Male Reproductive System Lecture Flashcards

(109 cards)

1
Q

What does ultrasound help differentiate in scrotal swellings?

A

Cystic vs. solid swellings and detection of small lesions.

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the transillumination test?

A

To determine if a lesion is fluid-filled (cystic) or solid; fluid-filled lesions transmit light.

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3
Q

When does transillumination typically indicate a cystic lesion?

A

When the fluid is clear (serous), not purulent or bloody.

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4
Q

What is the use of a needle or catheter in evaluating swellings?

A

To aspirate or sample fluid from cystic lesions (paracentesis).

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5
Q

Name key serum biomarkers used in testicular tumour evaluation.

A

AFP (alpha-fetoprotein), beta-hCG, LDH (lactate dehydrogenase).

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6
Q

What are serum tumour markers used for?

A

Tumour classification, staging, assessing tumour burden, and monitoring therapy response.

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7
Q

Why is biopsy generally avoided in solid testicular masses?

A

Risk of tumour cell seeding/spread due to vascular injury during biopsy.

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8
Q

What is the standard management approach for a testicular mass?

A

Consider it malignant; perform radical orchiectomy.

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9
Q

What confirms the diagnosis of a testicular mass?

A

Pathological examination of the removed testicle post-orchiectomy.

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10
Q

What is a hydrocoele?

A

Clear fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis; presents as painless swelling with positive transillumination.

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11
Q

What causes congenital hydrocoele?

A

Patent processus vaginalis allowing peritoneal fluid into the scrotum. (Communicating type)

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12
Q

What causes acquired hydrocoele?

A

Trauma, infection, tumour, surgery, or impaired fluid absorption. (Non-communicating type).

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of testicular swelling?

A

Hydrocoele.

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14
Q

What is a pyocoele?

A

Pus collection in the tunica vaginalis (abscess).

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15
Q

What is a haematocoele?

A

Blood collection in the tunica vaginalis, usually from trauma.

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16
Q

What is a spermatocoele?

A

A cystic swelling in the epididymis.

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17
Q

What is a varicocoele?

A

Dilation of pampiniform plexus veins; feels like a “bag of worms”.

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18
Q

What is a lymphocoele?

A

Lymphatic obstruction causing fluid collection.

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19
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Undescended testicle; should descend by 6 months of age.

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20
Q

What risk is increased in cryptorchidism?

A

3–5× increased risk of testicular cancer, even in the contralateral descended testicle.

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21
Q

What is the pathological consequence of cryptorchidism on seminiferous tubules?

A

Atrophy and possible development of GCNIS (germ cell neoplasia in situ).

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22
Q

What is the name of the surgery to correct cryptorchidism?

A

Orchiopexy.

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23
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord, leading to obstruction of venous drainage, ischaemia, and potentially haemorrhagic necrosis of the testicle.

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24
Q

Why are veins more affected than arteries in torsion?

A

Veins are thinner-walled and more easily compressed, leading to blood engorgement and ischaemia despite patent arteries.

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25
What is the visual appearance of a necrotic testicle due to torsion?
Dark or black due to haemorrhagic necrosis.
26
What is the critical time window for testicle salvage in torsion?
Ideally within 6 hours of onset.
27
What is extravaginal torsion and when does it occur?
Torsion that occurs prenatally, before the testicle descends into the scrotum.
28
What is intravaginal torsion and who is affected?
Torsion within the tunica vaginalis; typically affects post-pubertal boys, peak age 13–14 years.
29
What condition predisposes to intravaginal torsion?
Bell Clapper Syndrome—failure of tunica vaginalis to anchor the testicle, allowing it to twist freely.
30
What age group is most commonly affected by testicular tumours?
Males aged 15–34 years.
31
What is the usual presentation of a testicular tumour?
Painless testicular mass.
32
List key risk factors for testicular tumours.
Cryptorchidism, family history, intersex syndromes, environmental factors (especially in utero).
33
What percentage of testicular tumours are Germ Cell Tumours (GCTs)?
Approximately 95%.
34
What is the precursor lesion of GCTs?
Germ Cell Neoplasia in Situ (GCNIS).
35
What is the multistep model of GCT pathogenesis?
Normal → Atrophy (e.g., cryptorchidism) → GCNIS → Invasive cancer.
36
What is the most common type of GCT?
Seminoma.
37
What age group is most affected by seminoma?
30–40 years.
38
What is the histological appearance of seminoma?
Large cells with “fried egg” appearance, tumour nests with lymphocytes.
39
What serum marker is often elevated in seminoma?
PLAP (Placental Alkaline Phosphatase); may have β-hCG if mixed with choriocarcinoma.
40
What is the general behaviour of non-seminomatous GCTs?
More aggressive and likely to spread.
41
What tumour is associated with elevated AFP and Schiller-Duval bodies?
Yolk Sac Tumour.
42
What tumour contains cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts?
Choriocarcinoma.
43
What marker is elevated in choriocarcinoma?
Beta-hCG.
44
What are the features of a teratoma?
Tumour with tissues from endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm; can be solid-cystic and heterogeneous.
45
Identify.
Seminoma.
46
Identify.
Choriocarcinoma.
47
Identify.
Teratoma.
48
Identify.
Yolk Sac.
49
Identify.
Seminoma.
50
Identify.
Choriocarcinoma.
51
Identify.
Yolk Sac.
52
Identify.
Teratoma.
53
Are prepubertal teratomas malignant?
Generally benign.
54
Are postpubertal teratomas malignant?
Yes, they can metastasise.
55
What are mixed tumours?
Tumours containing multiple GCT types (e.g., seminoma + choriocarcinoma).
56
Name two types of sex chord stromal tumours.
Sertoli cell tumour and Leydig cell tumour.
57
What hormones do Leydig cell tumours produce?
Primarily produce testosterone, although they can also produce other androgens or oestrogens.
58
What is a possible symptom of a Leydig cell tumour?
Gynaecomastia due to hormone production.
59
What is the typical behaviour of Sertoli cell tumours?
Usually non-functional and benign; 10% are malignant.
60
What is the role of LDH in GCTs?
Non-specific marker of tumour burden.
61
What does persistent elevation of AFP, hCG, or LDH after orchiectomy suggest?
Metastatic disease.
62
Describe the basic staging of testicular GCTs.
Stage 1: Confined to testis Stage 2: Lymph nodes below diaphragm Stage 3: Above diaphragm/distant organs No Stage 4.
63
Seminoma.
64
Choriocarcinoma.
65
Yolk Sac Tumour.
66
Teratoma.
67
What is the most common origin zone of BPH?
Transitional Zone of the prostate.
68
What are classic LUTS symptoms in BPH?
Urinary hesitancy, urgency, nocturia, weak stream.
69
What hormone drives BPH?
DHT (dihydrotestosterone).
70
What enzyme converts testosterone to DHT?
5α-reductase.
71
What are common bladder complications of BPH?
Bladder hypertrophy, diverticulae, infection, stones.
72
Is BPH a precursor to prostate cancer?
No.
73
What is the histological appearance of BPH?
74
What medication class treats BPH by reducing DHT?
5α-reductase inhibitors (e.g., finasteride).
75
Where does prostate cancer typically arise?
Peripheral Zone.
76
What precursor lesion is associated with prostate cancer?
Prostatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia (PIN).
77
What is the role of PSA in diagnosis?
Screening and monitoring; elevated PSA may suggest cancer, but is non-specific.
78
What are limitations of PSA testing?
False positives (BPH, prostatitis, DRE), and false negatives (some cancers do not raise PSA).
79
What is the Gleason scoring system used for?
Grading prostate cancer based on gland architecture (score 2–10). Higher score = worse prognosis.
80
What are the main cancer types driven by HPV?
Anal (~90%) Cervical (~90%) Oropharyngeal (70%) Penile (63%) Vaginal (75%) Vulvar (69%)
81
What are the different types of HPV based on risk?
Low-risk: 6, 11 → warts High-risk: 16, 18, 31, 33, etc. → cancers; 16 & 18 most oncogenic
82
What type of bone metastasis is typical in prostate cancer?
Osteoblastic (bone-forming) lesions.
83
What gene mutation increases hereditary prostate cancer risk?
BRCA2 mutation.
84
What is the most common cause of testicular swelling?
Hydrocele
85
What is the medical term for an undescended testicle?
Cryptorchidism
86
Which hormone plays a key role in the pathogenesis of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
87
What is a common metastatic site for disseminated prostate cancer?
Bone
88
Are bone lesions from prostate cancer typically osteolytic or osteoblastic?
Osteoblastic
89
Name a common pharmaceutical treatment for BPH.
Tamsulosin or Finasteride
90
Which enzyme converts testosterone to DHT?
5-alpha-reductase
91
What is the predominant proliferative cell type in the stroma of BPH?
Fibroblast
92
What grading system is used to assess the behavior of prostate cancer?
Gleason grading system
93
What is the most common type of penile cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
94
Name a non-specific biomarker used in prostate cancer diagnosis.
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
95
Which testicular tumor is associated with elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?
Yolk sac tumor (Endodermal sinus tumor)
96
What is the most common benign tumor in the female breast?
Fibroadenoma
97
Which gene is most frequently mutated in cancer and targeted by HPV early proteins?
TP53
98
What type of breast cancer shares features with diffuse gastric carcinoma?
Invasive lobular carcinoma
99
What surgical procedure is used to correct an undescended testicle?
Orchidopexy
100
What is the precursor lesion for invasive prostate cancer?
Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN)
101
Which germ cell tumor contains mixed tissue lineages?
Teratoma
102
A major risk factor for penile cancer is infection with what virus?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
103
What is the name of a cystic lesion in the epididymis?
Spermatocele
104
Which aggressive testicular germ cell tumor is associated with elevated beta-hCG?
Choriocarcinoma
105
What is a classic histological feature of squamous cell carcinoma?
Keratin pearls
106
What is the testicular counterpart to ovarian dysgerminoma?
Seminoma
107
Name a non-specific serum marker of testicular tumor burden.
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
108
Teratomas in prepubertal boys are typically considered what?
Benign
109
Which germline mutation increases familial risk for prostate cancer?
BRCA2