LSA, FFE & Emergencies Flashcards
(208 cards)
1
Q
What is a conformity mark?
A
A symbol placed on a product which meets the safety, design and construction standards set down in conventions and codes such as LSA and FFE Codes.
2
Q
You are unsure about the detailed specifications relating to an ISC. Which code would you refer to?
A
The International Code for Fire Safety Systems (FFS Code).
3
Q
Which chapters of SOLAS lay out international requirements for LSA and FFE?
A
- Chapter 2-II- Construction: Fire Protection, Detection and Fire Extinction.
- Chapter 3 - Life Saving Appliances.
4
Q
Which international convention specifies the carriage requirements for life saving appliances?
A
SOLAS.
5
Q
What is the ‘wheelmark’
A
A conformity mark is placed upon equipment that meets the EU’s Marine Equipment Directive.
6
Q
What is ‘type-approval’?
A
When a flag state determines that a piece of equipment meets the standards laid down in relevant codes and conventions.
7
Q
What is the FTP Code?
A
The International Code for Application of Fire Test procedures (FTP Code) sets international requirements for laboratory testing, type-approval and fire test procedures.
8
Q
What is the LSA code?
A
An internationally recognised set of technical requirements for the design, construction and performance of life-saving equipment.
9
Q
What are SOLAS Training Manuals?
A
- LSA and FFE training materials are required to be provided to the crew on all vessels.
10
Q
How many SOLAS Training Manuals must be carried onboard?
A
- One in each crew mess room and recreation space.
(or) - One in each crew cabin.
11
Q
In a general sense, what information is required to be contained in the SOLAS Training Manuals?
A
- Generic guidance on sea survival and firefighting.
- Vessel-specific information about the LSA and FFE carried onboard and their use.
12
Q
What are the SOLAS requirements relating to the carriage of maintenance onboard?
A
All vessels are required to carry maintenance instructions for their LSA and FFE, so that the crew is able to maintain the Readiness of the equipment.
13
Q
The ‘maintenance instructions’ required by SOLAS for LSA and FFE will typically form part of which system required by the ISM Code?
A
PMS.
14
Q
Which vessels does the LSA Code apply to?
A
All vessels.
15
Q
Which party determines the expiration date for each item of LSA?
A
The Administration i.e. Flag State.
16
Q
What is the max time permitted for the total abandonment of a passenger vessel?
A
30 minutes from the abandon Ship Signal.
17
Q
What is the max time permitted for the total abandonment of a cargo vessel?
A
10 minutes from the abandon Ship Signal.
18
Q
What are the lifebuoy Requirements for a passenger vessel?
A
- (under 60m) 8, but no less than 6 with self-igniting lights.
- (60-120m) 12.
- (120-180m) 18.
- (180-240m) 24.
- (over 240m) 30.
19
Q
What are the lifebuoy Requirements for a cargo vessel?
A
- (under 100m) 8.
- (100-150m) 10.
- (150-200m) 12.
- (over200m) 14.
20
Q
What are the four types of lifebuoy that you will find onboard?
A
- Lifebuoys with self-igniting light and self-activating smoke signal.
- Lifebuoys with a buoyant line.
- Lifebuoys without a buoyant line.
21
Q
What is the minimum weight of an MOB lifebuoy found on the Bridge wing?
A
4KG.
22
Q
How often should lifebuoys be inspected?
A
Every week.
23
Q
What signals are attached to an MOB lifebuoy?
A
A self-igniting light and self-activating smoke signal.
24
Q
How many lifebuoys should be equipped with self-igniting lights?
A
At least half of the lifebuoys must be equipped with self- igniting lights.
25
What must marked on each lifebuoy?
The vessel's name and port of registry.
26
How long must the lifebuoy's lifeline be?
Twice the max height from the stowage position to the waterline 30m which ever is greater.
27
What is the key principle for the carriage of lifejackets on all types of vessels?
There must be at least one lifejacket for every person onboard.
Passenger vessels and yachts under the REG A code are required to carry 5% and 10% more respectively.
28
What are the lifejacket carriage requirements which relate to personnel on watch?
A sufficient number of lifejackets should be provided for those on watch and stored on the Bridge, in the Engine room and anywhere else that is permanently manned.
29
What special features are required of infant lifejackets?
- Allow the caretaker to monitor the infants heat loss.
- Protect them from knocks during evacuation.
- Keep them dry.
- Clear respiratory passages and allow the infant to be fastened to a caretaker.
30
What is the difference between a lifejacket and a buoyancy aid?
- Lifejacket is constructed to lift the mouth of an exhausted, unconscious person clear of the water, returning them to a stable face-up position.
- A buoyancy aid will keep a body afloat, but won't prevent the person from resting face down.
31
How long must a lifejacket's light last for once activated?
At least 8 hours.
32
What are you checking during a monthly inspection of a lifejacket?
- Expiry date of the light.
- Signs of wear and tear.
- Functionality of light, whistle and buckles.
(Fit of the lifejackets can be checked during the abandon ship drill.)
33
How often must inflatable lifejackets be serviced?
At least once every twelve months, at an approved service station.
34
Should all immersion suits be worn with a lifejacket?
Most should be worn with a lifejacket but some types do have built-in flotation, which renders a lifejacket unnecessary.
35
What is the purpose of a thermal protective aid?
To retain body heat, protecting the survivor from hypothermia and the effects of cold temperatures. They are intended for use out of the water in survival craft.
36
How often are immersion suits serviced?
Every three years but if they are over 10 years old they must be serviced annually.
37
What would check on a monthly inspection of an immersion suit?
- Markings and signage.
- Visual inspection.
- Storage area.
- Cleanliness.
- Seals, zips and closure devices.
- Retro-reflective tape.
- Storage bag.
- Logs and documentation.
38
How many TPAs is a vessel required to carry?
Each survival suit must carry enough for 10% of its rated capacity, or two, whichever is greater.
39
How many pyrotechnics should be in the inventory of a lifeboat?
- 6 x hand flares.
- 4 x rocket parachute flares.
- 2 x buoyant smoke signals.
40
Which markings would you expect to see on an approval plate?
- Manufacturer's name and address.
- Lifeboat model and serial number.
- Month and year of manufacture.
- Capacity.
- Approval information.
41
How many lifeboats are passenger vessels on long international voyages required to carry?
- Not less than 50% of the total number of persons onboard.
- Can be reduced to no less than 37.5% lifeboats, when substituted by davit-launched liferafts.
42
When would you release a lifeboat 'on-load'
In heavy weather, when it is necessary to time the release of the falls to coincide with the crest of a wave.
43
How often shall a lifeboat be launched and manoeuvred in the water by its assigned operating crew?
Once every 3 months during an abandon ship drill.
44
On cargo vessels, at what frequency should a davit-launched lifeboat be moved from its stowed position?
Weekly.
45
What is the main difference between the annual and five-yearly dynamic winch brake test?
The five-yearly test is conducted with a boat loaded to 1.1 times the weight of the boat and its full complement. The annual one is conducted with he boat empty.
46
How often must a free-fall lifeboat be launched free-fall?
Every six months, however, this may be extended to 12 months with simulated launching every six months.
47
Why should a survival craft be weighed before the fiver yearly load test is carried out?
Lifeboats must be weighed before testing to ensure they match the previously recorded weight and do not exceed the certified production test weight. Water seepage into foam buoyancy, especially form cracked benches or or deteriorated fittings, is a possible cause.
48
What is the purpose of an HRU?
A pressure activated mechanism designed to automatically deploy a liferaft when a vessel sinks.
49
Which vessels are required to have liferafts with SOLAS A Packs?
- Vessel undertaking international voyages.
- Pack B is intended for vessels that are engaged on short international and domestic voyages.
50
What markings would you expect to find on a liferaft's container?
Manufacturer's name.
Serial number.
Name of approving authority.
Date of manufacture.
Capacity.
Launching instructions.
SOLAS approval mark.
Length of painter.
Type of emergency pack (SOLAS A or B).
51
How often should liferafts be serviced?
Liferafts must be serviced by an approved service provider at intervals not exceeding 12 months.
52
To what must a liferaft's painter be secured when stowed?
The liferaft's painter must only ever be secured to the weak link of the HRU arrangement.
53
What are the four key steps to be taken once embarked in a liferaft?
Cut.
Stream.
Close.
Maintain.
54
Between what depths does a standard, yellow HRU activate?
Between 1.5m to 4m.
55
What is found inside the red tube which is affixed to each liferaft's container?
The tube contains an information card with space for the vessel's name, call sign, IMO number and flag state to be recorded. It must be updated to reflect the details of the vessel on which it is fitted.
56
What is the significance of a green HRU?
It is not SOLAS approved.
57
What is the major difference between SOLAS A & B Packs
SOLAS B Packs do not contain food or water rations and have fewer flares.
58
What is the significance of the 'weak link' on an HRU?
The weak link is the securing point for the painter when a liferaft is stowed. It is strong enough to trigger the inflation of the liferaft if the vessel sinks but will then break, allowing the inflated liferaft to rise to the surface.
59
How many rescue boats are cargo vessels required to carry?
Every cargo vessel over 500gt must carry at least one rescue boat.
60
How many fast-rescue boats must Ro-Ro and Ro-Pax vessels carry?
One rescue boat on each side of the vessel, one of which shall be a fast rescue boat.
61
How often should rescue boats be launched?
So far as practicable at least once per month, but not more than three months.
62
Can crew conduct the annual thorough inspection?
No. There must be a representative from an authorised service provider present.
63
When launching a rescue boat, is the hook or painter released first?
The hook. It is extremely dangerous to release the painter before the hook.
64
What are the carriage requirements for rescue boats on passenger vessels over 500gt?
Passenger vessels of 500gt and over shall carry at least one rescue boat on each side of the ship.
65
What load is required during the 5 year dynamic load test?
1.1 x weight of boat with full complement and equipment.
66
What are the key differences between a rescue boat and a fast rescue boat?
Primarily, a fast rescue boat is just faster; it is required to do 20kts rather than 6kts. They are also required to be able to self-right, self-bail, have a wheel for steering, and a fixed VHF unit.
67
What are the three types of pyrotechnic found onboard?
- Rocket parachute flares.
- Hand flares.
- Buoyant smoke floats.
68
How would you use a rocket parachute flare?
- Read the instructions.
- Remove the cover from the firing cord.
- Holding the flare at arm's length, point it downwind and away from people.
- Look away and pull the toggle.
- Dispose of the used flare responsibly.
69
What are the minimum carriage requirements for rocket parachute flares on the Bridge?
12
70
What are the minimum carriage requirements for line throwing devices?
Every vessel must be able to throw four lines. This may be four separate launchers or one launcher with four charges.
71
How should expired pyrotechnics be disposed of?
Expired pyrotechnics should be removed from service and disposed of ashore at approved service stations and designated ports and harbours.
72
How many hand flares are in lifeboats?
6
73
How long must the smoke last on a buoyant smoke float?
At least three minutes.
74
What class of dangerous goods are pyrotechnics?
Class 1 - Explosives.
75
How often should you inspect pyrotechnics?
Monthly.
76
What are you checking for during the monthly checks of pyrotechnics?
- Correct quantity.
- Expiry dates.
- Condition of storage and casing.
- Instructions are clear and readable.
77
Can embarkation ladders and pilot ladders be used interchangeably?
No. Pilot ladders have strict safety requirements which embarkation ladders do not meet.
78
What is the standard length of an embarkation ladder?
There isn’t a standard length. Each ladder should be of a suitable length extending from the deck to the waterline, allowing for the vessel to have a trim of up to 10 degrees and an adverse list of 20 degrees.
79
In the context of embarkation ladders, what is a CMD?
A CMD is a Controlled Means of Descent. These are alternative arrangements which may be approved instead of embarkation ladders.
80
What markings would you expect to see on an MES?
- Maker's name or trademark.
- Serial number.
- Date of manufacture.
- Name of approving authority.
- Name and place of the last service station, along with the date of service.
- Capacity of the system.
81
What are the two main types of MES?
The slide system and the chute system.
82
How often should an MESs be deployed for testing?
Each MES should be deployed on a rotational basis so that each MES is deployed at least once every six years.
83
Can MES replace lifeboats on passenger vessels?
No. They can only replace the liferafts required to be carried onboard.
84
How is an MES different from a normal liferaft?
The contain an integrated chute or slide system which enables crew and passengers to board to deployed system from the embarkation deck.
85
What is the General Alarm signal?
Seven or more short blasts followed by a single long blast.
86
How often must the Public Address system and General Alarm be tested?
Once per week.
87
Which vessels are required to be fitted with a Public Address system?
- All passenger vessels.
- Cargo vessels of 500gt or more.
- REG Code (Part A) yachts of 85m or more in length.
88
Which vessels are required to be fitted with a General Alarm?
All vessels.
89
Why are 'sound-powered telephones' commonly fitted onboard vessels?
They fulfil the requirement in SOLAS for two-way communications between key areas of the vessel, and also work when the vessel is without power.
90
What are the three sides of the fire triangle?
- Heat.
- Fuel.
- Oxygen.
(A chemical chain reaction is sometimes considered a fourth element.)
91
What are the four stages of a fire?
- Ignition.
- Growth.
- Fully Developed.
- Decay.
92
What class is a wood fire?
Class A.
93
Does electrical fires have a class?
No. Electricity is a cause of fire but not a classification in itself.
94
What class is a petrol fire?
Class B.
95
What class is a vegetable oil fire?
Class F.
96
What is a Class C fire?
Flammable gases.
97
What is a Class D fire?
Combustible metals.
98
Where would you find the details of the general fire arrangements?
The Fire Control Plan.
99
What is the purpose of a structural fire division?
Structural fire divisions confine the spread of flame, smoke and heat.
100
What will an A-60 division stop and for how long?
It will prevent the spread of smoke and flames for one hour and also prevent the temperature of the unexposed side exceeding 140°C, with joints not exceeding 180°C, for 60 minutes.
101
What will a B-15 division stop and for how long?
It will prevent the spread of flames for 30 minutes and also prevent the temperature of the unexposed side exceeding 140°C, with joints not exceeding 225°C for 15 minutes.
102
What are the requirements relating to Group C fire divisions found on a vessel?
They do not need to meet any of the requirements relating to the passage of smoke and flame, nor relating to insulation, although they are required to be made of non-combustible materials.
103
What is a manual call point?
A wall-mounted unit, normally with a plastic cover, that when broken or operated, activates the alarm system.
104
How long will it take for a fire alarm to sound if the control panel is not acknowledged?
If not acknowledged at the control station within two minutes, a fire alarm will be sounded throughout crew accommodation and service spaces. This is sometimes referred to as a 'Tilbury Alarm'.
105
How often must a detector be inspected?
Once a year, although some Administrations permit passengers vessels to complete these rolling tests on a five-year basis.
106
What are the three key types of fire detector?
- Smoke.
- Heat.
- Flame.
107
On which vessels are fire patrols required to be maintained?
Passenger vessels with over 36 passengers.
108
Are lifts considered to be a means of escape?
No. Lifts are not considered to be a means of escape.
109
How many EEBDs must be available on cargo vessel accommodation spaces?
A minimum of 2.
110
If a passenger vessel has 7 vertical fire zones, how many EEBDs would it carry onboard?
14. Two in each zone.
111
Which components must be kept on board with the connection?
- A gasket of any material suitable for 1.0N/mm2 services
- 4 bolts of 16mm diameter and 50mm in length.
- 4 16mm nuts.
- 8 washers.
112
Which vessels are required to carry an International Shore Connection?
All vessels >500gt.
113
How often should the international shore connection be inspected?
Weekly.
114
When will an extinguisher need recharging?
After use and if it loses 10% or more of its initial mass.
115
What is the required capacity of a CO2 extinguisher?
At least 5kg.
116
Which class of fire can a fire blanket be used on?
Class F fires – Fats or cooking oils
117
What can you not use a wet chemical extinguisher on?
Flammable liquids, flammable metals, and live electric equipment.
118
When should a visual inspection of a fire extinguisher be conducted.
Once per month.
119
Can crew service fire extinguishers?
Under supervision of someone holding STCW II/2 or III/2 unlimited certificate of competency and an Advanced Fire Fighting certificate.
120
What fire classes can dry powder be used on?
Class A, B & C
121
What is the purpose of an isolation valve?
The purpose of the isolation valve is to separate the fire main within the machinery space containing the main fire pump or pumps from the fire main.
122
What is the maximum permitted length of fire hose in a machinery space?
15m
123
How many fire pumps are required on passenger vessels >4000gt?
3
124
How many fire pumps are required on cargo vessels >1000gt?
2
125
How many fire pumps are required on cargo vessels >1000gt?
Not less than five?
126
What are the weekly checks that should be carried out for Nozzles, hoses and hydrants.
- During a weekly inspection, check that all IMO signage is in good condition and in the correct place.
- Check that all hoses and nozzles are in the correct places as per the fire control plan.
127
What are the monthly checks that should be carried out for Nozzles, hoses and hydrants.
- Check that all hoses and nozzles are in the correct place and are in a good condition.
- Hydrants should be a serviceable condition and must be checked for operation.
- Operate all fire pumps to ensure that they are able to supply adequate pressure.
128
What are the annual checks that should be carried out for Nozzles, hoses and hydrants.
Pressure test a sample of hoses throughout the year at maximum main pressure to ensure that all fire hoses are pressure tested within 5 years.
129
How often must fire hoses be hydrotested?
Once every five years.
130
How does an IG system work?
Water pumps fill the deck seal and the scrubber with sea water.
- 2. Boiler exhaust gases travel from the up take through to the scrubber unit via uptake valves
- 3. Within the scrubber, the gas is cleaned, cooled, and dried. Simultaneously, the water in the system is recirculated until the oxygen level is below 5%.
- 4. Blower outlet valves regulate the amount of inert gas sent to the deck, while the pressure is controlled by a pressure regulating valve. If the pressure drops below the set point, the system will adjust the valves to maintain the desired pressure.
- 5. Oxygen analsyers fitted after the blowers continuously analyse the oxygen content, sounding the alarm if the levels exceed 8%.
- 6. Before entering the deck, the inert gas passes through the deck water seal, which prevents gas from returning back into the system.
- 7. Tank supply valves regulate the delivery of inert gas into the system.
- 8. If the pressure inside the cargo tank exceeds a certain level, the P/V breaker (pressure-vacuum breaker) will allow excess vapor to escape. Conversely, if the pressure in the tank drops too low, the P/V breaker prevents air from entering the tank and disturbing the inert atmosphere.
- 9. Additional pressure is relieved via the mast riser, which is covered by a flame arrestor to prevent the transmission of flame (if ignition were to take place)
131
What is a gas-free condition?
flammable vapour is less than 1% of the lower flammable limit (LFL), and the oxygen content is at least 21%, with no toxic gases present.
132
What are the 3 sources of inert gas?
- Main or auxiliary boilers
- Oil or gas-fired generator.
- Nitrogen generators.
133
What is the purpose of the deck seal?
The deck seal prevents gases from returning back to the cargo tanks.
134
What is the oxygen content limit of inert gas?
8% by volume.
135
Which vessels are required to have an inert gas system?
Tankers of 20,000 DWT or more, constructed on or after 1 July 2002 but before 1 January 2016.
Tankers of 8,000 DTW or more constructed on or after 1 January 2016.
All tankers operating with crude oil washing.
136
What is the purpose of inert gas?
- Inert gas contains insufficient oxygen to support combustion.
- used to create a controlled and safe atmosphere within enclosed cargo holds and fuel tanks carrying flammable substances.
137
Which vessels must have fixed deck foam systems?
Crude oil, chemical, and petroleum tankers transporting cargo with a flash point below 60°C
138
Who onboard is able to authorize the use of Fixed CO2 systems?
The Master and the Chief Engineer.
139
What are the two types of foam used in fixed systems?
- Aqueous film-forming foam concentrate (AFFF).
- Alcohol-resistant Aqueous film forming foam concentrate (AR-AFFF)
140
Why would you start the emergency generator when activating a fixed CO2 system?
To provide a source of energy. Flooding the space with CO2 requires all machinery to be stopped, including the generators.
141
What must happen before releasing a CO2 system?
If safe, all persons must be evacuated from the space.
142
What fixed system can be fitted to Cat A Machinery spaces on passenger and cargo vessels?
- Fixed gas system.
- Fixed foam system.
- Fixed water mist/sprinkler system.
143
How often should foam be tested in fixed systems?
Once per year.
144
All vessels should carry at least 2 firefighter outfits. How many more should tankers carry?
Tankers should carry an additional 2 outfits.
145
How many firefighters outfits should a passenger vessel carry?
2 for every 80m of the vessel.
146
Should an EEBD be used for entry into a hazardous space?
No, they are only used as a means of escape.
147
When testing a SCBA set, when would you expect to hear the low-pressure alarm/whistle?
When the pressure reaches 50-60 bar.
148
Can you use an SCBA for enclosed space rescue?
Yes – SCBAs are not just for firefighting, they must also be used during an enclosed space rescue.
149
What does SCBA stand for?
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus.
150
What is the interval for inspecting all fire-fighters outfits an equipment?
Monthly.
151
How many EEBD's are required on cargo vessels?
At least two.
152
How many EEBD's are required on passenger vessels?
Four per vertical zone.
153
What is the Bridge Teams/Operational Command Teams role when dealing with a fire?
Led by the Master, the duty of the team is to lead and coordinate all firefighting and rescue efforts, and to maintain a clear record of events.
154
What is the Fire Party's role when dealing with a fire?
The duty of the fire attack teams is to suppress, control, and extinguish the fire if possible, rescue any injured or trapped individuals, and provide details on the fire itself. Crew members in this team must have advanced STCW training to perform their roles effectively. The teams are usually led by the Chief Mate, who acts as the fire team leader, while a competent person is responsible for the BA control board.
155
What is the Support Teams role when dealing with a fire?
Reporting to the Fire Team Leader, the support team will be staged away from the fire, providing additional manpower and assisting all teams as required. Duties may include:
Fire investigation (only for the purpose of looking for signs of fire, with immediate retreat if smoke and/or heat are detected)
Preparing hoses and hydrants.
Closing flaps and ventilation.
Recharging SCBA bottles.
Boundary cooling.
Assisting the medical response team.
Search and rescue in low-risk areas.
On command from the Master, preparing lifeboats and rafts.
156
How often should a security drill be carried out?
Once every three months or within one week after a 25% crew change.
157
How can realistic scenarios enhance the effectiveness of drills and training?
Realistic scenarios improve crew preparedness, decision-making, and response in actual emergency situations.
158
How often must abandon ship drills be conducted?
On cargo vessels, each crewmember must participate monthly. On passenger vessels, drills must be held weekly and each crewmember must participate monthly. An additional drill must be conducted within 24h of leaving port if >25% of the crew has changed.
159
Where can you find details of the drill requirements onboard UK vessels?
MGN 71.
160
How often must a rescue boat drill be conducted?
On all vessels, as far as possible every month but at least once every three months. Additionally, on passenger vessels, rescue boat crews should be mustered on the first day of the voyage and at least weekly thereafter.
161
What is a drill matrix?
It is a structured schedule or table used to plan, track, and document various types of drills and training exercises conducted. It typically includes information such as the type of drill, frequency, date of the drill, participants, and any observations or outcomes.
162
What aspects should be covered in a debrief after a drill?
A debrief should discuss the drill's objectives, performance, areas of improvement, lessons learned and any necessary updates to procedures or future training plans.
163
What is the current edition of the Bridge Procedures Guide?
It is in its 6th edition.
164
Which volume of IAMSAR is required to be carried onboard?
IAMSAR Volume III.
165
What is the purpose of the MFAG?
It is designed to aid in medical emergencies related to dangerous goods.
166
Where can you find emergency checklists?
The SMS and Bridge Procedures guide.
167
What code requires vessels to have emergency plans and procedures?
The ISM code.
168
What chapter of SOLAS requires vessel to implement the ISM code?
SOLAS Chapter IX - Management for the Safe Operation of Ships.
169
What is the minimum information would you expect to find on a muster list?
- Alarms and signals.
- General instructions for emergency response.
- Duties.
- Substitutes.
- Abandon ship duties.
170
When should muster lists be updated?
Upon crew changes and alterations and before the vessel proceeds to sea.
171
What is the alarm signal for MOB?
Three long blast on the vessels whistle and internal alarm system.
172
What is the general alarm signal?
Seven short blasts followed by 1 long blast on the vessels whistle.
173
Which guide can you refer to for more information on handling substance-specific fires?
The EmS guide within the IMDG Code.
174
A fire in the main engine compartment has grown out of control, which fixed fire suppression system could be used?
A Fixed CO2 system.
175
Who should a fire be report to for investigation purposes?
The Marine Accident Investigation Branch (MAIB)
176
You are on watch and one fire detector is activated, what do you do?
Send someone to investigate and utilise CCTV when possible.
177
If you have missing persons or incomplete muster, should you shutdown ventilation?
No. In general continued ventilation removes smoke and toxic gasses, allowing people to escape.
178
Which situations may cause the Master to decide to abandon ship?
- Fires that cannot be extinguished by the vessel’s fire-fighting system, or those that may lead to explosion.
- Severe flooding leading to sinking.
- Collision.
- Capsizing.
- Grounding with no possibility of refloating.
179
What are the 3 means of communications that must be carried into survival craft?
- EPIRB.
- SART.
- SOLAS radios.
180
How would you know which lifeboat you are allocated to?
Your lifeboat allocation will be on the Muster list.
181
You are on a small cargo vessel with 10 crew. How many liferafts would you deploy?
As many as safely possible. The most liferafts in the water, the higher the visibility and chances of being rescued.
182
Your vessel has a main engine failure, what navigation lights would you display?
Not Under command (2 all-round red lights in a vertical line).
183
What other emergencies could a main engine failure lead to?
Grounding and collision.
184
What are the Initial actions as an OOW in a steering gear failure?
- Call the Master.
- If in use, disengage the autopilot.
- Engage an alternate means of steering if present.
- Use alternate/emergency steering gear pump.
- If issue does not resolve, commence with the emergency steering procedure. Make an announcement as required.
- If safe, take all way off the engines.
- Close all watertight doors.
185
What are the signs of a steering gear failure (not including alarms)?
- The failure to maintain a planned track.
- Unexpected drifting not caused by tides and currents.
186
What are the Initial actions as an OOW in a collision?
- Call the Master.
- Sound the general alarm and continue to maintain the watch.
- Stop engines, but do not attempt to manoeuvre away from the other vessel.
- Close all watertight and automatic fire doors.
- Turn on deck lighting, as appropriate.
187
Why might is not be prudent to attempt to separate two vessels which have collided?
One vessel may be acting as a ‘plug’ in the other, preventing the ingress of water and maintaining stability.
188
Which alarm would you immediately sound if collision was inevitable?
The General Alarm.
189
What are the Initial actions as an OOW in a stranding/grounding?
- Call the Master.
- Sound the general alarm and ensure that all crew have mustered.
- Notify the engine control room.
- Close all watertight doors and automatic fire doors.
- If possible and safe, manoeuvre to keep the vessel as safe as possible.
- Avoid going astern as this can worsen the situation and cause further damage.
- Confirm vessels position by all available means and conduct a chart assessment, identifying nature of the seabed.
190
Why is it important to change engine room intakes from low to high when aground?
To prevent sediment blocking the sea chest and causing the ship to blackout.
191
Why do you want to sound around the vessel when aground?
To identify the shallowest area and verify where the vessel has likely made contact with the seabed.
192
What are the sound signals for a vessel aground >100m in length?
Three distinct strokes (bell), rapid ringing (bell) for 5 secs, three distinct strokes (bell), followed by 5 secs ringing of the gong.
193
What are the Initial actions as an OOW in a flooding/hull damage?
- Call the Master.
- Sound the general alarm and make PA announcement as appropriate.
- Stop the engines until the situation is assessed.
- Disengage autopilot and switch to hand steering.
- Close all watertight and fire doors.
- Call engine room and have them start bilge/ballast pumps to remove water from effected areas, if appropriate.
194
Apart from a direct report/bilge alarm. What can indicate onboard flooding?
- Change in trim.
- Change in list.
- Change in roll period.
- Change in vessel motion.
195
What is the main danger of large scale flooding.
Excessive free surface effect, causing virtual rise in the centre of gravity.
196
What is a blackout?
A total electrical power failure that occurs when there a malfunction of the main generator and alternator.
197
What are some of the essential services that an emergency generator will provide power to?
- All emergency lighting.
- Navigation lights.
- Bridge equipment.
- VHF and GMDSS installations.
- Fixed firefighting systems.
- Fire pumps.
- Bilge pumps.
- Watertight doors.
198
The emergency generator does not automatically start, who is responsible for the manual start?
The closest crew member to the emergency generator. All crew are required to know how to manually start the emergency generator.
199
When a vessel is blacked out, what status should be set in the AIS?
Not under command.
200
What are the responsibilities of a SAR Mission Coordinator?
The SAR Mission Coordinator is responsible for the planning, execution, and coordination of the SAR mission.
201
Who is usually appointed as the On-scene coordinator?
Usually, the first vessel on the scene with assume of role of the OSC.
202
A crew member reports that they have not seen the duty AB in the last 3 hours. He was last seen walking on deck. Which emergency manoeuvre would you use in this case and why?
The Scharnov Turn is appropriate for when time has elapsed between the occurrence and the start of the turn. It covers less distance, saves time and takes the vessel back into her own wake.
203
MOB - Which sound signal will you use and why?
Three prolonged blasts on the ship's whistle to alert other vessels and reassure the person in the water.
204
Searching for person in the water and you are the only vessel on scene. What search pattern.
Expanding square search.
205
To determine the search datum, what factors must be taken into account.
- The last reported position and time,
- Any additional information, e.g. sightings, flares etc.
- Time interval since incident.
- Effect of drift (leeway and current).
206
name some examples of enclosed spaces?
- Cargo holds.
- CO2 compartments.
- Cofferdams.
- FW tanks.
- Engine crankcases.
207
You are passing the opening to an empty tank adjacent to a fully loaded hold and notice a crew member inside struggling to stand up. You have access to an EEBD at the entrance of the tank. Would you enter to help?
No. Immediately raise the alarm, contact the bridge reporting all relevant information, and report to your muster station to prepare for an enclosed space entry. In addition, EEBD's are not to be used for enclosed space entry.
208
Define enclosed space
Enclosed spaces are hazardous areas which are not intended for continuous worker occupation.
