apply.) A. increased blood pH, greater than 7.2 B. increased stimulation of chemoreceptors in the brainstem C. decreased blood pH, less than 7.2. D. decreased stimulation of chemoreceptors in the brainstem

A. increased blood pH, greater than 7.2 D. decreased stimulation of chemoreceptors in the brainstem Instructional Guidance: Students should be able to integrate changes in gas concentration to changes in blood pH and receptor stimulus.

The random thermal motion of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration is called diffusion. The rate of diffusion across a barrier is defined by Fick’s law of diffusion: Rate of diffusion = k \* A \* (C2 – C1) L k = diffusion coefficient, which depends on solubility and temperature A = surface area for exchange C2 – C1 = difference in partial pressure of gas on either side of the barrier L = thickness of the barrier to diffusion In the design of respiratory systems, respiratory membranes 1 and 2 represent membrane barriers between the outside medium and the inside of the organism. Which would have the higher rate of diffusion, respiratory membrane 1 or respiratory membrane 2? A. respiratory membrane 2 B. respiratory membrane 1

A. respiratory membrane 2

The random thermal motion of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration is called diffusion. The rate of diffusion across a barrier is defined by Fick’s law of diffusion: Rate of diffusion = k \* A \* (C2 – C1) L k = diffusion coefficient, which depends on solubility and temperature A = surface area for exchange C2 – C1 = difference in partial pressure of gas on either side of the barrier L = thickness of the barrier to diffusion In the design of respiratory systems, respiratory membranes 1 and 2 represent membrane barriers between the outside medium and the inside of the organism. Which term in the equation above is different between respiratory membranes 1 and 2? A. A B. k C. L D. C2 – C1

A. A

Which of the following statements explains why there is an elastic layer found in arteries, but not veins? A. Valves present in veins provide a mechanism for withstanding high blood pressure flow going through veins. B. The total length of arteries in the body is more than the total length of veins, and the elastic layer helps push the blood over the longer length. C. Arteries are thicker than veins, and the elastic layer is necessary to support the additional weight of arteries. D. Blood pressure is higher in arteries than veins, and the elastic layer helps maintain the structure of the artery.

D. Blood pressure is higher in arteries than veins, and the elastic layer helps maintain the structure of the artery.

Label: Right Atrium Right Ventricle Left Atrium Left Ventricle Superior Vena Cava Inferior Vena Cava Pulmonary Artery Pulmonary Vein Aorta

What is happening during Ventricular Diastole?

Ventricles are filling (relaxed)

What is happening during Ventricular Systole?

Ventricles are empyting (contraction).

Normal Systolic and Diastolic pressure should be around what? (mm Hg)

Systolic - 120 mm Hg Diastolic - 80 mm Hg

You are using mice to study the relationship between gut microbes and metabolism. You have three types of mice: mice with no microbes (GF), mice that gained microbes at a young age (CONV-D), and mice that gained microbes as adults (CONV-R). Results from two experiments are shown below. Mice that have gut microbes eat _____ and have ________ metabolic rate compared to germ-free (GF) mice. A. More; a higher B. More; a lower C. Less; a higher D. Less; a lower

C. Less; a higher

You hypothesize that mice with microbes have less body fat than mice without microbes. You conduct a follow-up experiment, the results of which are shown below. What can you conclude from these data? A. The data support the hypothesis B. The data refute the hypothesis C. The data don’t provideenough information to support or refute

B. The data refute the hypothesis

With a fluorescent marker, researchers were able to visualize species specific locations in the Zebrafish gut when colonized either Vibrio or Aeromonas Based on my groups interpretation of the data provided, we can conclude: A. Zebrafish have a preference forVibrio over Aeromonas. B. Vibrio and Aeromonas are able to colonize distinct locations in the Zebrafish gut. C. Both Vibrio and Aeromonas can co- exist in the Zebrafish gut due to their gut location preferences D. We need more information to make any conclusions about this data.

B. Vibrio and Aeromonas are able to colonize distinct locations in the Zebrafish gut.

To determine if Aeromonas and Vibrio can co-exist in the Zebrafish gut you colonize germ free zebrafish larva with Aeromonas first and then expose the Zebrafish+Aeromonas to Vibrio. You sample and count the number of bacteria present in the gut at multiple times throughout the experiment. The results from you experiment are shown below: Based on my groups interpretation of the data provided, we can conclude: A. Aeromonas and Vibrio can co-exist in the larval zebrafish gut. B. In the larval zebrafish gut, Aeromonasare able to out compete Vibriobecause they were the first colonizers. C. Vibrio are able to out competeAeromonas in the larval zebrafish gut. D. Vibrio are able to utilize food sources present in the larval zebrafish gut better than Aeromonas.

C. Vibrio are able to out competeAeromonas in the larval zebrafish gut. Why can we NOT conclude D?

You are curious about the mechanism of completive exclusion present in the larval zebrafish gut so you fluorescently label Vibrio and Aeromonas and run the same colonization challenge experiment as before but measure the presence of each species over a smaller time scale (hours vs. days). The results from your experiment are shown below. Based on my groups interpretation of the data and information provided, we can conclude: A. In the larval zebrafish gut, Aeromonasare able to out compete Vibriobecause they were the first colonizers. B. Vibrio are able to utilize food sources present in the larval zebrafish gut better than Aeromonas. C. Vibrio are able to out competeAeromonas in the larval zebrafish gut because the zebrafish host selectively eliminates only Aeromonas. D. Vibrio are able to out competeAeromonas in the larval zebrafish gut because Vibrio are resistant to intestinal contractions

D. Vibrio are able to out competeAeromonas in the larval zebrafish gut because Vibrio are resistant to intestinal contractions

Mark A for True and B for False: 16s rRNA sequencing utilizes RNA to identify microbial species present in a microbiota sample.

False 16S rRNA sequencing utilizes the genes (DNA) that encode small ribosomal subunits (RNA + Proteins).

Mark A for True or B for False: The data presented below is a measure of alpha diversity.

True

Mark A for True or B for False: Person 1’s microbiome contains a larger % of proteobacteriathan Person 2’s microbiome.

False

Mark A for True or B for False: Person 2 contains a greater alpha diversity than person 1.

False Person 1 has bacteria from all 5 phyla including Tenericutes and Bacteroidetes. Person 2 only has bacteria from 3 phyla

Use the data provided below to answer the following question: Children with recurrent tonsillitis have less microbial diversity than healthy adults A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined

C. Cannot be determined

Use the data provided below to answer the following question: Children with recurrent tonsillitis have microbiomes that are more similar to other children with recurrent tonsillitis than healthy adults. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined

A. True

Which of the four groups did Dr. Bello collect the most samples from? A. Yanomami B. Guahibo C. Malawi D. US E. Can’t conclude from the data.

D. US

What type of microbial diversity is depicted here? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Both D. Neither

B. Beta

Surprisingly, the Yanomami tribe have similar microbiomes to the US. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined.

B. False

The Yanomami have more bacterial diversity than the US samples. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined.

C. Cannot be determined.

What type of diversity is being evaluated? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Both D. Neither

A. Alpha

If I increased the amount of sequences evaluated in a sample (independent variable; x-axis). Would Iexpect to detect... A. More bacterial species. B. Fewer bacterial species. C. What is sequencing?

A. More bacterial species. ## Footnote The more sequences of 16s rRNA genes you evaluate the more unique sequences you will discover leading to a greater ability to differentiate between similar species.

Which group has the most bacterial species diversity? A. Yanomami B. Guahibo C. Malawi D. US

A. Yanomami

What kind of cell is most directly responsible for the inflammationobserved in this cut? A. Mast Cell B. Neutrophil C. Macrophage D. B Cell E. T Cell

A. Mast Cell

Mark A for True or B for False: In addition to cells, individual proteins from theblood are helping to fight this infection

True

You are developing a fever. Your core body temperature set point has justincreased. As a result you... A. Feel cold and shiver B. Feel cold and sweat C. Feel hot and shiver D. Feel hot and sweat E. None of the above

A. Feel cold and shiver

You have successfully fought off your infection and your fever is falling. As your body returns to its original temperature, you appear flushed. This is because blood vessels in your skin have ______ to ______ heat. A. Constricted; release B. Constricted; retain C. Dilated; release D. Dilated; retain E. None of the above

C. Dilated; release

Suppose this cut gets infected by the bacteriumStaphylococcus aureus. While fighting off theinfection, some of your immune cells learn torecognize and “remember” this particularbacterium. Which immune cells are these? A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. Mast Cells D. B Cells E. T Cells

D. B Cells

Suppose this cut gets infected by the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. While fighting off the infection, some of your immunecells learn to recognize and “remember” this particularbacterium. Several days later, the same person gets another cut and is infected by the bacterium Streptococcus pyogens. What point on the graph (A-E) best represents when the first cut is initially infected by S. aureus?

Mark A for True or B for False: At point A there are no B Cells present in the blood that can bind to S. aureus

False

Suppose this cut gets infected by the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. While fighting off the infection, some of your immunecells learn to recognize and “remember” this particularbacterium. Several days later, the same person gets another cut and is infected by the bacterium Streptococcus pyogens. What point on the graph (A-E) best represents the maximum response to S. pyogens?

Based on the graph below, about how much moreantibody is produced in the secondary response compared to the primary response? A.2x B. 3x C. 10x D.100x E. 1000x

E. 1000x

Three memory B Cells are circulating in the blood stream of a patient. Each memory cell recognizes a different pathogen. Mark A for True or B for False: These three cells have identical DNA sequences

False

How many base pairs are in the human genome?

Approximately 3.2 billion (3.2 x 10^9)

How much of the human genome codes for proteins?

About 2% (protein-coding genes 1.5%)

DNA Synthesis occurs in which direction?

5' to 3'

Name 3 locations for sensory receptors that monitor the blood.

Brainstem, Carotid, Aortic Body Brainstem - Chemoreceptors Carotid - chemosensory structure monitors levels of O2 & CO2 AND **pH of blood** moving to the brain Aortic Body - sensory structure of the vertebrate aorta that monitors levels of O2 & CO2 and **pressure of blood** moving through the body.

What is Myoglobin?

O2 carrier within muscles. Monomer with only 1 heme group. (Hemoglobin has 4)

True or False: Fetal hemoglobin has higher affinity for O2.

True

Explain the Bohr Effect.

CO2 increases during exercise. pH decreases, binding affinity for O2 decreases and is released for ATP production. -Lactic Acid builds up. How?--\> CO2 reacts with amine (NH2) groups of hemoglobin, reducing affinity for O2, which essentially increases O2 delivery. Elimination at lung increases hemoglobin affinity for O2.

Are arteries or veins stronger? Why?

Arteries. They have to sustain higher blood pressures.

Define "Hypertonic"

**Higher** solute concentration

Define "Hypotonic"

**Lower** solute concentration | (Rhyme: Hypo/Low)

True or False: Cardiac cells can generate action potentials on their own, independent of the nervous system.

True

Which type of junction is present in cardiac muscles that keep cardiac cells in electrical continuity with one another?

Gap Junctions They can pass their Action Potentials to adjacent cells.

Where are the pacemaker cells located? (2 locations)

Sinoatrial and Atrioventricular Nodes (SA and AV Nodes)

Which direction will the affinity curve shift with these circumstances: Lower CO2 Higher pH Lower Temperature

Left Shift Higher Hb-O2 affinity

Which direction will the affinity curve shift with these circumstances: Higher CO2 Lower pH Higher Temperature

Right Shift Reduced Hb-O2 affinity

Boyle's Law

P1V1=P2V2

Thrombocytes

Platelets

Leukocytes

White Blood Cells: Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils

Name 5 types of Leukocytes

Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils

What does Albumin do?

Maintains osmotic pressure, pH buffering Made by the liver Is a plasma protein (Remember homeless belly example)

What does the suffix "-penia" mean?

Lowered cells

What does the suffix "-cytosis" mean?

Increased number

What does Edema refer to?

Increased fluid in the interstitial cavities.

What is the major function of Fibrinogen?

Clotting

Major function of Immunoglobulins (antibodies)?

Defense

Erythrocytes

Red Blood Cells

What is "lub, dup"?

Lub = AV valves close Dup = Aortic and Pulmonary vavles close

What part of the brain controls water balance and how?

Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary ADH released to retain/reabsorb water and electrolytes. Increases permeability of aquaporins in collecting duct near distal convoluted tubule.

Trace the cascade of events when blood sodium is high.

Heart secretes ANH (atrial natiuretic hormone) --\> ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) --\> Kidneys excrete sodium and water in urine. Remember, water follows Na+ (sodium)

Trace the cascade of events when blood sodium is low.

Kidneys secrete renin into blood --\> renin to angiotensinogen --\> angiotensin I --\> angiotensin II (conversion in lungs..) which constricts blood vessels (arteries) and and stimulates --\> Adrenal Cortex releases Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption in nephron --\> Kidneys reabsorb Na+ and water distal tubules to increase blood volume and pressure.

True or False: Calcitonin works on the Distal Convoluted Tubule to excrete Ca2+

True

True or False: PTH (parathyroid hormone) works on the Distal Convoluted Tubule to reabsorb Ca2+

True

What do Chief Cells and Parietal Cells secrete?

Pepsinogen and HCl. Pepsinogen is inactive until it combines with HCl to for **pepsin**. Pepsin breaks down proteins.

What do enteroendocrine cells do?

Release **Gastrin** hormone which stimulates secretion of gastric juices.

The pancreas releases _______ when stimulated by ________ from the duodenum.

Bicarbonate ions and digestive enzymes (**Lipase**) Secretin

The gallbladder releases _______ when stimulated by ________ from the duodenum.

Bile (Stored from liver, used for emulsification of fats) CCK

What is ghrelin?

Ghrelin, the "**hunger hormone**", also known as lenomorelin, is a peptide hormone produced by ghrelinergic cells in the gastrointestinal tract which functions as a neuropeptide in the central nervous system. Besides regulating appetite, ghrelin also plays a significant role in regulating the distribution and rate of use of energy.

What is leptin?

Leptin, "the hormone of energy expenditure", is a hormone predominantly **made by adipose cells** that helps to regulate energy balance by **inhibiting hunger**. Leptin is opposed by the actions of the hormone ghrelin, the "hunger hormone". Both hormones act on receptors in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus.

True or False: Alpha diversity is a **quantitative** measure.

True ## Footnote *Numbers*

True or False: Beta diversity is a **qualitative** measure of how related microbes present in one sample are to other samples.

True \*The closer, the more similar.

Outline the basic, nonspecific immune response.

1. Bacteria and other pathogens enter a wound. 2. Mast cells (also, dendritic cells = antigen presenting cell) release histamine that increases blood flow (causing redness and heat) and makes blood vessels leaky (causing swelling). 3. Immune system cells in the tissue release chemical messengers called **cytokines** that bind to and recruit phagocytes in nearby blood vessels. 4. Phagocytes enter the infected site from the blood and remove pathogens by phagocytosis.

What is an epitope?

An epitope, also known as antigenic determinant, is the **part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system**, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells. For example, the epitope is the specific piece of the antigen to which an antibody binds.

What is the difference between memory cells and plasma cells?

Memory cells generate a secondary antibody response – a much stronger response of immunity. Therefore, these cells have the **longest lifespan out of all B cells**. Memory B cells circulate throughout the body. Plasma cells are completely proliferated (activated) B cells. These cells produce **larger quantities of antibodies** against specific pathogens. B cells differentiate into plasma cells as a result of B cell activation upon exposure to particular antigens. This process of plasma cell production is the final stage of B cell proliferation.

What exactly do antibodies do?

1. **Neutralization** via disallowing a virus or toxic protein to bind to its target site. 2. **Opsonization** - tags pathogen so it can be consumed by macrophage or neutrophil. 3. **Complement activation** - antibody attaches to surface of pathogen which activates the complement system \*Antibodies activate cascades and flag cells for phagocytosis

Compare the results for thyroid tumors and glioblastoma tumors. Which tumors have more mutations on average? A. Thyroid B. Glioblastoma C. They are roughly the same

B. Glioblastoma

Compare the results for thyroid tumors and glioblastoma tumors. Which tumors vary more in mutation number? A. Thyroid B. Glioblastoma C. They are roughly the same

A. Thyroid

Let’s assume there are about 6 total mutations that accumulate in a cellafter 20 rounds of division. How does your answer to the previous question compare to the data for thyroid tumors shown here? A. It’s pretty similar (within an order of magnitude) B. It’s totally different (more than 10x different) C. There’s no way to say from these data

B. It’s totally different (more than 10x different)

Let’s say that there are 0.5 mutations per megabase in thepatient’s thyroid tumor. What is the approx. mutation rate? A. 10-6 B. 10-7 C. 10-8 D. 10-9

C. 10-8 ## Footnote That’s 100 times higher than themutation rate for healthy cells!

The new data added below shows the source of mutations for each kind of tumor. What is the most prominent source of mutations in glioblastoma tumors? A. Ultraviolet light B. BRCA1/2 mutations C. Tobacco smoke/products D. CpG deamination

D. CpG deamination

Suppose two patients have inherited mutated copies of BRCA1 and have developed breast cancer. You collect tumor samples from each patient and look at the mutations. True or False: These tumors will have mostly the same mutations.

False

True or False: The majority of tumor mutations occur in protein-coding regions of the genome.

False

Consider the single-stranded DNA template below. Which of the following primers would allow you to sequence this piece of DNA? 5’-ACCACTAACGTCAGT-3’ A. 5’-ACTGAC-3’ B. 5’-GTCAGT-3’ C. 5’-AGTGGT-3’

A. 5’-ACTGAC-3’

True or False: The same primer could be used to sequence all of the DNA fragments shown here.

False ## Footnote All of these fragments have different nucleotide sequences!

The three DNA fragments below are about tobe sequenced using the primer 5’-CCGGG-3’.How many different sequencing reads will be recorded by this sequencing reaction? A.1 B.2 C.3 D.More than 3 E. No way to know

B.2

The three DNA fragments below are about tobe sequenced using the primer 5’-CCGGG-3’.What is the 4th nucleotide in the sequencing read for first DNA fragment below? A. A B. T C. C D. G

A. A

How many different sequences are represented in this dataset? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 or more

B. 2

Which of the following sequences is (are) represented in this dataset? A. 5’-CCGGTA-3’ B. 5’-CGGGTA-3’ C. Both of these D. Neither of these

D. Neither of these Remember: DNA synthesis occurs 5’ to 3’

True or False: Small mutations are usually found in the protein-coding regions of the genome.

False

You sequenced a tumor genome and a healthy tissue genome. You find that there are twice as many reads mapping to a region on chromosome 18 for the tumor sample versus the healthy cell sample. Which of the following is most consistent with this observation? A. The tumor has a deletion in chromosome 18 B. The tumor has a duplication in chromosome 18 C. The tumor has an inversion in chromosome 18 D. The tumor has a translocation between chromosome 18 and another chromosome E. None of the above; this must be an experimental error

B. The tumor has a duplication in chromosome 18

You sequenced a tumor genome and have identified an interesting sequence read. The first half of this read maps to a region of chromosome 3 in the reference genome and the second half of the same read maps to a region of chromosome 20 of the reference genome. Which of the following is most consistent with this observation? A. The tumor has deletions in chromosomes 3 and 20 B. The tumor has duplications in chromosomes 3 and 20 C. The tumor has inversions in chromosomes 3 and 20 D. The tumor has a translocation between chromosome 3 and chromosome 20 E. None of the above; this must be an experimental error

D. The tumor has a translocation between chromosome 3 and chromosome 20

True or False: This tumor has more rearrangements in chromosome 10 than in chromosome 20

False

True or False: ## Footnote There is a sequencing read from this tumor genome that maps to both chromosome 17 and chromosome 9 of the reference genome.

True

True or False: This tumor probably has an extra copy of chromosome 8.

False

Which tumor has more chromosomal rearrangements? A. Tumor 1 B. Tumor 2 C. They are about the same D. Not enough information

A. Tumor 1

Which tumor has more SNPs? A. Tumor 1 B. Tumor 2 C. They are about the same D. Not enough information

D. Not enough information

Which tumor has more chromosomal deletions? A. Tumor 1 B. Tumor 2 C. They are about the same D. Not enough information

B. Tumor 2

How many exons are in this gene model? A. 9 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5 E. None of the above

B. 7

In which exon does the open reading frame start? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of the above

C. 3

The DNA sequence shown comes from part of the TP53 gene. It encodes the last amino acids of the p53 protein, which is normally 393 amino acids long. The bracketed codon indicates the correct reading frame of this gene. The lower strand of the gene is used as the template during the transcription of mRNA from this gene. ...**TTC**AAGACAGAAGGGCCTGACTCAGACTGACATTCTCC-3’ ...AAGTTCTGTCTTCCCGGACTGAGTCTGACTGTAAGAGG–5’ Which stop codon is used for this gene? A. UAA B. UAG C. UGA

...TTCAAGACAGAAGGGCCTGACTCAGAC**TGA**CATTCTCC-3’ ...AAGTTCTGTCTTCCCGGACTGAGTCTGACTGTAAGAGG–5’ C. UGA

The HER2 protein is a type of epidermal growth factor receptor, which when activated promotes cell proliferation. What type of gene is HER2? A. Proto-oncogene B. Tumor suppressor gene

A. Proto-oncogene

What type of loss of function mutations could lead to over expression of the HER2 protein? A. A mutation in the HER2 promoter. B. A mutation in the coding region of the HER2 gene. C. A mutation in a gene for the HER2 repressor protein. D. A mutation in the enhancer region of the HER2 gene.

C. A mutation in a gene for the HER2 repressor protein.

What type of gain of function mutations could lead to over expression of the HER2 protein? A. A mutation in the HER2 promoter. B. A mutation in the coding region of the HER2 gene. C. A mutation in a gene for the HER2 repressor protein. D. A mutation in the enhancer region of the HER2 gene.

A. A mutation in the HER2 promoter. D. A mutation in the enhancer region of the HER2 gene.

What type of mutations would most likely lead to a loss of function of the HER2 protein? A. Silent mutations in the HER2 ligand binding domains B. Missense mutations in the gene coding regions for the intracellular tyrosine residues. C. In-frame insertion mutations in the HER2 membrane spanning region D. In-frame deletion mutations in the HER2 membrane spanning region

B. Missense mutations in the gene coding regions for the intracellular tyrosine residues.

A common HER2+ cancer therapy drug (Herceptin) utilizes a protein that inhibits the activation of the receptor tyrosine kinase HER2. Which of the following is most likely the function of the Herceptin protein? A. A protein that binds the intracellular portion of the HER2 protein dimers B. A protein that prevents the dimerization HER2 proteins C. A protein that competitively binds the HER2 promoter D. A protein that competitively binds the HER2enhancer

B. A protein that prevents the dimerization HER2 proteins

True or False: ## Footnote Increased circulating estrogen can activate cell proliferation in HER2+/ER+ cancer cells

True

A common ER+ cancer therapy drug (Tamoxifen) Inhibits the activation of estrogen receptor. Which of the following is most likely NOT the function of the Tamoxifen? A. A molecule that tags the estrogen receptor for degradation. B. A competitive agonist to estrogen receptors. C. A competitive antagonist to estrogen receptors. D. A molecule that binds to estrogen receptor mRNA and prevents translation.

B. A competitive agonist to estrogen receptors.

True or False: ## Footnote Males and females both exhibit constant estrogen hormone levels

False

True or False: ## Footnote During the ovarian and menstrual cycles, females exhibit rapid proliferation of cells in breast and uterine tissues.

True ## Footnote Binding of estrogen and progesterone to their receptors stimulates tissue growth i.e. cell division. Binding of estrogen outside of normal cycles causes cells to continue to divide and can result in tumors.

True or False: Aromatase inhibitors would reduce the proliferation of HER2+/ER+ cancer cells.

True ## Footnote Reduced amount of circulating estrogen will reduce the activation of estrogen receptors in all ER2+ breast cancer

In order to metastasize, cancer cells must break away from the tissue they were originally associated with. Loss of function of which of the following adhesions would most likely allow cancer cells to metastasize? A. Adherens junctions B. Gap junctions C. Hemidesmosomes D. Tight junctions

A. Adherens junctions

If you wanted to study how an E-cadherin mutation relates to the progression and metastasis of cancer in humans, which model organism could you use? Discuss with a neighbor and justify you selection. A. Yeast B. Worm C. Fly D. Zebrafish E. Mice

E. Mice

Consider the genome browser data associated with TP53. Do any of these tracks provide biochemical evidence for functionality? A. Track A – Layered H3K27Ac histone acetylation B. Track B – Conservation among 100 vertebrates C. Track C – Conservation among selected vertebrates D.More than one of the above E. None of the above

A. Track A – Layered H3K27Ac histone acetylation

Which arrow points to a transcribed region of the genome?

Which arrow points to a region of the genome with functionality supported by biochemical evidence?

Consider the genome browser data associated with TP53. Do any of these tracks provide genetic evidence for functionality? A. Track A – Layered H3K27Ac histone acetylation B. Track B – Conservation among 100 vertebrates C. Track C – Conservation among selected vertebrates D.More than one of the above E. None of the above

E. None of the above

You are studying the function of two different noncoding regions of the genome. You conduct a reporter assay to test how these regions affect expression of GFP and you obtain the results shown below. Which of the following is an appropriate control for this experiment? A. Region 1 serves as the control B. Region 2 serves as the control C. Testing a third region (Region 3) would serve as the control D. Testing GFP expression for the GFP gene alone would serve as the control E. What is a control?

D. Testing GFP expression for the GFP gene alone would serve as the control

You are studying the function of two different noncoding regions of the genome. You conduct a reporter assay to test how these regions affect expression of GFP and you obtain the results shown below. Which region(s) is (are) supported by genetic evidence of functionality? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Both Region 1 and 2 D. Neither Region 1 nor 2

A. Region 1

Which CRM(s) are supported by biochemical, genetic, and evolutionary evidence of functionality? A. CRM A B. CRM B C. CRM C D. More than one E. None of them

C. CRM C Follow-up: Why might you see different evidence for the three different CRMs?

Which of the approaches to evaluating functionality may depend on the particular state or identity of a cell? A. Biochemical approach B. Evolutionary approach C. Genetic approach D. More than one of the above E. None of the above

A. Biochemical approach C. Genetic approach D. More than one of the above

The GATA1 binding data shown here was measured in adult blood cells. CRM B is an enhancer for HBG1 and HBG2. How would you expect GATA1 binding to CRM B to compare in fetal blood cells compared to adult blood cells? A. Higher B. Lower C. About the same

A. Higher

True or False: ## Footnote All protein-coding regions of the genome have genetic, evolutionary, and biochemical evidence supporting their function.

False

The percentage of the genome supported by evolutionary and genetic evidence is _______ the percentage of the genome supported by high biochemical evidence. A. Greater than B. Less than C. About the same as

B. Less than

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of intracellular tyrosine amino acid residues are required for RTK activation.

Auto-phosphorylation

HER family genes are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases. When they bind their signal, they stimulate cell growth and division.

The _______ is a type of epidermal growth factor receptor.

HER2 protein

True or False: 80% of all breast cancers are estrogen receptor positive.

True Some HER2+ breast cancers positively correlates with increased estrogen receptors (ER+). **An increase in the amount of estrogen receptors and their activation, leads to increased cell proliferation**

True or False: Increased circulating estrogen can activate cell proliferation in HER2+/ER+ cancer cells

True

True or False: Tamoxifen and its metabolites are competitive antagonists of the estrogen receptor

True

True or False: Aromatase is responsible for a key step in converting androgens to estrogens in men and women.

True Testosterone ---\> Estradiol Androstenedione ---\> Estrone

True or False: During the ovarian and menstrual cycles, females exhibit rapid proliferation of cells in breast and uterine tissues.

True Binding of estrogen and progesterone to their receptors stimulates tissue growth i.e. cell division. **Binding of estrogen outside of normal cycles causes cells to continue to divide and can result in tumors.**

True or False: Aromatase inhibitors would reduce the proliferation of HER2+/ER+ cancer cells.

True ## Footnote **Reduced amount of circulating estrogen will reduce the activation of estrogen receptors in all ER2+ breast cancer**

True or False: HER2+ breast cancer is metastatic.

True

Biochemical Approach

Measures evidence for molecular activity

Evolutionary Approach

Quantifies selective constraint as a proxy for functionality.

Genetic Approach

Evaluates the phenotypic consequence of genome variations.

Glucose enters the epithelial cells of the small intestine against its concentration gradient. Select the BEST explanation from the following. A. Glucose is co-transported in the Na+/K+ pump. B. Glucose is co-transported with Na+, which moves down its concentration gradient into the cell. C. Glucose is transported through a glucose pump in the apical membrane that hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and Pi. D. Glucose enters by diffusion. E. Glucose follows the water that is pumped into the cell.

B. Glucose is co-transported with Na+, which moves down its concentration gradient into the cell.