Lymphatics, Immunity, and Respiratory Flashcards
(219 cards)
1
Q
list the three parts of the lymphatic system
A
- Network of lymphatic vessels
- Lymph: fluid in vessels
- Lymph nodes: cleanse lymph
2
Q
Lymphoid organs and tissues include…
A
spleen, thymus, tonsils, and lymph nodes
these house phagocytic cells and lymphocytes
3
Q
the lymphatic system returns what
A
interstitial fluid and leaked plasma proteins back into the blood, about 3L of fluid per day (aka lymph)
4
Q
which direction does lymph flow in?
A
toward the heart, one way only
5
Q
list the lymph VESSELS
A
- lymphatic capillaries
- larger lymphatic vessels
6
Q
list 2 characteristics about lymphatic capillaries
A
- blind ended vessels, very permeable
- take up large molecules that blood capillaries can’t (cell debris, pathogens, etc)
7
Q
what gives lymphatic capillaires their permeability?
A
- minivalves (from overlapping endothelial cells)
2. collagen fibers anchor the minivalves in these vessels - increases volume capacity
8
Q
What are lacteals?
A
specialized lymph capillaries in the intestinal mucosa.
fn: Absorb and deliver digested fat (chyle) to the blood
9
Q
lymph capillaires drain into where?
A
collecting lymphatic vessels (increasingly larger)
10
Q
similarities and differences between lymph capillaries and blood capillaries
A
- similar tunics ( tunica intima, media, externa)
- lymphatic have a thinner wall and more internal valves (due to large vol lymph that must be
- lymphatics more interlinked network
11
Q
name the lymphatic trunks (5)
A
- lumbar
- bronchomediastinal
- subclavian
- jugular trunks
- intestinal trunk
drain into circulatory system by subclavian veins
12
Q
the Right lymphatic duct drains what part of the body?
A
the right upper arm and right side of head and chest
13
Q
The Thoracic duct drains what part of the body?
A
left side of the head, the rest of the body (that the R lymph doesn’t cover)
14
Q
what is cisterna chyli?
A
the origin for the lymphatic ducts (starts out as an enlarged sac in 50% of people)
15
Q
condition in which lymphatic vessels appear as painful red lines under the skin
A
Lymphangitis
caused by inflammation in the larger lymphatic vessels, usually congestion of blood in Vaso Vasora (small blood vessels)
16
Q
lymph modes of transport (5)
A
- Milking action of skeletal muscle
- Pressure changes in thorax during breathing
- Valves to prevent backflow
- Pulsations of nearby arteries
- Contractions of smooth muscle in walls of lymphatics
also low pressure system like the venous system
17
Q
Lymphedema is…
A
severe localized edema, caused by anything that prevents the normal return of lymph to the blood.
18
Q
Lymphadenitis vs Lymphadenosis
A
- Lymphadenitis: painful and enlarged lymph nodes
- Lymphadenosis: enlarged but not painful lymph nodes
19
Q
why do we immobilize an injury?
A
because physical activity increases lymph flow, so if we immobilize, the inflammatory material will stay in the injured area = speeding up healing.
20
Q
Name the immune system cells
A
B cells
T cells
these are supporting cells that make up lymphoid tissue structures, protection against antigens
21
Q
B cell and T cell specific function
A
B cell: produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies
T cells: manage immune response and destroy infected cells
22
Q
what do antibodies do?
A
bind to receptors on an infected cell or pathogen and tag them for destruction or phagocytosis
23
Q
whats one way of testing for dehydration?
A
skin pull test.
Pull the skin on the back of the hand, if the skin returns immediately=good hydration
if there is a lag for the skin to return to position=dehydration
24
Q
Lymphoid cells (not B or T cells)
A
- Macrophages: engulf and destroy substances, activate T cells
- Dendritic Cells: capture antigens, take them to lymph nodes, also activate T cells
-Reticular cells: produce reticular fibers (Stroma: network-like fibers, scaffolding)
25
Lymphoid tissue fn
Houses and provides proliferation sites for lymphocytes and act as surveillance points as macrophages filter through lymph
26
Where do macrophages live?
reticular fibers
27
Types of Lymphoid Organs
1. Diffuse Lymphoid Tissue: loose lymph cells, some reticular fibers - found virtually in every organ, large amounts found in mucous membranes (in the lamina propria)
2. Lypmhoid Follicles (nodules): solid, spheres of tightly packed cells and reticular fibers, have germinal centers (for proliferation)
- isolated aggregations of these found in Peyer's patches in the SI and in the Appendix
28
primary lymphoid organs are areas where...
sites where B and T cells can mature, so thymus and red bone marrow
29
secondary lymphoid organs are areas where...
mature lymphocytes encounter their first antigen and become activated (essentially the activation site)
ex: Nodes, spleen
30
MALT
Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue.
in submucosal membranes of the body, Tonosils, GI tract, Appendix, Peyer's patches, thyroid, eye skin...etc. Keeps pathogens from entering.
31
Lymph node fn
1. cleanse the lymph, "filter"
| 2. location for other immune cell activation, to start the attack against antigens
32
Describe the structure of a lymph node
- various shapes, small in size, typically ~2.5cm
- surrounded by a fibrous capsule
- have trabeculae that divide the capsule into compartments (cortex and medulla)
33
Cortex region of the nodes has
- follicles with germinal centers, B cells
| - deep cortex houses T cells in transit
34
Medulla region of the nodes has
- medullary cords that extend inward from the cortex and contain plasma, B and T cells
- medullary sinuses which have large lymphatic capillaries and macrophages
35
Circulation through the lymph nodes
convex side of node via afferent vessel>subscapular sinus> medullary sinuses> exits on concave side via efferent node
36
___ inhibit viral replication
interferons
37
define opsonization
the process of attaching complement proteins to bacterial cell wall to enhance phagocytosis.
38
___ become antigenic when attached to a larger protein
haptens
39
which of the cells is not an antigen-presenting cell?
T lymphocytes
40
which antibody can cross the placenta?
IgG
41
these cells are responsible for tissue graft rejection
Cytotoxic T cells
42
Buboes is...
inflammation in the lymph nodes. Often pus-filled.
| Bubonic plague was named after its primary feature of swelling of lymph nodes
43
lymph nodes that can be palpated
- inguinal
- axillary
- cervical region (where collecting vessels converge)
- periaortic lymph nodes (drain from gastrointestinal and abdominal organs)
- thoracic lymph nodes
44
Are cancer-infiltrated lymph nodes painful?
no. Lymph nodes can become secondary cancer sites if metastasizing cancer cells are trapped in the node.
45
What is the largest lymphoid organ?
Spleen
46
Spleen function (3)
- site of lymphocyte proliferation
- immune surveillance and response
- cleanses blood of old blood cells and platelets, and debris
- stores components ofr RBC for future use (ie iron)
- may be the site of fetal erythrocyte production
- stores blood platelets and monocytes until needed
typically not palpable, if you can palpate it is enlarged- Splenomegally(from leukemia, infection, cancer)
47
The spleen is encased in what and made up of what
encased in a fibrous capsule, has trabeculae. (if infected- can rupture, spill blood into peritoneal cavity)
Spleen made up of:
-white pulp: mostly lymphocytes, site of immune fn
-red pulp: destroy site of old blood cells and blood pathogens
48
Red pulp is divided into what
splenic cords (of reticular tissue) that separate the splenic sinusoids (venous sinuses)
49
surgical removal of ruptured spleen called
splenectomy. The liver and bone marrow take over spleen's functions. In 12yo or younger, spleen can regenerate if a small part remains.
50
the simples lymphoid organs
tonsils
51
___ form a ring of lymphatic tissue around pharynx
tonsils
52
List the tonsils (4)
- palatine tonsils: posterior oral cavity (largest, most commonly infected)
- lingual tonsils: at base of tongue
- pharyngeal tonsils: aka adenoids, posterior wall of nasopharynx
- tubal tonsils: surround auditory tubes that go into pharynx
53
Tonsil function
to gather and remove pathogens from air or food. Not completely encapsulated, instead the overlying epithelium forms tonsillar crypts, which is where they trap and destroy bacteria
trapping these helps build memory cells against pathogens
54
Peyer's patches function
-destroy bacteria y keeping them from breaching intestinal wall, generate memory lymphocytes
aka aggregated lymphoid nodules. these are under the mucosa in the small intestine
55
Appendix fn
destroy bacteria, generate memory cells. It has a large numer of lymphoid follicles, offshoots the first part of large intesine
56
the bilobed lymphoid organ
The Thymus
57
Thymus fn
site of T cell maturation, largest during childhood (gradually atrophies)
-lobules w outer cortex and inner medulla
58
outer cortex of the thymus fn
contains rapidly dividing lymphocytes and macrophages
59
medulla of thymus fn
has fewer thymic corpuscles are where regulatory T cells develop
60
how does the thymys differ from other lymphoid organs>
- no follicles (bc it has no B cells)
- strictly for T cell maturation (cant directly fight antigens)
- the stroma is made up of epithelial cells (not reticular fibers) helps T cells mature
61
what is the blood thymus barrier?
barrier that keeps immature T lymphocytes isolated, preventing premature activation
62
Overview parts of the immune system
Two intrinsic systems:
| Innate (nonspecific) and Adaptive (specific)
63
lymphatic system function, in terms of immunology
- recover and inspect fluid for pathogens
- activate immune response
- return fluid to the bloodstream
64
immunoglobulins from breast milk
Type A
65
first vs second lines for defense
First: external body membranes, skin and mucous membranes: produce protective chemicals ie skin acidity and lysozyme in saliva, tears
Second: antimicrobial proteins, phagocytes and other cells that prevent the spread of invaders (such as inflammation, NK cells, fever)
66
what is the third line of defense?
the attack of particular foreign substances, the specific defense, it takes longer.
67
which line of defense has pattern recognition receptors that bind to structures in microbes?
second line defense
68
white blood cells that ingest and digest (eat) foreign invaders
Phagocytes
69
most abundant phagocytes, but die fighting; become phagocytic on exposure to infectious material
Neutrophils
70
develop from monocytes and are chief phagocytic cells; most robust phagocytic cell
Macrophages
71
Macrophages bind to what part of the pathogen?
the carbohydrate signature
72
Define Opsonization
the process by which a pathogen is marked with antibodies or complement proteins "opsonins", for destruction by macrophages
73
NK cells attack (list)
- bacteria
- transplanted tissue
- virus infected cells
- cancerous cells
74
definition of antimicrobial proteins
proteins that inhibit the reproduction of microbes
75
Name the two types of antimicrobial proteins
1. Interferons: secreted by infected cells, alerting neighbor cells that they are infected, and activate NK cells and macrophages (# increase when we rest)
2. Complement system: globular proteins, made mainly by the liver, circulate in the blood (inactive) until needed and activated- cause a cascade of processes like inflammation and cytolysis
76
How do NK cells attack and destroy?
- poke holes in plasma membrane (by releasing perforins)
| - secrete protein-degrading enzymes, inducing apoptosis
77
another name for fever
Pyrexia, febrile
78
How do we obtain the best reading for core body temperature?
By measuring rectal temperature
79
Antipyretics are...
fever-reducing medications (aspirin, ibuprofen) they inhibit Prostaglandin E2 synthesis (blood vasodilators)
80
which neurons release Prostaglandin E2?
neurons in the anterior hypothalamus, these raise the set point of body temperature
81
Overview course of a fever (5)
1. infection, pyrogen secretion
2. hypothalamic thermostat set to higher temperature
3. body temp raises (fever onset)
4. body temp ossilates around the new 'set' temp
5. infection ends, set point returns to normal
82
Definition of Inflammation
local defensive response to tissue injury, like trauma or infection
83
list the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation
1. Heat
2. Redness
3. Pain (b/s vessels stretch with swelling)
4. Swelling
5. Restriction of movement
84
Hyperemia definition
increase blood flow to an area
85
Chemicals that increase blood flow
-histamine
-leukotrienes
other cytokines
86
What is neutrophil margination?
when selectins (proteins, adhesion receptors) cause leukocytes to adhere to blood vessel walls (preparing for migration)
87
what is neutrophil diapedesis?
Diapedesis aka emigration, neutrophils flatten and squeeze between endothelial cells, move into interstitial spaces
88
what is chemotaxis?
inflammatory agents that promote neutrophil gathering toward injured area
89
How long after injury do neutrophils accumulate at injury site?
within an hour
90
these cells arrive at injury site after 8-12 hours
monocytes, they become macrophages and work on tissue repair and cleanup
91
What are the two types of immunity?
- Humoral
| - Cellular
92
Cellular immunity is
where lymphocytes directly attack and destroy foreign cells
93
Humoral immunity is
mediated by antibodies (tag cells for destruction, don't directly destroy)
94
Forms of immunity (4)
- natural active: antibody production as a result of exposure
- artificial active: from vaccination
- natural passive: temporary immunity by gifted antibodies (ex: Ab in breastmilk)
- artificial passive: temporary immunity from the injection of antibodies from another animal or person (treatments for rabies tetanus, etc)
95
Definition of antigen
any molecule that triggers an immune response
96
definition of epitope
antigenic determinants, the region of an antigen that gets recognized by the immune system
97
___ release chemicals that stimulate T cell maturation, and the development of surface antigen receptors on T cells
Reticular epithelial cells
98
What are APCs and what do they do?
Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) can be dendritic cells, macrophages, and reticular cells that help T cells recognize antigens, they cannot do it on their own
specific funtion determined by MHC complex
99
MHC complex are what
proteins that display the processed antigen regions so that T cells can recognize them.
These are unique for every individual except for identical twins
100
List the classes of T cells (4)
1. Cytotoxic, aka CD8, aka T killer
2. Helper T(h)
3. Regulatory T(reg), aka Suppressor, aka CD4
4. Memory T(m)
101
Basic, 3-step overview of an immune reaction
1. Antigen recognition
2. antigen presentation
3. attack
102
Overview steps of antigen recognition
- APC recognizes and processes an antigen
- APC migrates to lymph node
- APC presents antigen to T cell
- T cell initiates immune response (activation)
103
Overview steps of T cell activation
- Tc or Th bind to MHC proteins
- T cell binds to APC protein
- T cell double checks that it binds to the foreign antigen
104
Overview steps of antigen attack
- cytotoxic (CD8): directly attack cells, secrete perforins, interferons, etc
- helper Th(humoral and cellular immunity): secrete interleukins to cascade other attacks
Th become memory cells- can launch a quick attack upon re-exposure
105
__ immunity attacks enemy cells directly
Cellular immunity
106
CD4 cells aka
Regulatory, T reg (suppressor)
107
CD8 cells aka
Cytotoxic, T killer
108
Notable things about IgM?
the first Ab made in an immune response, third most common immunoglobulin
the first immunoglobulin to be made by the neonate
109
Humoral response steps (5)
1. B lymphocytes undergo mitosis
2. turn into plasma cells and secrete antibodies
3. Ab exposed to antigems= release IgM
4. Ab travel
5. Ab bind and tag antigens for destruction
110
IgA is found where?
mucus, saliva, tears, milk, interstitial secretions
fn:Prevents pathogens from adhering to epithelia
111
IgD found...
B cell transmembrane antigen receptor
| fn: B cel activation after encountering antigen
112
IgE found...
transmembrane protein on basophils and mast cells
fn: stimulates release of histamines (it is a monomer)
113
IgG found where...
Crosses placenta
fn: it is 80% of circulating Ab, play a big role in response during reexposure
114
IgM found where...
mainly found in lymph and blood.
fn: Secreted in primary immune response, agglutination, complement fixation
115
General Antibody structure (3)
- Two chains: light & heavy
- Variable (V) region: gives Ab its uniqueness
- Antigen-binding site: Constant region (determines Ab action mechanism )
- hinge region
- complement binding site
116
Name the 4 mechanisms of attack against antigens
1. Neutralization: Ab mask pathogenic region on antigen
2. Complement fixation: change shape to allow binding that clears pathogen
3. Agglutination: Ab binds to many sites on enemy cells, immobilizing
4. Precipitation: Ab binds to antigen molec- creates a precipitate that gets cleared by immune system
117
Antibodies mask pathogenic region of antigen (mechanism)
Neutralization
118
change shape and initiate complement binding which leads to inflammation, phagocytosis, immune clearance, or cytolysis (mechanism)
Complement fixation
119
Antibody has 2 to 10 binding sites; binds to multiple enemy cells, immobilizing them from spreading (mechanism)
agglutination
120
Antibody binds antigen molecules (not cells); creates antigen–antibody complex that precipitates, allowing removed by immune clearance (mechanism)
Precipitation
121
Why do 6mo infants typically always get sick?
b/c the mother's immunity transferred though breast milk , wears off
122
types of too vigorous immune responses
- hypersensitive
- hyperactive
- oversensitive
123
types of too weak immune responses
- hyposensitive
| - hypoactive
124
a diagnosis of AIDS is determined when
CD4 levels, the viral load reaches a certain point
125
Name the hypersensitivities (4)
- alloimmunity: reaction to transplanted tissue
- autoimmunity: reactions to one’s own tissues
- allergies: reactions to environmental antigens (allergens)
126
List the types of Hypersensitivities (4)
- Type I: acute, immediate response
-Type II & III: subacute, slower onset within 1-3 hrs. Lasts longer (10-15 hrs), Ab mediated (rash, laryngeal edema)
Type IV: delayed, cell-mediated response (ex TB skin test
127
Anaphylaxis is an ex of type __ hypersensitivity
Type 1 (severe)
relieved w antihistamines
128
How to Type II hypersensitivities occur?
IgG or IgM attack antigens on cell surface, leading to compliment activation = lysis or opsonization
can be platelets, erythrocytes..etc
129
How to Type III hypersensitivities occur?
IgG or IgM form antigen-Ab complexes, that trigger intense inflammation at site
ex: autoimmune
130
How to Type IV hypersensitivities occur?
Cell-mediated reaction in which the signs appear 12 to 72 hours after exposure
APC's present antigens in lymph nodes, trigger macrophages
ex: haptens in poison ivy, Beta cell destruction that causes Diabetes Type 1
131
What is self-tolerance?
The immune system's ability to distinguish self-antigens from foreign ones
132
What could be the reason for failure of self-tolerance?
- cross reactivity: Ab against foreign antigens react to similar ones that are actually self antigens
- abnormal exposure to self antigens: coming across native antigens that are not normally exposed to blood
- changes in self-antigen structure (esp. if a drug or virus has altered these)
133
___ Invades helper T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells by “tricking” them to internalize viruses by receptor-mediated endocytosis
AIDS
134
Respiration "definition"
gas exchange between blood and air (O2 and CO2)
135
Functions of respiration list (5)
- Gas exchange
- blood pressure regulation: help in angiotensin II synthesis
- blood and lymph flow: pressure gradient that promotes flow
- blood filtration: lungs filter small clots
- expulsion of abdominal contents: ie defecation and childbirth
136
___ division includes those passages that serve only for airflow
Condution division
137
__ division consists of alveoli and other gas exchange regions
Respiratory division
138
Upper respiratory tract includes
- nasal septum
- hard palate
- soft palate
- epiglottis
- larynx
139
Larynx aka
voice box, ~4cm catilaginous chamber
| primary fn: keep food & drink out of airway
140
fn of the nose
```
warms and cleans air,
detect odors (olfactory epithelium)
```
141
Olfactory epithelium includes these 3 structures
- olfactory tract
- olfactory bulb
- olfactory nerves
142
Name the 3 regions of the pharynx
- nasopharynx
- oropharynx
- laryngopharynx
143
Name the cartilages that make up the larynx (8)
- epiglottis cartilage
- thyroid cartilage: Adam's apple
- cricoid cartilage: ring-like (connects larynx to trachea)
smaller & paired:
- arytenoid cartilages
- corniculate cartilages
144
Hyoid bone suspended by
thyrohyoid ligament and cricotracheal ligament
145
Intrinsic muscles control
the vocal cords.
| Vocal cords in males are longer and thicker= produce lower-pitched sound
146
Trachea features and dimmensions
12 cm long tube, 2.5cm in diameter
- anterior to esophagus
- 16-20 c-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage to keep it open
- lined w/ ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
- trachealis muscle spans opening in rings
147
Layers of the trachea (inner>out)
- epithelium
- lamina propria
- submucosa
- perichondrium
- cartilage
148
Fn of trachealis muscle
Trachealis muscle spans the opening in the hyaline cartilage rings, this gives room for stretching during coughing and swallowing
149
This disease is said to affect the apex of the lungs (b/c it gets less ventilation)
Tuberculosis
150
Lower respiratory tract includes (6)
- trachea
- carina
- main bronchi (1°)
- lobar bronchi (2°)
- segmental bronchi (3°)
- terminal bronchi
151
what is the Carina?
the cartilage in the trachea where the main bronchi divide
152
Name the lobes in the lung
Left: superior and inferior
Right: superior, middle and inferior (horizontal and oblique fissure)
153
the mediastinal surface of the lung...
faces medially toward the heard
154
Features of the right lung (top to bottom) (10)
- Apex
- superior lobe
- horizontal fissure
- middle lobe
- oblique fissure
- inferior lobe
- base
- mediastinal surface (middle)
- diaphragmatic surface (diaphragm)
- costal surface (anterior)
155
Features of the left lung (7)
- apex
- superior lobe
- oblique fissure
- inferior lobe
- cardiac impression
- mediastinal surface
- diaphragmatic surface
- costal surface (anterior)
156
foreign objects can get trapped in this bronchus more often:
right main bronchus, because it is wider and more vertical than the left
157
Avg length of the main bronchi
R: 2-3 cm wider and more vertical
L: 5 cm narrower and more horizontal
158
What is the Hilum part of the lung?
the wedge-shape area where the bronchi, pulmonary arteries and veins enter the lung
159
what is the diameter of bronchioles?
1mm
160
Portion of lung ventilated by one bronchiole is called
Pulmonary lobule
| these then divide into terminal bronchioles
161
clusters of alveoli arrayed around a central space (the atrium) are called what?
Alveolar sacs
162
Name the cells of the alveolus
squamous (type I)
| great (type II)
163
what is surfactant?
the mixture of phospholipids and proteins that coats the alveoli and prevents them from collapsing during exhalation
secreted by cells of the alveolus
164
what do alveolar macrophages do?
Keep alveoli free from debris& dust particles
165
Name the pleural parts (3)
-visceral pleura: on the lung surface
-parietal pleura: inner surface of the rib cage
create the pleural cavity
fn: reduce friction and create pressure gradient in the lungs to assist lung inflation
also prevents infection from organs in the mediastinum
166
Transpulmonary pressure definition
difference between alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure
167
the pressure in the alveoli is known as
intrapulmonary pressure
168
Neumothorax def
a hole in the lungs through which air can get in from the outside (ex: from a gunshot)
169
is pressure in the lungs higher or lower than atmospheric pressure?
lower, to facilitate breathing
Flow of air in and out of lung depends on a pressure difference between air within lungs and outside body
170
Name the respiratory muscles (4)
- diaphragm (accounts for 2/3 or airflow)
- internal intercostal muscles
- external intercostal muscles
- scalenes (on the neck, they elevate ribs 1&2)
171
Name the accessory muscles of respiration (6)
1. Erector spinae
2. Sternocleidomastoid
3. Pectoralis major
4. Pectoralis minor
5. Serratus anterior muscles
6. Scalenes
Act during forced respiration (respiratory distress)
172
What is Valsalva maneuver?
Taking a deep breath and then contracting the abdominal muscles to raise abdominal pressure and push organ contents out
Occur in Childbirth, urination, defecation, vomiting
173
Automatic, unconscious breathing is controlled by respiratory centers in what part of the brain?
Medulla oblongata and the pons
174
what are the Ventral respiratory group (VRG) ?
responsible for respiratory rhythm (normal 12 breaths/min)
175
What are the Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)?
modify the rate and depth of breaths
176
Hyperventilation leads to___
| Hypoventilation leads to ___
Hyper=> alkilosis
| Hypo=> acidosis (increased CO2 in blood)
177
Define Hyperventilation (in terms of CO2 levels)
rapid breathing where CO2 is expelled faster than it is produced.
Blood CO2 levels drop, the pH rises causing the cerebral arteries to constrict= dizzynes
178
Define Hypoventiilation (in terms of O2 levels)
shallow or too slow breathing that decreases O2 levels, which increases CO2 levels in the blood
179
List the receptors that help control respiration (4)
- central chemoreceptors: respond to changes in pH and CSF
- peripheral chemoreceptors: respond to O2, CO2, pH in blood
- stretch receptors: in smooth muscles, respond to inflation of lungs
- irritant receptors: in epithelial cells, respond to smoke, pollen, cold air, etc
180
___ receptors trigger bronchoconstriction, shallower breathing, breath-holding (apnea), or coughing
Irritant receptors
181
During Inspiration internal pressure ___, which allows air to flow in
drops
182
accessory muscles can raise intrapulmonary pressure by how much
40cm H20
183
List the two factors that influence airway resistance
1. Brinchiole diameter: bronchodialation or epinephrine
| 2. increased airflow: broncoconstriction, histamine
184
what do inhalers do to the bronchioles?
dilate them
185
definition of Residual volume
Volume remaining after maximum expiration ~1300mL
186
Tidal volume definition
volume of air inhaled/exhailed during 1 cycle of breathing
| =~500mL
187
Inspirator reserve volume def
amount of air that can be inhaled at max effort (before damage)
3,000mL
188
Expiratory reserve volume def
amount of air that can be exhaled at max effort
| 1200 mL
189
total amount of air that can be inhaled and then exhaled with maximum effort called
vital capacity approx 4,700mL
190
amount of air remaining in lungs after a normal tidal expiration called
Functional residual capacity
191
measuring breaths and pulmonary function is called
Spirometry
192
Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) in a healthy adult
(the % of vital capacity that can be exhaled at a given time interval) 75%-85%/1sec
193
the avc Minute respiratory volume (MRV) in a healthy adult
amount of air exhaled in one minute
| ~6,000mL/min
194
relaxed quiet breathing is called
Eupnea
| tidal of 500mL, respiratory rate of 12-15bpm
195
temporary cessation of breathing called
apnea
196
labored, gasping breathing is called
Dyspnea
197
Hyperpnea vs Hyperventilation
Hyperpnea: increased rate and depth of breathing in response to pain, exercise, etc
Hyperventilation: increased pulmonary ventilation in excess of metabolic demand
198
Kussmau respiration def
deep, rapid breathing often induced by acidosis
199
CO2 is ___ times as soluble as O2
20 times
200
how thick is the respiratory membrane?
0.5um
201
What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?
matching air flow and blood flow to each other (ex: in poor ventilated areas, the pulmonary vessels constrict to match air flow)
202
what percentage of O2 is bound to hemoglobin?
98.5%
203
one heme group carries how many O2 atoms?
4 O2 atoms per hemoglobin
204
O2 strongly bound to hemoglobin in ___, but loosely bound in ___
Strong=lungs
| loose=tissues (since it is getting offloaded)
205
___ molecules compete for the binding site of O2 on the hemoglobin molecule
Carbon monoxide (CO) (binds 210 timess more tightly than O2)
| CO2 does not compete, hemoglobin can transport both O2 and CO2 at the same time
206
CO2 loading at___
| CO2 unloading at ___
loading at tissues
| unloading at the lungs
207
Factors that affect the rate of oxygen unloading (4)
- PO2
- temperature
- Bohr effect
- blood pH
208
blood pH lower than 7.35 is
Acidosis
209
blood pH higher than 7.45 is
Alkalosis
210
what does PO2 stand for?
Partial pressure of O2
our goal is to keep PO2 at 92%
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a deficiency of O2 in a tissue or the inability to use oxygen called
hypoxia
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blueness of the skin, a sign of hypoxia aka
Cyanosis
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inadequate circulation of blood called
ischemic hypoxia
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Pneumothorax def
presence of air in the pleural cavity, due to a hole in the wall.
(transpulmonary pressure>0)
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Collapse of part or all of a lung called
Atelectasis
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General description of Chronic Bronchitis
- severe persistent inflamation in lower respiratory tract
- enlarged goblet celss=excess mucus
- cilia fail to remove mucus=bacterial growth
chronic cough to try to clear mucus
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General description of Emphysema
- alveolar walls break down-less gas exchange
- lung becomes flabby
- weakened thoracic muscles
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most common form of lung cancer
Squamous-cell carcinoma
Dividing cells invade bronchial wall, cause bleeding lesions,
keratin replace functional tissue
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Lung cancers overview (3)
- 90% originate in mucus membranes
- first sign is coughing up blood
- often metasasize quickly (to heart, bones, liver, lymph nodes and brain)
