M&P, MT and PT Flashcards
Certification prep (157 cards)
1
Q
Magnetic particle inspection of the first pass in a U groove butt weld showed a large fuzzy indication at short intervals along the center of the weld. Which of the following was most likely detected?
a. lack of fusion
b. lack of penetration
c. crater crack
d. stringer
A
b. lack of penetration
2
Q
An indication that was subsurface and intermittent at the toes of a fillet weld was seen to run along the length of the weld. What type of defect was most likely detected?
a. transverse cracks in the HAZ
b. slag inclusion
c. heat cracks
d. lack of fusion
A
d. lack of fusion
3
Q
How are the particles held to the part in false indications?
a. leakage field
b. magnetic pole
c. gravity or mechanical
d. discontinuity
A
c. gravity or mechanical
4
Q
In which magnetizing method is the current passed directly through the part, thereby setting up a magnetic field at right angles to the current flow?
a. longitudinal magnetization
b. coil magnetization
c. central conductor magnetization
d. none of the above
A
d. none of the above
5
Q
The maximum open circuit voltage for prods should not exceed;
a. 12 volts
b. 25 volts
c. 50 volts
d. 75 volts
A
b. 25 volts
6
Q
The reason for using copper rather than steel as a central conductor is;
a. copper is a better conductor of electricity
b. the field around a steel central conductor is minimal
c. copper does not attract the part
d. steel is heavier
A
b. the field around a steel central conductor is minimal
7
Q
What causes a leakage field in a steel bar?
a. paint of the surface
b. a bend in the bar
c. a crack
d. reversal of the magnetic field
A
c. a crack
8
Q
A crack shows the strongest indication when it is located:
a. parallel to a line from prod to prod
b. under the prod
c. perpendicular to a line from prod to prod
d. perpendicular to the plane of the coil
A
a. parallel to a line from prod to prod
9
Q
Surrounding an electromagnet, the magnetic field is strongest;
a. immediately after the current ceases to flow
b. just prior to current reversal
c. at the time the magnetic particles are applied to the part
d. while the magnetizing current is flowing
A
d. while the magnetizing current is flowing
10
Q
Flux density is defined as;
a. the number of lines of flux intercepting an area perpendicular to the lines of flux
b. the number of lines of force associated with a magnetic field
c. the number of lines of flux intercepting an area parallel with the lines of flux
d. none of the above
A
a. the number of lines of flux intercepting an area perpendicular to the lines of flux
11
Q
Magnetism applied to a ferromagnetic part by a permanent magnet is called;
a. reversed polarity magnetization
b. direct current magnetization
c. direct magnetization
d. induced magnetization
A
d. induced magnetization
12
Q
The source which will supply the most power for magnetizing is;
a. single-phased AC, half-wave rectified
b. single-phase AC, full-wave rectified
c. three-phase AC, full-wave rectified
d. AC un-rectified
A
c. three-phase AC, full-wave rectified
13
Q
The lines of flux in a circularly magnetized bar;
a. area aligned with the axis of the bar from south to north pole
b. are contained within and around the part
c. are aligned through the piece from the north to the south pole
d. leave the south pole and enter the north pole
A
b. are contained within and around the part
14
Q
Which of the following is the type of magnetic field that can be induced in parts using permanent magnet yokes?
a. vector
b. longitudinal
c. circular
d. direct
A
b. longitudinal
15
Q
Which brings out surface indications most clearly?
a. AC
b. DC
c. pulsed DC
d. both AC and DC equally
A
a. AC
16
Q
Any mass of iron, steel or material capable of attracting other like masses is known as a;
a. iron
b. ferromagnetic material
c. magnet
d. all of the above
A
c. magnet
17
Q
A defect located 6mm below the surface in a bar 12mm in diameter is not likely to be found with magnetic particle inspection;
a. true
b. false
A
a. true
18
Q
If available, the best method for removing oil from a surface prior to magnetic particle testing with dry powder is;
a. washing with a strong alkali
b. wiping the surface with a clean cloth
c. vapor degreasing
d. washing with a solvent
A
c. vapor degreasing
19
Q
The preferred colour for liquid penetrants used in leak detection is;
a. green-blue
b. orange
c. red
d. yellow-green
A
c. red
20
Q
The Ketos Ring Test provides qualitative information on;
a. the functioning of the magnetizing machine
b. the particle concentration
c. the magnetic properties of the particles
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
21
Q
Black light used in penetrant testing has its peak at;
a. 3650 angstroms (365nm)
b. 4250 angstroms (425nm)
c. 4850 angstroms (485nm)
d. 5550 angstroms (555nm)
A
a. 3650 angstroms (365nm)
22
Q
The viscosity of the suspension oil should be as low as possible to provide mobility to the particles. The suspension should be discarded when;
a. it smells bad
b. the viscosity is 3 centistokes by the closed cup test
c. the viscosity is 3 centistokes at 100F
d. the viscosity is 5 centistokes at 100F
A
c. the viscosity is 3 centistokes at 100F
23
Q
The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to;
a. the capillary forces
b. the chemical inertness of the penetrant
c. the specific gravity of the penetrant
d. the viscosity of the penetrant
A
a. the capillary forces
24
Q
The test used to check the strength or concentration of the wet method inspection is called the;
a. settling test
b. hardness test
c. sensitivity test
d. particle calibration test
A
a. settling test
25
Two properties that control the penetration of a liquid are:
a. capillary action and surface tension
b. surface tension and contact angle
c. contact angle and capillary action
d. contact angle and viscosity
b. surface tension and contact angle
26
The size of a penetrant indication depends on;
a. the flaw entrapment efficiency
b. the method of penetrant testing
c. the size of the discontinuity
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
27
The human eye response is not the same to all colours in the visible light range. Which of the following colours is the easiest to detect, if all have the same brightness?
a. blue
b. yellow-green
c. purple
d. red
b. yellow-green
28
Fluorescent dyes used in penetrants absorb photon energy at a frequency of 365nm. What is the approximate frequency of the colour that most fluorescent penetrants emit?
a. 425nm
b. 525nm
c. 625nm
d. 725nm
b. 525nm
29
Oil based penetrants cannot be safely used on;
a. aluminum
b. ceramics
c. manganese castings
d. rubber
d. rubber
30
The relationship between viscosity and drag out is;
a. dependent on time
b. exponential
c. most notable for lower viscosities
d. more pronounced at higher viscosities
d. more pronounced at higher viscosities
31
The relative amount of light reflected or emitted between an indication and its background is termed;
a. contrast ratio
b. see-ability
c. sensitivity
d. reflection coefficient
a. contrast ratio
32
Which sensitivity test specimen is the most practical for comparing in-service penetrant with a sample of unused penetrant?
a. cracked chrome plate specimen (TAM or PSM)
b. cracked aluminum black (comparator block)
c. a part with a known crack
d. a guass gauge
b. cracked aluminum black (comparator block)
33
Black light intensity from a standard mercury vapour lamp may vary due to;
a. line voltage supplied by utilities
b. the isotope of mercury used
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
a. line voltage supplied by utilities
34
The recommended emulsifier dwell time for a medium sensitivity penetrant, depending on the surface roughness, is;
a. 30 seconds to 3 minutes
b. 1 to 3 minutes
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. 3 to 7 minutes
a. 30 seconds to 3 minutes
35
Which of the following are not compatible with chloride ions, total chlorine, and sulphur?
a. austenitic steels
b. high nickel alloys
c. titanium
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
36
Intergranular, stress, fretting, and exfoliation are related terms. Under which of the following conditions are they related?
a. erosion
b. fatigue
c. corrosion
d. oxidation
c. corrosion
37
Metal forming such as rolling results in;
a. plastic flow of the metal
b. elongation of existing defects perpendicular to the rolling direction
c. directional properties which are always beneficial for secondary forming operations
d. the flattening out of defects which makes them more easily detectable by most NDT methods
a. plastic flow of the metal
38
TAn extremely this discontinuity that is the result of pipes, or inclusions flattened and made directional by working is called;
a. a cold shut
b. a lamination
c. a seam
d. a stringer
b. a lamination
39
Which of the following is the most effective method for the detection of extremely deep lying defects?
a. dry residual method using DC with surge
b. dry continuous method using half-wave rectified current with prods
c. wet continuous method using HWDC
d. wet residual method
b. dry continuous method using half-wave rectified current with prods
40
Highest colour contrast is provided by;
a. black dye
b. fluorescent dye
c. red dye
d. yellow dye
c. red dye
41
In the absence of a dry powder bin, dry developer can be applied with;
a. an air operated powder gun
b. a dry paintbrush
c. a spray blub
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
42
If inspection of parts is delayed;
a. retesting is needed
b. small indications become prevalent
c. indication from large defects loose sharpness
d. wet developer can only be removed with vapour degreasing
c. indication from large defects loose sharpness
43
An extremely thin discontinuity that is the result of pipes, or inclusion flattened and made directional by working is called;
a. a cold lap
b. a lamination
c. a seam
d. a stringer
b. a lamination
44
Magnetic lines of force are;
a. manifestations of the “string theory”
b. imaginary concepts for mapping magnetic fields
c. elongated bi-poles
d. isolated mono-poles
b. imaginary concepts for mapping magnetic fields
45
In order to be detectable by magnetic particle testing, a flaw must;
a. be no deeper than 1mm below the surface
b. produce a leakage field at the test surface
c. be surface breaking
d. all of the above
b. produce a leakage field at the test surface
46
If a discontinuity is shallow and broad, like a scratch, the flux lines may stream line below the discontinuity. This will result in;
a. a false indication
b. a non-relevant indication
c. a lack of indication
d. a sub-surface indication
b. a non-relevant indication
47
The best way to demagnetize a long tube would be;
a. pulsating AC with a central conductor
b. passing the tube through an AC coil
c. portable yolk
d. reversing DC with a central conductor
d. reversing DC with a central conductor
48
Given a steel bar 12” long and 3” in diameter, what current should you use for a bottom of the coil shot with a 3 turn coil?
a. 2000amp
b. 4000amp
c. 6000amp
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
it would be 3750amps
I=KD/NL
K=45,000
49
The width of a magnetic particle indication;
a. indicates flaw depth
b. is always wider than the actual flaw opening
c. is equal to the height of the particle indication
d. is determined by the angle of repose
b. is always wider than the actual flaw opening
50
The strength of a circular magnetic field is not diminished by __________ of a part;
a. diameter
b. permeability
c. length
d. any of the above
c. length
51
Most manufacturing defects in a tube are;
a. axial in direction
b. subsurface
c. circumferential in direction
d. on the outside of the tube
a. axial in direction
52
An intermittent smooth edged, half-mooned discontinuity found in a forging is called:
a. cold shut
b. cold shot
c. seam
d. lap
d. lap
53
Cold shots are caused by:
a. foreign material trapped during solidification of material
b. interrupted pouring
c. rapid pouring
d. two streams of material meeting and failing to fuse
b. interrupted pouring
54
A lengthy open to surface discontinuity, parallel to the longitudinal axis of a bar and caused by blowholes, cracks or tears introduced in earlier processing and elongated in the direction of rolling is called a:
a. cold shut
b. forging lap
c. lamination
d. seam
c. lamination
55
Toughness is the term used to denote the measure of resistance to indentation by a known indentor under a set load.
a. True
b. False
b. False
56
A ceramic ware manufacturer received a contract to make high voltage insulators. The quality requirements would not allow any cracks; all cracks must be detected in the green ware prior to glazing. What type of penetrant would provide the best results?
a. Water-washable Group IV penetrant; dry developer
b. Water-washable Group V penetrant; no developer
c. Visible penetrant; dry developer
d. Filtered particle penetrant
d. Filtered particle penetrant
57
The best method to apply filtered particle penetrant is:
a. Brushing
b. With a pressure gun
c. Dipping
d. All of the above
b. With a pressure gun
58
What technique is used to reduce the background and increase the contrast of filtered particle penetrant?
a. Fluorescent filtered particles used
b. Pre-wetting the part with oil
c. Pre-wetting the part with water
d. Soaking in water and detergent
c. Pre-wetting the part with water
59
Of the following, what percent of concentration of hydrophilic emulsifier in a dip tank will provide the best sensitivity?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 33%
a. 5%
60
Hydrophilic and lipophilic are types of:
a. Penetrants
b. Removers
c. Emulsifiers
d. Developers
c. Emulsifiers
61
Prods are being used to magnetize a weld area. When dry powder is dusted on the surface it is observed that there is no mobility of the particles. What is the most probable reason for this observation?
a. The flux density is too low
b. The magnetizing current is not high enough
c. DC is being used
d. All of the above are possible reasons
d. All of the above are possible reasons
62
For direct contact magnetising methods, current should be flowing in what direction relative to expected discontinuities?
a. Parallel
b. At 45 degrees
c. At 90 degrees
d. At 180 degrees
a. Parallel
63
Magnetic flux density is zero at:
a. The outside surface of a bar magnetised with a head shot
b. The centre of a bar magnetised with a head shot
c. The inside surface of a tube magnetised with a central conductor
d. The outside surface of a tube magnetised with a central conductor
b. The centre of a bar magnetised with a head shot
64
The best method of inducing a circular field in a tube is by a:
a. Prod technique
b. Head shot
c. Coil
d. Central conductor
d. Central conductor
65
A technique used to find transverse discontinuities at the ends of longitudinally magnetised bars by the use of transient currents is called:
a. A head shot
b. A fast break technique
c. A yoke technique
d. A coil technique
b. A fast break technique
66
Which of the following are ferromagnetic materials?
a. Aluminium, iron, copper
b. Copper, aluminium, silver
c. Iron, cobalt, nickel
d. Iron, copper, nickel
c. Iron, cobalt, nickel
67
A lamination in steel plate would be classified as what type of discontinuity?
a. Processing
b. Service
c. Inherent
d. None of the above
a. Processing
68
The statement ‘magnetic particle testing can be applied to plated and painted parts’.
a. May be true if flux densities are increased to compensate for the coating Thickness
b. Is true only for circular circumstances
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. May be true depending upon the thickness of the coating
d. May be true depending upon the thickness of the coating
69
Prods are being used to magnetize a weld area. When dry powder is dusted on the surface, it is observed that there is no mobility of the particles. What is the most
probable reason for this observation?
a. DC is being used
b. The flux density is too low
c. The magnetizing current is not high enough
d. All of the above are possible reasons
d. All of the above are possible reasons
70
Among the following, the best type of current for the detection of fatigue cracks is:
a. Alternating current
b. Half-wave alternating current
c. Half-wave direct current
d. Direct current
a. Alternating current
71
An advantage of AC is that:
a. Equipment can be made lighter
b. It leaves the part demagnetized
c. It is most readily available
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
72
A bar that is 5 cm (2 inches) by 10 cm (4 inches) by 30.5 cm (12 inches) is being magnetized in the circular direction. About how many amperes are required using the perimeter approach?
a. 2200
b. 3800
c. 4500
d. None of the above
b. 3800
72
For a 7.6 cm (3 inches) diameter bar how much current is needed to magnetize the bar for the detection of longitudinal discontinuities:
a. 1000 amperes
b. 3000 amperes
c. 5500 amperes
d. 16500 amperes
b. 3000 amperes
73
Which of the following is false concerning a magnetic field in and around a hollow conductor as compared to that of a solid conductor of the same outside diameter when both are of the same magnetic material, and when the applied current is the same?
a. The fields are the same at the centre
b. The fields outside the conductors are the same
c. The field immediately outside the outer surface of the hollow conductor is Greater
d. The field gradient inside the hollow conductor is steeper
b. The fields outside the conductors are the same
74
A material with a narrower hysteresis loop has:
a. Higher permeability
b. Lower coercive force
c. Lower retentivity
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
75
An electric current through a copper wire:
a. Creates magnetic poles in the wire
b. Magnetises the wire
c. Creates a magnetic field around the wire
d. Does not create a magnetic field
c. Creates a magnetic field around the wire
76
A material with a wider hysteresis loop has:
a. Higher permeability
b. Higher residual magnetism
c. Lower reluctance
d. Lower residual magnetism
b. Higher residual magnetism
77
Which form of magnetisation is easiest to control in most parts?
a. Circular magnetization
b. Longitudinal magnetisation
c. Parallel magnetization
d. Permanent magnetism
b. Longitudinal magnetisation
77
The type of method most frequently used with mobile equipment is the:
a. Dry magnetic particle powder method
b. Indirect induction method
c. Wet method with auxiliary tank
d. Yoke method
c. Wet method with auxiliary tank
78
A metal that is difficult to magnetise is said to have:
a. High reluctance
b. Low retentivity
c. High permeability
d. Low permeability
d. Low permeability
79
When preparing a bath it is important to have the bath strength at a proper level, as too many particles can result in:
a. Having to increase the magnetizing current
b. Lowering the test amperage
c. Masking the indications
d. None of the above
c. Masking the indications
80
Which of the following will best define surface cracks?
a. AC
b. Half wave rectified AC
c. DC
d. Surge current
a. AC
81
The strongest magnetic field in a coil is at the:
a. Inside edge
b. Centre
c. End
d. Outside edge
a. Inside edge
82
When using the wet continuous method, the flow of suspension from the hose should be shut off:
a. Immediately before applying the current
b. Immediately after applying the current
c. Thirty seconds before applying the current
d. While the current is flowing
d. While the current is flowing
83
Demagnetisation:
a. Is easy for materials having a high coercive force
b. Is always most difficult in materials retaining a high residual field
c. May be easy or difficult depending on the type of material
d. All of the above answers are correct
c. May be easy or difficult depending on the type of material
84
Magnetic particle test indications which are due to cold work can best be removed by:
a. Demagnetisation
b. Using a lower current
c. Using penetrant testing
d. Re-heat treating
d. Re-heat treating
85
A residual circular field may be objectionable because:
a. Grinding may produce heat cracks
b. Machining may create external poles
c. Heat treating may lead to tight surface cracks
d. All of the above
b. Machining may create external poles
86
A split coil would most likely be used with a:
a. Stationary magnetic particle unit
b. Portable magnetic particle unit
c. AC yoke
d. DC yoke
b. Portable magnetic particle unit
87
An advantage of AC equipment over DC is:
a. AC makes the magnetic particles more mobile on the test surface
b. AC is more penetrating
c. AC is less hazardous
d. AC equipment is heavier than DC
a. AC makes the magnetic particles more mobile on the test surface
88
Magnetic particle test indications which are due to cold work can best be removed by:
a. Demagnetisation
b. Heat treating
c. Re-crystallisation
d. Using a lower current
b. Heat treating
89
The temperature above which most soft steels become nonmagnetic is about:
a. 440C (770F)
b. 523C (975F)
c. 626C (1160F)
d. 754C (1390F)
d. 754C (1390F)
90
Which of the following represents ultraviolet light of wavelengths which are potentially injurious (1 Å = 10-10m)?
a. 2000 to 3200 Å
b. 3200 to 4000 Å
c. 4000 to 4600 Å
d. 4600 to 5200 Å
a. 2000 to 3200 Å
91
Which of the following is an advantage of the wet method?
a. Excellent detection of completely subsurface discontinuities
b. Ease of bath recovery and re-use
c. Low flash point ensures freedom from fire hazards
d. Relatively clean and easy to work with
b. Ease of bath recovery and re-use
92
Which of the following is an advantage of the dry method?
a. Faster than wet method for quantities of small test pieces
b. Easily applied in an automated system
c. Easy coverage of surfaces of irregularly shaped test pieces
d. Good sensitivity for subsurface discontinuities
d. Good sensitivity for subsurface discontinuities
93
Where possible, circular magnetisation is preferable to longitudinal magnetization because:
a. Less current is required
b. Stronger fields are obtained
c. Fewer confusing secondary poles are produced
d. None of the above is true
d. None of the above is true
94
The residual method is applicable to:
a. Surface discontinuities only
b. Subsurface discontinuities only
c. Either surface or subsurface discontinuities
d. All but tight surface cracks
a. Surface discontinuities only
95
Which of the following particles would be most sensitive?
a. Depends on the test piece permeability
b. Dry
c. Wet
d. None of the above
b. Dry
96
How is the magnetic field strength, F, just outside a magnetic conductor having permeability, µ, related to that just outside a nonmagnetic conductor of the same size, carrying the same current?
a. Not related
b. F/µ
c. F × µ
d. Same
d. Same
97
How is the magnetic field strength at the surface of a magnetic conductor having permeability, µ, related to the magnetic field strength, F, at the surface of a nonmagnetic conductor carrying the same current?
a. Not related
b. F/µ
c. F × µ
d. Same
d. Same
98
The magnetic field outside a conductor decreases:
a. In a linear manner
b. Inversely with the square of distance
c. Inversely with distance
d. Exponentially
a. In a linear manner
99
What is the magnetic field strength at the surface of a 25mm diameter bar as compared to that at the surface of a 50mm diameter bar, each carrying 1000 amps of current?
a. One quarter
b. One half
c. Twice
d. Four times
c. Twice
100
What is the magnetic field strength at the surface of a 100 mm diameter bar as compared to that at the surface of a 50 mm diameter bar, each carrying 1000 amps of current?
a. One quarter
b. One half
c. Twice
d. Four times
b. One half
101
For direct contact magnetising methods, current should be flowing in what direction relative to expected discontinuities?
a. Parallel
b. At 45 degrees
c. At 90 degrees
d. At 180 degrees
a. Parallel
102
A common rule of thumb to use for current required in circular magnetisation:
a. 1000 ampere turns/25mm of diameter
b. 1000 amps/25mm of diameter
c. 1000 amps/25mm of prod spacing
d. None of the above
a. 1000 ampere turns/25mm of diameter
103
Magnetic flux density is zero at:
a. The inside surface of a tube magnetised with a central conductor
b. The outside surface of a tube magnetised with a central conductor
c. The centre of a bar magnetised with a head shot
d. The outside surface of a bar magnetised with a head shot
c. The centre of a bar magnetised with a head shot
104
A technique used to find transverse discontinuities at the ends of longitudinally magnetised bars by the use of transient currents is called:
a. A coil technique
b. A head shot
c. A yoke technique
d. A fast break technique
d. A fast break technique
105
Magnetic particles testing is most likely to find subsurface discontinuities in:
a. Hardened steels with high permeability
b. Hardened steels with low permeability
c. Soft steels with high permeability
d. Soft steels with low permeability
c. Soft steels with high permeability
106
Which of the following developers would you expect to be the least sensitive?
a. Water suspendable wet (immersion)
b. Water suspendable wet (spray)
c. Water soluble (immersion)
d. Water soluble (spray)
b. Water suspendable wet (spray)
107
In performing a water content test of a lipophilic emulsifier per ASTM D-95, what solvent is used?
a. Benzene
b. Naptha
c. Trichloroethane
d. Xylene
d. Xylene
108
During excess penetrant removal, a water spray pre-rinse might be used with:
a. hydrophobic emulsifier
b. A hydrophilic emulsifier
c. A lipophilic emulsifier
d. None of the above
b. A hydrophilic emulsifier
109
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a hydrophilic emulsifier?
a. Greater penetrant tolerance than lipophilic emulsifiers
b. Versatile application
c. Economical
d. Low drag-out losses compared to lipophilic emulsifiers
c. Economical
110
Which of the following is used in connection with hydrophilic emulsifier applied by immersion?
a. Agitation
b. Brushing
c. Drain-dwell
d. All of the above
a. Agitation
111
Hydrophilic emulsifier contact time depends on which of the following?
a. Emulsifier concentration
b. Method of application
c. Surface finish of test piece
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
112
When applied by immersion, an optimum concentration for a hydrophilic emulsifier is about:
a. 0.5–2%
b. 2.5–20%
c. 50–80%
d. 80–100%
b. 2.5–20%
113
The concentration of a hydrophilic emulsifier may be measured by:
a. A comparator block
b. Fluorescent brightness
c. An optical refraction meter
d. Specific gravity
c. An optical refraction meter
114
The diffusion mechanism is used in the operation of:
a. Hydrophilic emulsifiers
b. Lipophilic emulsifiers
c. Solvent removable penetrant
d. Both b and c
b. Lipophilic emulsifiers
115
The term ‘drag out losses’ refers to:
a. Penetrant which is removed from discontinuities during the water washable process
b. Loss of penetrant materials that are carried from one processing station to another on the test piece
c. Penetrant which is removed from discontinuities because of over emulsification prior to water removal
d. Both b and c
b. Loss of penetrant materials that are carried from one processing station to another on the test piece
116
When adding water to a penetrant, the water tolerance limit is indicated when:
a. The penetrant material and dye separate into their constituent parts
b. Permanent cloudiness occurs
c. Opacity reaches 2% of International optical transmission standard
d. None of the above
b. Permanent cloudiness occurs
117
A problem which could be caused by a penetrant with abnormally high water content is:
a. Water contamination
b. Hydrogen assisted cracking
c. Blurring of indications
d. Rusting of steel parts
d. Rusting of steel parts
118
A water tolerance test would be performed on:
a. Solvent removable penetrants
b. Solvent removable penetrants and hydrophilic emulsifiers
c. Water washable penetrants and lipophilic emulsifiers
d. Water washable and post emulsifiable penetrant
c. Water washable penetrants and lipophilic emulsifiers
119
Fluorescent penetrant indications are more visible than colour contrast penetrant indications because:
a. They contain a higher concentration of dye particles
b. They reflect more light
c. They emit rather than reflect light
d. Yellow and green contrast more than red and white
c. They emit rather than reflect light
120
A disadvantage of water soluble developers is:
a. The dried developer is difficult to remove during post cleaning
b. A uniform developer film is obtained
c. Agitation of the developer is not required
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
121
When a drain-dwell technique is used during emulsification, what two mechanisms are responsible for combining the emulsifier and penetrant?
a. Agitation and turbulent mixing
b. Diffusion and turbulent mixing
c. Osmosis and agitation
d. Turbulent mixing and osmosis
b. Diffusion and turbulent mixing
122
When using a post emulsifiable penetrant process, it is important to drain as much excess penetrant as possible from the surface of a test piece which has been immersed in the penetrant because:
a. A thinner layer of penetrant will result in less penetrant contamination in the emulsifier tank
b. A thinner layer of penetrant is likely to have higher capillary action and, thus, be more sensitive to fine discontinuities
c. Too much penetrant on the part surface may lead to more rapid penetration and over-sensitivity
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
123
Which of the following discontinuities would you not expect to find in a casting?
a. Shrinkage cracks
b. Cold shuts
c. Incomplete penetration
d. Porosity
c. Incomplete penetration
124
The penetrant process best suited for use on parts with keyways and threads is:
a. Post emulsifiable
b. Solvent removable
c. Water washable
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
125
The fluorescent dyes used in the liquid penetrant testing process are most active when energised with black light of what wavelengths? (Å stands for angstrom units)
a. 2.0 × 10-7m (2000 Å)
b. 2.5 × 10-7m (2500 Å)
c. 3.25 × 10-7m (3250 Å)
d. 3.65 × 10-7m (3650 Å)
d. 3.65 × 10-7m (3650 Å)
126
Over washing during excess penetrant removal is less likely with which penetrant Testing process?
a. Water washable
b. Solvent removable
c. Self emuslifying
d. Post emulsifiable
a. Water washable
127
Emulsification time is less critical for the detection of:
a. Wide, shallow discontinuities
b. Internal porosity
c. Fine, tight cracks
d. None of the above
c. Fine, tight cracks
128
Open, shallow discontinuities are best detected by which penetrant testing method?
a. Post emulsifiable
b. Solvent removable
c. Water washable
d. None of the above
a. Post emulsifiable
129
A penetrant testing method in which the degree of washability can be controlled by the operator is called:
a. Post emulsifiable
b. Solvent removable
c. Water washable
d. Solvent removable
c. Water washable
130
Which of the following is normally considered acceptable practice?
a. Sand blasting a soft aluminium part during pre-cleaning
b. Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test
c. Removing excess penetrant with a water spray
d. Performing a re-test on a part tested with a water washable penetrant process
c. Removing excess penetrant with a water spray
131
What amount of time is normally considered necessary for dark adaption of the eyes prior to performing a fluorescent penetrant test?
a. 1 to 2 minutes
b. 3 to 5 minutes
c. 5 to 10 minutes
d. None required
b. 3 to 5 minutes
132
The human eye is most sensitive to which of the following types of light?
a. Blue-violet
b. Red
c. Orange
d. Yellow-green
a. Blue-violet
133
What are the two most important properties in determining the penetrating ability of a penetrant?
a. Surface tension and wetting ability
b. Viscosity and surface tension
c. Viscosity and contact angle
d. None of the above
a. Surface tension and wetting ability
134
The chief advantage of using a water washable penetrant process is:
a. Economics
b. Safety
c. Sensitivity
d. Water tolerance
b. Safety
135
The most important penetrant test processing time to control is:
a. Emulsifier dwell time
b. Development time
c. Penetrant dwell time
d. Water rinse time
c. Penetrant dwell time
136
A soft aluminium test piece is to be penetrant tested. The piece has previously been sand blasted to remove tightly adhering soils. What additional surface preparation should be performed?
a. Etching
b. Grinding
c. Solvent cleaning
d. Ultrasonic cleaning
d. Ultrasonic cleaning
137
When a mercury vapour black light is inadvertently cut off, approximately how long should it be allowed to cool before attempting to restart?
a. 2 to 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. Not required
b. 5 minutes
138
Mercury vapour black lights may be extinguished if the supply voltage drops below
about:
a. 90 volts
b. 120 volts
c. 200 volts
d. 220 volts
c. 200 volts
139
Which penetrant test processes commonly use the same penetrants?
a. Solvent removable and post emulsifier
b. Water washable and solvent removable
c. Water washable
d. None of the above
a. Solvent removable and post emulsifier
140
Which type of developer should not be used with a visible dye penetrant process?
a. Dry
b. Non-aqueous wet
c. Water soluble
d. Water suspendable
a. Dry
141
When using a water washable penetrant testing process, why should the water rinse temperature remain constant?
a. To avoid under washing
b. To avoid over washing
c. To avoid changes in rinse efficiency
d. To maintain the temperature of the part
b. To avoid over washing
142
A common application of an aluminium block containing quench cracks is to:
a. Compare performance of penetrant materials or processes
b. Determine effectiveness of cleaning techniques
c. Determine penetrant test sensitivity
d. Determine effects of mechanical cleaning methods on penetrant test results
c. Determine penetrant test sensitivity
143
Which type of penetrant process affords most control of test sensitivity level?
a. Fluorescent
b. Post emulsifiable
c. Solvent removable
d. Water washable
b. Post emulsifiable
144
Which type of penetrant process would be best suited to the detection of wide, shallow discontinuities?
a. Fluorescent
b. Post emulsifiable
c. Solvent removable
d. Water washable
b. Post emulsifiable
145
What is the minimum time considered necessary for dark adaptation of the eyes prior to evaluating the results of a fluorescent penetrant test?
a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
146
Which of the following developers is applied by brush, spraying or dipping?
a. Dry
b. Dual sensitivity
c. Non-aqueous wet
d. Water based wet
d. Water based wet
147
What is a disadvantage of using the fluorescent penetrant process?
a. Easily washed with water
b. High visibility of indications
c. Lower visibility of indications
d. Must be performed in a darkened area with aid of a UV lamp
c. Lower visibility of indications
148
Which penetrant process is best suited to the detection of discontinuities in a test piece having threads and keyways?
a. Fluorescent
b. Post emulsifiable
c. Solvent removable
d. Water washable
d. Water washable
149
Which penetrant process is best suited to high production rates of many small parts?
a. Fluorescent
b. Post emulsifiable
c. Solvent removable
d. Water washable
d. Water washable
150
When using a hydrophilic emulsifier, the amount of penetrant removed is most affected by:
a. Adequacy of pre-clean
b. Emulsifier dwell time
c. Penetrant dwell time
d. Solution strength and time of spray
d. Solution strength and time of spray
151
Which type of emulsifier is designed to be used as a ‘scrubber’?
a. Fluoroscopic
b. Hydrophilic
c. Hydrophobic
d. Lipophilic
b. Hydrophilic
152
Excess penetrant removal is a two step process with which of the following penetrant methods?
a. Liquid oxygen applications
b. Post emulsifiable
c. Solvent removable
d. Water washable
b. Post emulsifiable
153
Which pre-cleaning method may be used with either a solvent or a detergent solution?
a. Detergent wash
b. Steam cleaning
c. Ultrasonic cleaning
d. Vapour degreasing
c. Ultrasonic cleaning
154
What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a mercury Vapour arc black light?
a. none
b. 2 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
155
A hydrometer is used to measure:
a. Cleaner specific gravity
b. Penetrant viscosity
c. Penetrant specific gravity
d. Specific gravity of water based wet developers
d. Specific gravity of water based wet developers
