Main terms Flashcards
1
Q
emergency department services, physician direction of advanced life support
A
emergency - cpt code 99288
2
Q
intertochanteric femoral fracture (closed treatment)
A
fracture, femur, intertrochanteric, closed treatment - cpt code 27238
3
Q
removal of gallbladder calculi by means of an open procedure
A
removal, caliculi (stone) - cpt code 47480
4
Q
lung, bullae resection
A
resection, lung, bullae - cpt code 32141
5
Q
providers are reimbursed for the procedures and services rendered based on what code
A
cpt/hcpcs
6
Q
what organization first published the cpt coding system
A
AMA
7
Q
a common, concise coding system is required by what law
A
HIPAA
8
Q
name the box location on the CMS-1500 form for cpt/hcpcs codes
A
24D
9
Q
what symbol indicates that the description for a code has changed
A
triangle
10
Q
what appendix are modifiers located in
A
six
11
Q
how many sections are in the cpt manual
A
six
12
Q
guidelines that are applicable to all codes are found at the beginning of what
A
each section
13
Q
before assigning an indented code, refer to the preceding
A
stand-alone
14
Q
what appendix are clinical examples located in
A
appendix C
15
Q
a procedure or service not found in the cpt manual may be coded as what
A
unlisted procedure
16
Q
reporting a category III code requires a
A
special report
17
Q
what type of cpt codes have 4 numbers followed by a letter
A
category III codes
18
Q
single codes displayed in the cpt index should be verified in the _______portion of the cpt manual to ensure accuracy
A
tabular
19
Q
coding system devloped by the american medical association
A
CPT
20
Q
special guides that help the coder compare codes and descriptors with the previous edition of cpt
A
symbols
21
Q
provides specific instruction about coding for each section of the cpt manual
A
guidelines
22
Q
supplemental codes used for performance measurements
A
category II
23
Q
temporary cpt codes
A
category III
24
Q
existing from birth
A
congenital
25
period of time a surgical procedure is being performed
intraoperative
26
after childbirth
postpartum
27
pertaining to the cervix of the uterus
cervical
28
expansion of the cervix
dilation
29
the perinatal period starts before birth through how many days after birth
28 days
30
exclude and include notes are only referenced where
tabular
31
pressure ulcers are graded and reported based on the stage of the ulcer and
depth
32
when a disease is documented as a portion of the bone at the joint, which site designation should be reported
bone
33
fx due to a bone disease
pathological fx
34
concentration of mineral salts also known as a stone
calculus
35
what main term in the index should you lacate first to find teh causative organism
infection
36
when a pt presents for management of anemia associated with a malignancy and the encounter is for the anemia only, what is sequenced as the primary dx for this encounter
malignancy
37
name 2 types of anemia due to blood loss located as subterms in the index
chronic and acute
38
whay type of code is applied for dementia with parkinsonism
combination code
39
new tumor growth that can be benign or malignant
neoplasm
40
study of the structures, composition, and function of the tissues
histology
41
infalmmatory condition in response to microorganisms in the tissue, blood, lungs, skin, or urinary system
sepsis
42
medical condition that is present in conjunction with another medical condition, potentially hidden at first
underlying condition
43
what condition is reported as the first listed diagnosis when otitis media is the result of an underlying disease
underlying desease
44
2 codes are required for reporting secondary HTN, sequencing of these codes is based on what?
reason for the encounter
45
causative organism is also known as etiology, what is the disease process also described as
manifestation
46
a dash (-) at the end of an alphabetic index entry indicates what requirement
additional characters
47
instructional notes are included in what list
tabular
48
section IV of the ICD-10 official guidelines for coding and reporting is for what type of coding
outpatient
49
dehydration with pneumonia is not considered an ______ part of a disease process
integral
50
when a code first note is indicated and the patient has an underlying condition documented, which is listed as teh principle or first list diagnosis
underlying condition
51
when a condition is described as both acute and chronic with separate subentries in the alphabetic index at the same indention level, which is coded first
acute
52
when one code can identify 2 diagnoses or a diagnosis with an associated complication it is considered what type of code
combination
53
what type of diagnosis codes do you report when the acute phase of an illness or injury has passed but residual remains
late effects
54
laterality refers to what type of organs
paired
55
use of more than one ICD 10 code to fully describe a condition
multiple coding
56
single ICD 10 code used to classify 2 diagnoses
combination code
57
sudden onset and short duration
acute
58
a condition that follows an illness
sequela
59
occuring on 2 sides
bilateral
60
in the outpatient setting, the term first listed diagnosis is used in lieu of what diagnosis
principle
61
what diagnosis is used when the documented condition is not confirmed in the oupatient setting
signs and symptoms
62
what is the first listed diagnosis when a patient presents for outpatient surgery
reason for surgery
63
is is important to code all the conditions or problems that are being managed during an encounter to support what
data integrity
64
z codes are used more frequently in what setting
outpatient
65
what 2 code categories are used to report the 1st listed diagnosis for medical observation for suspected conditions and conditions ruled out
Z03 and Z04
66
additional diagnosis codes are used to report what conditions
coexisting
67
in what setting are uncertain diagnoses reported
inpatient
68
what type of condition may be reported as many times as the patient receives care or treatment for
chronic
69
what code is assigned for encounters for routine lab/radiology testing in the absence of any signs, symptoms, or associated diagnosis
Z01.89 - encounter for other specified special examinations
70
when the primary reason for therapeutic services is chemotherapy or radiation therapy, what code category is assigned as the first listed diagnosis
Z codes
71
what code is assigned as an additional diagnosis for patients receiving preoperative evaluations
condition that describes the reason for the surgery
72
for routine outpatient prenatal visits when no complications are present, what code category is assigned
Z34
73
when the postoperative diagnosis is different than the preoperative diagnosis at the time the diagnosis is confirmed, which diagnosis is reported
postoperative diagnosis
74
type of codes used to classify persons who are not currently sick
Z codes
75
section of the official guidelines for coding and reporting that includes selection of principal diagnosis for non outpatient settings
section II
76
assigned to indicate a patient has the sequelae or residual of a past disease or condition
status code
77
classification of health condition due to external cause, never reported as a first listed diagnosis
external cause code
78
a diagnosis that is documented at the time of discharge as probable, suspected, possible or rule out are what
uncertain diagnosis
79
how many alphanumeric positions do level II codes hold
5
80
what code grouping reports temporary codes assigned by CMS
Q codes
81
what code group is use by state medicaid agencies
T codes
82
where are level II modifers found in the HCPCS manual
after the table of drugs section or preceding the A codes
83
what name are J codes referred to in the table of drugs
generic
84
which A code would you report for a surgical tray
A4550
85
collection of codes that represents procedures, supplies, products, and services
HCPCS healthcare common procedure coding system
86
codes no longer available since the implementation of HIPAA
level III or local codes
87
reported when no existing level II code adequately describes the service or item being billed
miscelaneous codes
88
introduction of fluid into a tissue, vessel, or cavity
injection
89
equipment used by a patient with a chronic disabling condition
DME
90
what part of the cpt manual lists a full description for all modifiers
appendix A
91
when a cpt code does not fully explain an unusual procedure, what should be added to the code
modifier
92
what a modifier is applied to a surgical procedure to indicate increased physician work was performed
-22
93
what modifier is applied to indicate a service for which general anesthesia was used when normally normally local anesthesia would be iundicated
-23
94
what modifier is applied to indicate and E&M encounter was performed and not related to a current global period
-24
95
when a pt comes into the office twice in one day for different medical reasons, the -25 modifier should be applied to which visit
second E&M
96
what modifier indictes the professional component of a diagnostic test
-26
97
third-party payers require this modifier for a mandated service
-32
98
modifier -33 indicates a covered preventive service, what organization grades preventive services
US preventative services task force (USPSTF)
99
modifier -47 anesthesia by the surgeon, is never added to what cpt code
anesthesia codes
100
how many units of service may be billed when reporting the -50 modifier to medicare
one unit
101
when reporting -51 modifier to indicate multiple procedures performed, which procedure should be reported first on the claim
primary procedure
102
some payers may decrease thepayment on a procedure when this modifier is applied
-52
103
modifier -53, discontinued procedure, is never reported with E&M codes or codes based on what
time
104
when the surgeon transfers postoperative care to another physician, report with what modifier
-54
105
modifier -55 is used for services provided to the pt after what disposition
discharge from the hospital
106
medicare considers what service to be part of the surgery and bundled payment not allowing the -56 modifier
preoperative
107
E/M services provided the day before or the day of a major surgery are included in what package
global days
108
a planned procedure intended to include the original procedure plus one or more subsequent procedures is indicated by what modifier
-58
109
modifier -59 is applicable to all cpt codes except what type of codes
E/M codes and weekly radiation management
110
period of time a surgical procedure is being performed
intraoperative
111
inform third party payers of circumstances that may affect the way payment is made
modifiers
112
describing a physicians services in radiology or pathology
professional component
113
describing the services provided by the facility
technical component
114
bundling together of time, effort, and services for a specific procedure into one code instead of reporting each component separately
surgical package
