male/female reproductive Flashcards

(30 cards)

1
Q

What is normal vaginal pH?

A

3.8-4.2

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2
Q

What are distinct features of candida infections? How is it treated?

A

low pH, white curdy discharge, pseudohyphae (spaghetti and meatballs), tx with fluconazole etc.

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3
Q

What are distinct features of bacterial vaginosis? How is it treated?

A

high pH, thin, white/gray discharge, positive “whiff” test with fishy odor, clue cells, some itching, tx with metronidazole or oral or topical, clindamycin

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4
Q

What are distinct features of chlamydia/nongonococcal urethritis?

A

irritative voiding symptoms, some drainage, large number WBCs and CERVICITIS, tx with azithromycin 1gm x1 or doxy

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5
Q

What are distinct features of gonorrhoea/gonococccal urethritis? How is it treated?

A

irritative voiding symptoms, some drainage, large number WBCs, tx with rocephin IM x1, and azithromycin x1 dose.

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6
Q

What are distinct features of trichomoniasis? How is it treated?

A

dysuria, severe itching, yellow-green vaginal discharge, cervical petechial hemorrhages “strawberry spots” High pH. tx with metronidazole x1 dose

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7
Q

What are distinct features of PID? How is it treated?

A

cervical motion tenderness, abd pain, fever. tx with rocephin plus doxycycline

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8
Q

How is epididymoorchitis treated in 35 y/o?

A

> 35 rocephin plus doxy

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9
Q

What type of incontinence is associated with lifting?

A

stress

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10
Q

What type of incontinence occurs during acute illness?

A

transient

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11
Q

What type of incontinence occurs in the presence of mobility issues?

A

functional

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12
Q

What type of incontinence is described as strong sensation of needing to void?

A

urge

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13
Q

What is a palpable “nest of worms” scrotal mass that is only evident in standing position:

A

variocele

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14
Q

What is collection of serous fluid that causes painless scrotal swelling easily recognized by transillumination?

A

hydrocele

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15
Q

What is characterized by scrotal pain and loss of cremasteric reflex?

A

testicular torsion

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16
Q

What is a retracted foreskin that cannot be brought forward to cover the glans?

17
Q

what is cryptorchidism?

A

when testicle is located in inguinal canal or abdomen

18
Q

what is phimosis?

A

when the foreskin cannot be pulled back to expose the glans

19
Q

What tanner stages do breast development occur in?

A

begin at stage II and end at stage V

20
Q

What is a special consideration in drospirenone as part of birth control pill?

A

good for acne-check K.

21
Q

What are absolute contraindications to oral contraceptives?

A

MyCUPCAKES: Migraines with focal neurologic aura, CAD or CVA, Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding,Pregnant, Liver tumor/disease, Estrogen-dependent tumor, Thrombus, Smoker age 35 or over

22
Q

What are relative contraindications to oral contraceptives?

A

Migraine with non-focal neurological findings, smoker younger than 35, fracture, depression, hyperlipidemia

23
Q

what meds can interact with oral contraceptives?

A

ampicillin, tetracycline, rifampin, anticonvulsants, st johns wort

24
Q

How long after sex is morning after pill effective?

A

up to 72 hours, but best within first 24

25
what does prolonged >2yrs use of depoprovera potentially cause?
osteoporosis
26
How are contraceptive precautions divided?
category 4 (absolute contraindication) to category 1 (no restriction)
27
At what tanner stage does penis lengthen?
Stage III-your middle finger is long and thin (3rd finger)
28
At what tanner stage does penis widen?
Stage IV
29
At what tanner stage does breast bud form?
Stage II
30
At what tanner stage does secondary breast mound form?
Stage IV