M1, S1, C4 - Control Of Traffic Flashcards

Question

Cruising levels at or above FL410 up to FL660 shall be selected according to the semi-circular rule, therefore, flight levels available are:

Answer 1

1) Eastbound FL410, FL450, FL490 etc | 2) Westbound FL430, FL470, FL510 etc

Answer 2

1) in receipt of a DS and being provided with vertical and/or lateral deconfliction advice 2) allocated levels to join, cross or leave CAS 3) being held in flight 4) provided with level and/or heading allocations for positioning and sequencing 5) within certain areas specified by the CAA

Answer 3

...read in full to the pilot and shall automatically cancel any previous clearance. Controllers must be aware, therefore, that if the original clearance included a restriction, eg cross ABC FL150 or below, then the issue of a revised clearance automatically cancels the earlier restriction, unless it is reiterated with the revised clearance.

Answer 4

...a SID. For example, climb now FL120, automatically cancels the vertical profile of the SID. If the profile contains a restriction that provides vertical separation from conflicting traffic on another SID, the restriction must be reiterated. Eg climb now FL129, cross XYZ 5000ft or above, unless separation is ensured by other means.

Answer 5

...they are to confirm the level profile to be followed eg fly heading 065, climb now FL80 or Route direct EFG, stop climb at altitude 5000ft

Answer 6

...withhold a clearance. A list of the personnel authorised under civil aviation legislation and the procedures to be adopted when detaining an aircraft appear in unit instructions.

Answer 7

...take reasonable steps to establish the authenticity and powers of the person giving the instruction.

Answer 8

...that an aircraft has been detained by a police or HM customs officer

Answer 9

1) warn the pilot of the hazardous condition or apparent infringement and obtain an acknowledgment of the message 2) in the case of an infringement of legislation, warn the pilot that if he does take off the facts will be reported to the appropriate authority 3) if the pilot still requests take off clearance after acknowledging the warning he should be advised, when traffic permits, that there are no traffic reasons to restrict take off 4) record the warning and any comment made by the pilot in the ATC watch log

Answer 10

...clear and precise messages are passed to the pilots concerned and acknowledgements obtained. The recommended phraseology appears in CAP413. Further transmission may be necessary to ascertain the intentions of the pilot.

Answer 11

...the pilot of an aircraft and the appropriate aerodrome operator and normally of no concern to ATC. In no circumstances is either an ATC clearance or permission to take off to be withheld solely because the pilot has not obtained prior permission to proceed to his destination aerodrome.

Answer 12

...RT to any aircraft in flight bound for that aerodrome. Action may be limited to aircraft which have departed less than 30 mins after the message has been received. A controller has no authority to withhold take off clearance because the intended destination is closed.

Answer 13

...flight progress strips. Instructions for marking hand written strips appear in Appendix D. Procedures for data display methods are described in MATS 2.

Answer 14

...in which they are received and issued according to the traffic situation. However, certain flights are given priority over others and the following table shows the categorisation.

Answer 15

...the flight with the highest category shall be dealt with first. Flow control procedures are implemented and actions by the Central Flow Management Unit. A flow control priority will be allocated automatically on receipt of a flight plan.

Answer 16

...whether or not he can continue to the aerodrome or divert to a suitable alternative aerodrome.

Answer 17

...no further fuel diversion options are available where the aircraft is committed to land at the pilots nominated aerodrome of landing with not less than ‘final reserve fuel’. However, MINIMUM FUEL RT phraseology is not universally used by every aircraft operator and pilot.

Answer 18

...fuel for 30 mins of flight for turbine powered aircraft or 45 mins for piston powered aircraft.

Answer 19

...pilots of aircraft that have declared MINIMUM FUEL or that have indicated that they are becoming short of fuel.

Answer 20

...confirming the estimated delay he can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or no delay, when the pilot is en route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold; or be expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown of the aircraft is being vectored to an approach.

Answer 21

...controllers must provide a general indication of the delay, based on the best information available at that time.

Answer 22

...whether or not he can continue to the aerodrome with or without declaring a fuel emergency. Controllers shall keep pilots informed of any increase in delay or increase in track mileage after the pilots initial declaration of MINIMUM FUEL following which the controller can expect the pilot to declare an emergency.

Answer 23

...confirming the estimated delay he can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or no delay, when the pilot is en route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold; or by expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown if the aircraft is being vectored to an approach; then ask the pilot if he wishes to declare an emergency.

Answer 24

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY Or MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL And controllers shall provide such aircraft with flight priority category A

Answer 25

...to confirm that they are declaring an emergency. In the absence of such a declaration, controllers are not required to give priority to the flight.

Answer 26

A... ...aircraft in emergency (eg engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill pax) ...aircraft which have declared a police emergency ...ambulance/medical acft when the safety of life is involved B... ...flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons ...post accident flight checks ...other flights, including open skies flights, authorised by the CAA ...police flights under normal operational priority C... ...royal flights, flights carrying visiting heads of state (which have been notified by NOTAM/Temporary supplement) D... ...flights notified by the CAA carrying heads of government or very senior government ministers E... ...flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights ...other flights authorised by the CAA Normal Flights... ...flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures ...initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA flight examining unit (callsign EXAM) Z... ...training, non-standard and other flights The category of flight should be marked in Box M of the FPS showing a letter in a circle. It should be noted that these categories are designed for use as a method of tactical handling by ATC and not as flow control priorities. A list of status indicators to be inserted in field 18 of the flight plan, associated with flow control priorities, can be found in the U.K. AIP.

Answer 27

...the receiving ACC, sector or unit in sufficient time to permit analysis prior to any coordination

Answer 28

...passed to the appropriate ACC whenever workload and comms permit

Answer 29

1) direction of flight (eastbound or westbound) 2) aircraft ID and type 3) squawk 4) transfer point and ETA 5) level 6) true airspeed 7) route 8) destination and/or clearance limit Revisions to the estimate must be passed if: 1) there are any subsequent changes in FL, square or route or 2) the estimated time varies by in excess of 2 minutes

Answer 30

...a flight which is operating IAW the co-ordination, has reached the position or level agreed between the transferring and accepting units

Answer 31

1) at an agreed reporting point 2) on an estimate for an FIR boundary 3) at or passing an agreed level or 4) while the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level, provided that the transferring controller has ensured that standard separation will exist between the transferred aircraft and all others for the remainder of the climb or descent

Answer 32

...not to be used in response to an initial call from an aircraft.

Answer 33

...transfer of communication. Transfer of communication may be permitted so that instructions, which become effective later, can be issued. It is emphasised that an excepting ATCU which is in communication with an aircraft not having yet reached the stage of transfer of control shall not alter the clearance without the approval of the transferring unit.

Answer 34

...the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing. The actual time of leaving the holding fix will depend upon the approach clearance.

Answer 35

...landing rate and are calculated according to the traffic situation. They are to be expressed as actual times (not as time intervals) and revised if the situation changes. They are to be passed to aircraft well in advance and revised until the aircraft has left the holding facility.

Answer 36

...aircraft are to be advised ‘delay not determined’. As soon as it is possible for aircraft to re-commence approach procedures, EATs are to be issued.

Answer 37

...when changing runways

Answer 38

...EATs are to be passed to aircraft

Answer 39

...the first aircraft entering the holding pattern “no traffic delay expected”. Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”

Answer 40

...arrange the traffic so that the aircraft departs within the tolerance specified in MATS 2, which must comply with the Common Rules on ATFM.

Answer 41

...a single unit for separation/deconfliction purposes provided that the formation remains within the following parameters: Class A/C/D and IFR Class E: Military: 1nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader Civilian: 0.5nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader Or for all aircraft: as agreed following prior tactical negotiation between appropriate civil and military supervisors or as detailed in an airspace do-ordination notice (ACN) specific to the formation flight Class F/G and VFR in a Class E: Military: 1nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader Civilian: 0.5nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader Or for all aircraft: subject to tactical ATC approval, 3nm laterally and longitudinally and/or up to 1000ft vertically or as detailed in an ACN specific to the formation flight

Answer 42

...flight plans. In making initial contact with the ATCU , formation leaders should clearly state the number of aircraft in the formation; controllers are to ensure that this info is obtained prior to establishing an ATS.

Answer 43

...all other aircraft should normally be instructed to squawk standby. However, if the stream extends for 3nm or more, the last aircraft should also be allocated the same code. For longer streams, the code should be allocated to intermediate aircraft as appropriate.

Answer 44

...ensuring safe separation between aircraft comprising the formation; for military aircraft this is known as ‘Military accepts responsibility for separation of aircraft’ or MARSA.

Answer 45

1) clearly state the number of aircraft in a formation | 2) identify the full extent of any formation of more than 1nm in length

Answer 46

...normal airspace entry requirements, the general requirements and procedures above, and the additional CAS procedures specified below. All other civilian formation flights within such airspace, including SVFR, are subject to NSF approval as detailed in U.K. AIP ENR 1.1.4. In considering such advance NSF requests, unit operations departments or ATC supervisors should assess the impact of the requested routing and formation flight rules on the control take and airspace in question, also taking into account the current and forecast met conditions.

Answer 47

...in CAS without NSF approval subject to the normal airspace entry requirements, the general requirements and procedures above, and the additional CAS procedures specified below.

Answer 48

...NON RVSM compliant irrespective of the RVSM status of the individual aircraft types.

Answer 49

...monitor the relevant ATC frequency

Answer 50

...confirmation on RT that all aircraft in the formation are within the parameters as specified at paragraph 15A. In the event that formation leaders report that they are outside these parameters, controllers shall instruct the formation to remain clear of CAS and establish their intentions.

Answer 51

...confirmation that all elements of the formation have vacated the level in question before ATC re-allocate the previously assigned level. Formation leaders should confirm when all formation elements have reached the new assigned level.

Answer 52

...the for,action elements are unable to maintain within the required parameters as specified at 15A.1. In such circumstances, controllers shall establish the extent of the formation so that instructions and/or information appropriate to the airspace classification and flight rules of the formation can be provided. Where necessary, additional discrete SSR codes should be allocated to individual aircraft.

Answer 53

...the formation leader remains responsible for separation between aircraft comprising the formation until standard separation has been achieved between individual aircraft and each aircraft has been identified and placed under service. Additionally, controllers shall: 1) provide other IFR traffic with essential traffic information and instructions as necessary 2) if practicable, establish standard separation minima between all aircraft in the formation ASAP, using ATS surveillance systems if available. If normal separation minima cannot be established, the aircraft shall be given as much separation from each other as possible and the formation given directions to enable it to leave CAS by the shortest possible route.

Answer 54

...one of the aircraft is in emergency and a formation join up is essential. Military controllers have specific procedures for formation join up in CAS that take due consideration of the formation’s proximity to UARs and other airspace users.

Answer 55

...OAT. However there may be occasions when formations flight plan as GAT and receive a service from civil controllers.

Answer 56

...squawk the emergency special purpose code. It is usual practice for a military aircraft in an emergency to be followed by another element of the formation. In this circumstance, the aircraft suffering the emergency will be instructed to squawk the emergency special purpose code. If an accompanying aircraft is not already in close formation with the emergency aircraft, it will be instructed to squawk a discrete code until it has joined formation with the emergency aircraft. Where the lead aircraft in a formation is the aircraft in an emergency, the formation will advise ATC of the new leader, who must then be identified and allocated a discrete squawk.

Answer 57

...the suffix ‘Flight’ or ‘Formation’ is to be used to indicate on RT and landline that the call refers to a formation. BLACKCAT - a UK formation BLACKCAT1 - a single UK element DEADLY31 Flight - a USAF formation DEADLY31 - a USAF singleton

Answer 58

...climbing his aircraft upon receipt of a GPWS warning. The message should be acknowledged and the appropriate pressure setting passed for confirmation (QFE, QNH or RPS). The controller is to restore any eroded separation as quickly as possible.

Answer 59

...Nom-deviating status (NDS). Queries should be addressed to AR. Details in Appendix H. Aircraft, both military and civil, which have been allocated this status have an operational requirement to maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route and level(s). It is imperative that a NDS aircraft is not moved from its pre-planned flight path because this could render it operationally ineffective. If, for any reason, it is anticipated that adequate separation cannot be maintained between other aircraft and the NDS flight, controllers are to seek co-ordination with the agency providing the service to the NDS aircraft.

Answer 60

1) A concentration of aircraft that is significantly greater than normal 2) activities that may require the issue of a permission or an exemption from the ANO or rules of the air regulations 3) air shows, displays, air races or other competitions 4) activities which require the establishment of a temporary ATSU

Answer 61

...the relevant airspace controlling authority. However, many IAAs, whether in or outside CAS, involve AR in co-ordination with the sponsor and other participants and require notification of the event to the aviation community.

Answer 62

...affected ATCUs of airspace reservations or temporary procedures, which have been agreed with participating agencies by means of NOTAM and airspace co-ordination notices. This initial dissemination may be supplemented by, or transferred to, Temporary Operating Instructions or other locally produced briefing material.

Answer 63

...GAT flight priorities and NDS in addition to co-ordinating CAS-T requirements, VVIP/special/calibration flights, air to air refuelling, I lit art deployments and exercises.

Answer 64

...unmanned free balloons (eg met balloons etc) in this airspace, written permission from the CAA is required.

Answer 65

...the same rules that apply to other aircraft and subject to normal clearances. In practice balloons are only able to comply with instructions from an ATCU for changes in level. It is anticipated, although not mandatory, that clearance would be sought prior to take off and would only rarely be issued for flights in busy airspace. The minimum in-flight weather conditions by day are those required for VFR in the relevant class of airspace. Balloon flights are not permitted in Class A airspace.

Answer 66

...present and expected traffic situation when considering requests for flight and should not hesitate to refuse a clearance if other traffic is likely to be compromised. It is unlikely that balloons will be operating in wind speeds of greater than 15kt.

Answer 67

...conventional or powered sailplanes or gliders, hang gliders and paragliders and other comparable aircraft. Sailplanes are supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and do not depend on an engine for free flight.

Answer 68

1) thermal lift caused by a column of rising air 2) ride (orographic) lift caused by rising air on the windward side of a slope or ridge 3) wave lift caused by oscillations to the Lee side of high ground resulting from the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high ground

Answer 69

...deviations of up to 30deg around a straight line route in order to maximise the chances of finding lift and avoiding sink. Depending on the met conditions, sailplanes can experience rapid changes in the vertical plane. Thermalling sailplanes will, typically, circle in a thermal over an area abut 0.5nm wide. The surveillance returns, of any, may be intermittent and if apparent may appear stationary or with a downwind drift. Flights by paragliders and hang gliders will, except when ridge soaring, fly with the prevailing wind and flights of over 4h and in excess of 100nm are flown. Conventional fixed wing sailplanes have better performance and frequently plan long cross country flights in excess of 300nm and fly at speeds between 60kt and 130kt. Typically, sailplane flying involves periods of straight line flight followed by periods of gaining height

Answer 70

...radio equipped, conventional sailplanes using thermals for cross country flying, either to cross or transit CAS, or to exploit a source of thermal lift inside CAS. In crossing or transiting CAS, controllers should anticipate that the sailplanes flight path is likely to deviate around the straight line route by approx 30deg or 2nm to take advantage of lift and avoid sink and altitude may vary significantly. Where a sailplane pilot seeks to exploit a source of thermal lift, they will request to ‘thermal’ in a specific location.

Answer 71

...differ markedly by tens of degrees due to wind and that, due to the limitations of the magnetic compass typically used on sailplanes, the pilot will tend to be aware of, and navigate by, track rather than heading. Typically, the magnetic compass in a sailplanes is useful only in making the pilot aware of the cardinal direction of flight, rather than a specific magnetic heading.

Answer 72

...the traffic situation prevailing at the time and ,at consider constraining the sailplanes flight laterally through features detailed on the 1:500,000 chart, eg instructing the pilot to route west of a particular village, or no closer than a set distance from the aerodrome, or by specifying a track to follow. If it is not possible to issue a clearance immediately, the pilot must be advised when the clearance is likely to be granted.

Answer 73

...controllers are to avoid the use of the turn method, and use SSR or ADS-B where approved and the aircraft carries appropriate equipment.

Answer 74

Paragliders: 1000ft loss for every 1.5 miles Hang glider: 1000ft loss for ever 2 miles Standard class glider: 1500ft loss for every 10 miles Open class glider: 1000ft loss for every 10 miles

Answer 75

Section 1, Chapter 5. The same chapter provides information on letters of agreement between ATCUs and other airspace users, including gliding operations. Details of glider operations in TRAs are detailed in Section 4.

Answer 76

1) responding to a ‘police emergency’. The pilot of a police aircraft is likely to declare a ‘police emergency’ in situations where an immediate response is required when life is at immediate risk, or a serious crime or major incident is in progress 2) supporting ground personnel in often sensitive and serious operations 3) non-standard and other flights

Answer 77

1) flight category A; authorised for use by aircraft which have declared a police emergency 2) Flight category B; normal operational priority. The operation will not wish to draw attention to itself. The pilot will expect controllers to suggest a new altitude or minor changes to the police flight operating area in the event that the flight would cause a delay to other traffic 3) Flight category Z; authorised for training, test and other flights involving police aircraft

Answer 78

1) the RT callsign POLICE. The ICAO three letter designator is UKP 2) A 2 digit individual aircraft identified. Exceptionally, sequential 3 digit identifiers will be allocated to units operating 2 or more aircraft. These will consist of a 2 digit individual aircraft identified based root, followed by single digits to reflect the number of aircraft in a regional operation. 3j when on an operational flight, the 2 or 3 digit identifier is to be suffixed with the Flight category letter, either A or B as appropriate, to highlight to the ATS provider the priority status requested by the pilot eg POLICE10A. Flight Cat Z is not used as a callsign suffix.

Answer 79

...0032 or other such SSR codes assigned to the police and promulgated in AIP unless receiving a service from an ATSU which require a different setting to be assigned IAW their unit SSR allocation plan.

Answer 80

...special ATC coordination or handling procedures, in which case aircraft operators may consider the need for a SFN.

Answer 81

1) Cat A: applies to all HEMS flights on emergency operational tasks 2) Cat E: is authorised for use by an aircraft positioning for the purpose of conducting HEMS duties eg RTB after delivering a casualty to hospital. It is afforded priority over normal flights. 3) Cat Z: authorised for training, test and other flights involving HEMS aircraft

Answer 82

1) the RT callsign HELIMED. The ICAO three letter designator is HLE 2) A 2 digit individual aircraft identifier allocated to each HEMS aircraft. 3) when on a flight that is afforded priority, the 2 digit identifier is to be suffixed with the Flight category letter, either A or BE as appropriate, to highlight to the ATS provider the priority status requested by the pilot eg HELIMED10A. Flight Cat Z is not used as a callsign suffix. On routine operational tasks, training or other flights, no suffix letter will be appended eg HELIMED01

Answer 83

...a court order, which prevents a defendant from removing assets from the U.K. and, thus, from the jurisdiction of the court. ATS providers and their personnel may be notified of Mareva injunctions imposed on specific aircraft. Although an injunction is most likely to be served at the aerodrome where the aircraft is located, it is possible that an injunction could also be notified to an ATSU in relation to an aircraft in flight.

Answer 84

...aircraft registration rather than a particular callsign. Upon receipt of such a mareva injunction, ATS providers should establish whether they are in communication with the aircraft in question.

Answer 85

You are subject to a court order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom. What are your intentions? This procedure is to be applied irrespective of whether the aircraft is conducting an internal U.K. or an international flight.

Answer 86

...detrimental to flight safety; consequently, ATS should continue to be provided as normal, even in the event that the pilot continues his flight. It should be noted that Mareva injunctions are relevant to international flight and that aircraft subject to such an injunction could be flying legitimately on an internal flight with no intention of leaving the UK territorial boundaries.

Answer 87

...ATS providers should also consider taking legal advice as required in order to ensure that the procedures are consistent with legal obligations in relation to the injunction.