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Cdcr > Major 3 > Flashcards

Major 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Any form of unauthorized release

And is also a felony.

A

Escape

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2
Q

Almost all escapes are preventable

True or false

A

True

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3
Q

Primary mission of cdcr

A

Provide safety and security to the pulblic.

If escapes occur we have not done our job.

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4
Q

The most important reason for escape prevention is:

A

Safety

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5
Q

Fairlure to know and follow escape prevention procedures may adversely affect:

A

Your career

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6
Q

What is the primary objective of correctional institutions.

A

Your responsibility is to prevent escapes. There are serious consequences for not following policies, procedures, rules and regulations.

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7
Q

Escapes can:

A

.Endanger staff, inmates and the public

.result in criticism by the media and legislature

.break public trust

.damages punlic relations

.discredit the department

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8
Q

Identify methods of escape which have been used by inmates.

A

Impersonating staff, vendors, contractors or visitors.

Walking away

Using accomplices

Staff assistance

Ramming the gate with a vehicle

Using state tools

Using inmate manufactured tools

Force by taking hostages

Tunneling from inside to outside

Hiding in trucks, cars and dumpsters.

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9
Q

What are the 4 basic correctional awareness rules.

A

Security
Awareness
Follow-up
Evaluate yourselves

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10
Q

Correctional awareness means:

A

Paying attention to detail

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11
Q

Most escapes happen when:

A

Staff do not follow rules, policies and regulations.

Staff do not maintain awareness (become complacent)

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12
Q 
Windows, gates, doors:
Check:
            Cut bars
            Loose manhole covers
            Locks that appear to have been 
            tampered with
Check equipment:
                Keys
                Tools
                Supplies

Check for altered equipment. Measure ropes and hoses before and after use to ensure lengths have not been altered.

A

Security

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13
Q
  • Observant of your areas
  • Knowledgeable of rules and policies
  • Aware of inmate activities at all times
  • Aware of unusual sounds and smells

•be familiar with inmates habits and determine what is unsusual and proactively look out for it.

A

Awareness

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14
Q
  • Folllow up on suspicious activities, documents, broken equipment or any other item.
  • All broken, altered, or missing items need to be reported to your supervisor immediately and documented in your housing unit or worksite logbook.
A

Follow-up

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15
Q

Evaluate your own performance. Work hard. Do not become relaxed or complacent. Stay motivated and do your job.

A

Evaluate yourself

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16
Q

What do you do when an inmate changes his appearance.

A
  • inmates must carry their state id at all times. If thier physical appearance changes, they must be escorted to receiving and release (R&R) for a new photo.
  • contact R&R and have them duct the inmate to get a new card. Confiscate the old id card when the neq one is issued.
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17
Q

What should you do when parking vehicles and securing vehicles.

A

While on grounds: never leave a vehicle unattended or running. State vehicles have designated parking spots to ensure a quick account in the event of an escape. You always:

Park in appropriate parking space
Lock the ignition switch
Lock doors
Properly store keys

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18
Q

Items prohibited in a secure area

A 
Electronic equipment 
Knives, including pocket knives 
Tools (screw driver, pliers, leather-man etc)
Metal utensils 
Ammunition and weapons 
Extra clothing
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19
Q

HOUSING CLASSIFICATION

Inmate placement (classification) scores are determined with the cdc 839 classifications score sheet. The sheet assigns numerical values for:

A
  • age of first arrest and at reception
  • term of incarceration
  • street gang or disruptive group membership
  • mental illness
  • prior incarceration/behavior
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20
Q

Custody, score range and housing

A

Level I- facility and camp 0-18

Level II- open dormitories, secure perimeter, possible armed coverage. 19-35

Level III- secure perimeter with armed coverage; housing units with cells adjacent to exterior walls. 36-59

Level IV- secure perimeter with internal and external armed coverage; housing units with cells or block housing with cells non-adjacent to exterior walls. 60-up

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21
Q

Housed in single single cells in a security or specialized housing unit. Activities confined to their housing units, constant and direct supervision.

A

Maximum custody

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22
Q

Cell areas designated and maintained for higher security needs with general population; secure perimeter. Activities between 0600-1800, security areas in walled facilities; constant and direct supervision.

A

Close A

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23
Q

Cells in secured area; activities between 0600-2000 within housing unit secure perimeter, constant and direct supervision.

A

Close B

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24
Q

Housed in cells or dormitories within a secure perimeter, activities within facility security perimeter, and constant and direct supervision.

A

Medium A

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25
Q

Housed in cells or dormitories; activities within security perimeter. May be given daytime assignments outside perimeter, but must remain on grounds. Frequent and direct supervision inside perimeter, constant and direct outside perimeter.

A

Medium B

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26
Q

Housed in cells and dormitories in security perimeter, assignments in or outside of secure perimeter, hourly supervision inside perimeter to ensure inmate are present.

A

Minimum A

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27
Q

Housed in the cells or dormitories on grounds or in a camp. Activities include eligibility for emergency fire fighting, off reservation work; community betterment and camp. Supervision to ensure inmate is present; count is done 4 times in 24 hours.

A

Minimum B

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28
Q

Acts as an oxidizing agent, supporting the reaction

A

Oxygen

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29
Q

The material, which combines with oxygen to support combustion

A

Fuel

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30
Q

The environment for a fire, raising the temperature to create flammable vapors

A

Heat

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31
Q

Water, foam, dry materials or a fire extinguisher

A

Class A combustible

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32
Q

Smothering and fire extinguisher

A

Class B flammable liquids

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33
Q

Remove electricity, then extinguish as a class A or B

A

Class C electrical wires overheated equipment

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34
Q

Apply metal X or dry sand

A

Class D combustible metals

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35
Q

Deaths by fire normally result from one or both of the following reasons:

A

Burns from heat

Toxic gases:
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide

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36
Q

What is the leading cause of death in fires

A

Carbon monoxide

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37
Q

Most victims die from fires by inhaling:

A

Gasses and smoke

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38
Q

What are the three components of an institutional fire safety plan

A

Preparedness, prevention, suppression

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39
Q

How many feet must inmates be moved away from a building in a fire evacuation?

A

50 feet

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40
Q

What is your responsibility for fire safety preparedness at your work area?

A

KNow the fire evacuation plan and routes

Ensure fire exits are clearly marked and free of obstructions

Have MSDS readily accessible

Properly train all inmates under your supervision.

Document inmate training and obtain their signature

Know the location and function of fire suppression equipment

Conduct regular fire inspections and read and be familiar with the fire safety plan

Know emergency phone numbers and who to notify of equipment needs

Identify keys to locked exit doors and fire equipment by sight and touch.

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41
Q

What are the principal methods for achieving fire prevention goals in the institution?

A

Perform regular sale, dorm and area searches

Regularly inspect for electrical hazards

Maintain good housekeeping

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42
Q

When performing regular cell, dorm and area searches you should:

“Fire hazard”

A

Confiscate contraband, limit or remove combustible property, inspect common areas, make sure sprinkler heads are not obstructed

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43
Q

When regularly inspecting for electrical hazards you should:

A

Inspect for overloaded circuits and appliances, no unauthorized electrical appliances, ensure appropriate clearance of electrical panels

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44
Q

When maintaining good housekeeping you should:

A

Clean up debris, trash and clutter, read SDS, ensure proper storage of flammable, chemicals and equipment etc.

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45
Q

What actions should you take when responding to a minor fire?

A

Identify the class of fire A,B,C or D

Identify proper suppression device

Extinguish fire if safe to do so

Notify fire department

Get medical attention if necessary

Evacuate if necessary

Contact supervisor and/or plant operations

Preserve area as a crime scene

Identify suspects

Ventilate area once fire is out

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46
Q

Identify actions to take when responding to a major fire

A

Notify the fire department

Contact supervisor and/or plant operations

Evacuate and account for all occupants in the area

Isolate the fire

Get medical attention if necessary

Preserve area as a crime scene

Identify suspects

Ventilate area once fire is out

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47
Q

Identify the steps required to activate a fire extinguisher and suppressed a fire

PASS

A

P- pull: the pin
A-aim: the nozzle
S-squeeze: the handle completely
S-sweep: nozzle from side to side

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48
Q

What are the professional and ethical responsibilities of an officer when conducting a search

A

Practice good communications, be respectful,make sure searches are nonpunitive, maintain accountability of property, practice safety and security

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49
Q

How are are you going to practice good communication when searching inmate property

A

During a search, clearly state why you are searching and the expectations of the inmate

50
Q

How will you be respectful when searching inmate property

A

As peace officers we are expected to respect the dignity and humanity of each inmate. Disrespect creates animosity

51
Q

When searching inmates property how will you make sure searches are nonpunitive

A

Sell and property searches are necessary in order to detect and control serious contraband and to maintain institution security

52
Q

How will you practice safety and security during inmate/property searches

A

If possible, always have a cover officer present while conducting searches

53
Q

Why are searches conducted

A

Promote safety: safety of staff, inmates and security of the institution

Prevent escape: every piece of mail, property, and clothing entering an institution is inspected for contraband to minimize the possibility of escape

Prevent contraband:there is no need for money in an institution and drugs are prohibited, inmates will go through great links to smuggle drugs; they use family, friends, and even staff

Reduce theft: inmates resort to stealing from other inmates as well as the state. Items include food, supplies, tools, etc. therefore, clothed and unclothed body searches are conducted

54
Q

Identify when searches are conducted

A

Routinely: in order to maintain safety and security of an institution, you are required to search three cells every shift

randomly: per title 15, section 3287 (c)-inspections of inmate cell and living areas, property and work areas, and body shall be conducted on unannounced, random basis. Shall be conducted no more frequently than necessary to control contraband, recover missing or stolen property, or maintain proper security of the institution

reasonable suspicion: in addition to routine and random searches, they can occur when there is reasonable suspicion that the inmate may have unauthorized or dangerous items or substances concealed on their person or in their living area

55
Q

What safety equipment is used to conduct searches

A

Gloves PPE

Mirror

Flashlight

56
Q

Identify safety precautions to take when conducting searches

A

Look before you touch

Be aware of sharps

Get a cover officer

57
Q

What are reasons to conduct the systematic search

A

It eliminates the possibility of errors as the search is conducted

Provides points of reference

Prevents misperceptions

58
Q

——-is defined as methodical in procedure or plan, and marked by thoroughness, and regularity.

A

Systematic

59
Q

Identify the three types of body searches conducted

A

Clothed, Unclothed and body cavity intrusion

60
Q

Conducted routinely and during emergencies in the presence of others; inmates do not remove their clothes and can be conducted when inmates are moving between locations.

A

Clothed body search

61
Q

Conducted by having the inmate remove all clothing, searching the clothing, and making a visual inspection of the inmates body to include: mouth, ears, nose and anal area. This search is generally conducted when there is reasonable suspicion of concealing drugs/contraband that cannot be observed with a clothed body search

A

Unclothed body search

62
Q

Requires authorization from the warden or his/her designee.

Requires restraint of an inmate and escort to medical personnel

Procedure must be conducted in a medical setting

Do not remove any items found

Forcible retrieval of contraband by intrusion will be avoided; unless a medical doctor determines that failure to remove the contraband presents an imminent danger to the life of the inmate

A

Body cavity (intrusion)

63
Q

What is the primary and secondary concern when you discover contraband

A

Primary concern is safety and security:
Officer safety and institutional security is the primary concern when contraband is discovered during a search
Call for assistance, exercise caution, and notify your supervisor
Never place your safety or the safety of others at risk
If you discover a substance use the spec to be drugs, do not sample or taste it.

Secondary concern is contraband:
Prevent destruction of the contraband or evidence
Prevent access to sinks, drains and toilets
If you discover a weapon during a search that is not easily accessible, do not attempt to retrieve it. Immediately handcuff the inmate to prevent him/her from obtaining the weapon and call for assistance

64
Q

Why does CDCR regulate inmate property

A

To ensure the safety and security of the community, the institution, staff and inmates

To standardize the procedures for handling inmate property

To establish accountability

To detect the introduction of contraband

65
Q

Identify occasions when you will inventory inmate property

A

The inmate is rehoused in administrative segregation unit

The inmate is placed in the hospital/infirmary due to an accident or emergency and will not return within 24 hours

The inmate dies

The inmate escapes.The inmates cell could be made a crime scene in staff from ISU would conduct a search in inventory the property

As instructed by a supervisor

66
Q

Inventory is recorded on a

A

CDC – 1083 property inventory form

67
Q

Give a list of state issued property to inmates and personal canteen items.

A 
(LINEN)
One pair of work shoes
Two sheets
One pillowcase
Two towels
Two blankets
(CLOTHING)
Three pairs of blue denim jeans
Three blue chambray shirts
Four white undershirts
Six pairs of socks
Four pairs of white undershorts 
One blue denim jacket
One Web belt
(Personal canteen items)
Television
Jewelry
Food
Radios
Soda
Potato chips
Guitar
Electric razor etc.
68
Q

Identify the four situations when use of chemical agents would be appropriate as non-deadly force options

A

GOES

Gain compliance with the lawful order
Overcome resistance
Effect custody
Subdue an attacker

69
Q

Color code- red
Common name- tear gas
Chemical class- lachrymator
Odor- lilac

A

Chloroacteophenone (CN)

In it’s pure form, CN is a white crystalline solid resembling salt or sugar and is 5 times heavier than air. The effect dissipates between 5 to 15 minutes

70
Q

Color code – blue
Common name – teargas
Chemical class – irritant
Older – pungent or peppery

A

Orthochlorobenzalmalononitrile (CS)

In its pure form, CS is a white crystalline solid resembling talcum powder having a wait 3 times heavier than air, and possesses a pungent, pepper like odor. The effect dissipate between 5-15 minutes.

71
Q

Color code – orange
Common name – pepper spray
Chemical class – inflammatory
Odor – depends on the carrier, pungent or peppery

A

Oleoresin capsicum (OC)

OC reaction time varies from one individual to another

72
Q

What are two forms and chemical agents used in the department

A

Solid – granulated agent combined it with a pyrotechnic device

Liquid – the agent is suspended in a liquid solvent.

“All dispersing methods begin with the chemical agents in one of three forms”

“Liquid forms can be either in aerosol or fogger, while solid forms can be either micro – pulverize powder (blast) or granules (pyrotechnics)

73
Q

A liquid agent. A Chemical agent that operates exactly the same way a can of spray paint does. A pressurized gas disperses the chemical agent on a liquid carrier in a stream or mist

A

Aerosoles

74
Q

Chemical agents, in a solid-state, are always dispersed using a pyrotechnic device.

The pyrotechnic grenades can be identified by their emission ports/hole. When ignited, they burn at approximately 750° to 800°. They are typically 40% agent and 60% fuel.

Recommended for large areas, not for indoors due to potential fires.

A

Pyrotechnics

75
Q

Micro pulverized agents CS and OC are normally disbursed by a blast type of device. And explosive blastd spreads the agent over an area. Blast grenades can be identified by the presence of rupture grooves. This type of grenade has a quick discharge time, eliminating the possibility of being thrown back, and can be used both in and outdoors. This method is very effective for clearing groups of inmates in the immediate area.

A

Blasts

76
Q

Identify actions correctional peace officers will take before chemical agents may be used

A

Make reasonable efforts to verbally direct inmates to comply with Staff instructions, when possible

Before chemical agents can be used, I understand the totality of the circumstances which include: gravity of the situation, present danger of injury to staff, inmates and property, consequences that may occur if inmates will not comply

77
Q

Identify the reasons why proper use of chemical agents is important to a correctional peace officer

A

Chemical agents are very effective method of controlling violent or aggressive inmates

Chemical agents are dangerous to inmates and staff if used improperly

You and CDCR can’t be held personally liable if chemical agents are used improperly

78
Q

Identify an example of improper use of chemical agents

A

The continued application of chemical agents after control has been gained. Chemical agents can cause death if they displace oxygen to less than 19.5%

Any use of chemical agents motivated consciously or subconsciously by the desire to punish or retaliate violate policy and is morally and ethically wrong

79
Q

Identify the procedures required when chemical agents are used in a controlled use of force situation

A

Requires authorization in the presence of a first or second level manager, or in administrative officer of the day AOD during nonbusiness hours. The decision to use chemical agents will be made by the incident commander on site manager

During a controlled use of force only certain types of chemical agents may be used. The supervisors overseeing the cell extraction are responsible to ensure the correct type and amount is being used

For controlled use of force incidents involving inmates housed in departmental hospitals, infirmaries, correctional treatment centers, enhance outpatient programs, and psychiatric services unit, or inmates who have an EOP level of care designation, a licensed health care employee, designated by the chief executive officer, shall be consulted prior to the use of chemical agents.

80
Q

Identify why inmates, once exposed to OC spray and placed in restraints are not to be left on their stomachs

A

OC spray restripped’s the airway due to inflammation of the trachea, making it difficult to breathe.

Once inmates are exposed to OC spray and placed in restraints, there is a danger of positional asphyxia if inmates are left on their stomachs for extended period of time.

After being exposed to OC spray, persons may not be able to breathe it placed facedown: avoid compressing the chest due to pressure from body weight etc. if the inmate is vomiting, check regularly to ensure the inmate is not having difficulty breathing as this can result in the inmates is asphyxiating on their own vomit

When inmates are exposed to chemical agents, you may place them on their stomachs long enough to get them into restraints, but then get them standing, sitting, or laying on their side as quick as possible.

This is one reason why hog tying is not authorized by Cdcr

Never allow inmates to roll onto their stomach

81
Q

What are the three types of contamination that can occur when chemical agents are used

A

Direct physical contamination, indirect contamination, area contamination

82
Q

This type of contamination is described as direct physical contact with the chemical agent use

A

Direct physical contamination

83
Q

This type is described as an indirect contact with the chemical agent used. A (—) contamination is the result of physically touching another person or an item, which has just been contaminated.

A

Indirect contamination

84
Q

This type of contamination is best described as an area contaminated with the chemical agent used. An example of this contamination is entering an inside or outside area that has just been contaminated by a chemical agent

A

Area contamination

85
Q

Identify the 10 tactical considerations for delivery of chemical agents

A

Wind, exit routes, obstructions, fire hazards, community exposures, contaminated areas, terrain, physical plant/layout, climate, communication

86
Q

Identify the three considerations to determine before you dispersed chemical agents in an outdoor setting

A

The direction of the wind, the speed of the wind, the size of the target

87
Q

Why is it necessary for a protective mask to be properly fitted and used

A

Your chemical agent protective mask, when used properly, makes it possible for you to function within an area or near people exposed to chemical agents

The mask filters out minuscule particles. The mask is not designed to provide protection in and immediately dangerous life and health threatening situation such as oxygen deficiency or the presence of atmosphere replacing chemicals

88
Q

What are the six parts of a protective mask

A

Head harness – six adjustable straps that go over your head

Filter/canister – removes agents from the air as you inhale

Inhalation port- allows the filter to attach to the facepiece, there are two intake valves

Exhalation port – allows you to Exhale

Voicebox – allows for vocal communication

Lens/facepiece – allows you to see or view

89
Q

Identify the first step in any decontamination process of an individual

A

The first step in any decontamination process is to remove the individual from the contaminated area to an open up wind the area

Keep the contaminated individual reassured, calm, and restrict their activity

Major discomfort should disappear in 5 to 45 minutes, depending upon chemical agent used

90
Q

You will identify basic procedures for area decontamination after use of chemical agents

A

Remove and ventilate: pick up and remove any spent a chemical agent casings and ventilate the building by opening windows or activating fans.

Protect other areas: ensure ventilation system is off to avoid spreading agent to other areas

Clear area

• with OC spray, clean area with copious amounts of water. For CS and CN ventilate the area

91
Q

Identify the major drug problems inside institutions

A

Marijuana, heroin, methamphetamine, cocaine and prescription medications

92
Q

You will identify the four most common methods for using drugs

A

Orally, snorting, smoking, injecting

93
Q

Identify the avenues used to smuggle drugs into institutions

A

Visiting
Mail
Staff

94
Q

You will identify the four purposes for testing an offender for controlled substances

A

Random selection: as a condition of the offenders participation in; civil attic program, substance abuse treatment program, program or work assignment were testing is required, result of institutions random selection process

Suspect: there is a reasonable suspicion that the offender may have; recently used controlled substance, offender is in possession of controlled substance, offender is in possession of drug paraphernalia.

Mandatory: mandatory random drug testing as ordered on finding of guilt in a disciplinary hearing

Family visiting/temporary community: as a condition in participating in a family visiting/temporary community leave.

95
Q

Identify actions to be taken when you suspect in offender is under the influence of drugs or alcohol.

A

Call for back up: when assistance arrives, approach offender With caution. Don’t let offender wash hands; this will destroy drug residuals. If they are carrying drugs, offenders may become violent

Hand cuff the offender

Perform a clothed body search

Confiscate the contraband: items without contaminating; never smell or taste the drugs

Take them to a designated spot for unclothed body search

Notify your supervisor as soon as possible

Search their cell or living quarters

Document and report your findings

Document in evidence log book

96
Q

When documenting evidence in a logbook what should you put in there

A

Name and Cdcr # of each offender

Type of substance confiscated

Amount (volume or wait)

Where it will be stored

Disposition of each substance

97
Q

What are the four safety rules when handling less leathal impact weapons at all times

A

Treat all weapons as if they are loaded

Never point a weapon at a person unless you’re willing to shoot them

Never place your finger on the trigger until you’re ready to fire

Always be sure of the target and what is Beyond it before firing the weapon

98
Q

The single shot 40 mm lunch or maybe equipped with single or double action. Cdcr authorizes the weapon to be used in double action.

True or false

A

True

99
Q

The 40 mm has rifling inside the barrel. The rifling causes the round to spin as it exits the barrel. The spinning action stabilizes the flight of the round, which increases the accuracy of the projectile.

True or false

A

True

100
Q

What is used to deploy chemical agents and impact munitions

A

The 40 mm rifled bore launcher

101
Q

Identify the authorized three safe holding/caring positions approved for impact munitions launchers

A

Indoor ready

Low ready

Contact ready

102
Q

What position should the launcher be in when unloading and loading

A

The contact ready position with your fingers indexed

103
Q

How many times should you attempt to fire a round until you open the breach and deposit the round in a safe location

A

Twice

104
Q

When firing the multishot launcher:

A

If around does not fire, keep the weapon pointed at the intended target

Attempt to fire the launcher again

If the round again does not fire, then cycle the cylinder to the next round by pulling the for grip to the rear, then push it forward

The launcher is then ready to be fired again

105
Q

Consist of all areas of the legs and buttocks. Striking the target in—while avoiding the groin area is very effective and achieves maximum effect without serious injury. When the point of impact munitions during less lethal situations this zone is the only authorized zone to target

A

Zone 1

106
Q

Muscle areas shoulder, upper arm and forearm area, skeletal area wrist and elbow’s

Consist of skeletal and medium muscle groups

This zone is not approved as a target zone in non-lethal use of force situations. It was found that while targeting this zone, the dynamics of the situation resulted in a frequent zone three strikes

A

Zone 2

107
Q

Consist of vital areas of the body, which may cause unconsciousness, great bodily injury, shock, or death. Head and neck, chest, solar Plexus, growing, spine and lower back.

Due to the possibility of causing injury or death, do not aim at this zone in situations where nonlethal force is warranted

A

Zone 3

108
Q

How many types of impact munitions projectiles are authorized

A

Three types

109
Q

Multiple payloads of either .32 or .60 caliber rubber balls

Authorized as direct fire munitions with any fictive range of 10 to 40 feet

They should not be deployed at distances less than 10 feet

At distances of 10 to 20 feet, the aim point is zone one

At distances of 20 to 40 feet the aim point should be lowered zone one knees and below due to spread pattern

The 40 A – 40 mm—– round projectiles .60 caliber balls

As distance increases, the chance of striking an individual in the face increases

A

Stinger rounds

110
Q

Munitions with multiple pillows of three projectiles which may be made from the following three materials

40 F – 40 mm foam smokeless

40 R – 40 mm rubber

40 W – 40 mm wood

A

Baton rounds

111
Q

Foam, wood and Robert baton rounds look identical from the outside appearance; however, due to their very different aim points, you should always read this side of each round to determine if it is direct fire (foam) or indirect fire (wood and rubber) rounds

True or false

A

True

112
Q

Direct fire munitions with an effective range. And rounds should not be deployed at less than 10 feet.

At distances of 10 to 20 feet, the aim point is zone one.

At distances of 20 to 40 feet the aim point is lower zone one knees and below

A

Foam baton (direct fire/10-40)

113
Q

These two rounds are indirect only.

They have effective range of up to 60 feet. From elevated post, the aim point should be approximately 3 feet in front of the target. From a ground-level post, the aim point should be approximately 9 feet in front of the target.

A

Wood and rubber baton (indirect fire/10-60)

114
Q

These rounds or highly accurate; spin stabilized and direct fire munitions

Zone one is the only authorize zone. Do not deploy less than 10 feet away. The effective range is 10 to 105 feet. Approved Cdcr round combined tactical system CTS 4557 and armor holding exact impact AHEI XM 1006

A

Sponge round Direct fire/10–105

115
Q

The time between when the shooter observes the situation unfolding, makes the decision to use for us, and take the time to physically deploy that force.

Observe decide deploy

A

Lag time

116
Q

All post orders must be reviewed when you are assigned to the post. A new review must be completed when the post orders have been revise or upon returning from an extended absence.

True or false

A

True

117
Q

What are armed post three additional requirements

A

Detailed instructions regarding the use of firearms. The use of force policy. Post orders must be read on a daily basis

118
Q

Identify mandatory items that must be accounted for on an armed post institutional post inventory sheet

A

All weapons prior to assuming the post, note any damage or discrepancy (i.e. Serial numbers of weapons must be listed in match the inventory)

All other armory related equipment, note any damage or discrepancies (ammunition must be listed in counted; all rounds of ammunition must Match inventory.

119
Q

What are the four ways to safely handle weapons at an arm post

A

Secure the fire arm to your build with a lanyard when carrying it inside an institution, unless time does not permit, due to an eminent emergency. Carrie fire arm when ever any during accessing your post is open or unsecured. Cherry or rack weapons as specified per DOM and operation procedures. Take all weapons with you where there is no custody staff available to maintain direct control of them

120
Q

Identify how are Marie related evidence must be transported from an armed post.

A

You hand The weapon over to an ISU member and/or an armor/range master; they will place the weapon in a lot containers. Physical barriers shall be present to prevent inmates from gaining access to personnel transporting firearms or munitions

Cdcr (6 decks)

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