Manual Test Methods Flashcards

1
Q

What are characteristics of a good smear

A

smoot even film with feathered ends
minimum of 3cm in length
blood should not spill over the end or sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes a smear to be too short

A

spreading the blood too quickly, angle of spreading slide greater than 30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes a smear to be too long

A

spreading the blood too slowly, angle of spreader is less than 30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes a smear to be too thin

A

drop of blood too small, patient has low HGB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes a smear to be too thick

A

drop of blood too large, patient abnormalities with viscous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes chattering or streaking in a smear

A

clots/clumps/debris on slide, blood drying out, glass edge not smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does malaria protocol need

A

4 thin smears (2 stained, 2 unstained) and 4 thick smears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is a buffy coat smear made

A

when the white blood cell count is too low for analysis on a routine smear or when bacteria/parasites are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a buffy coat smear used for

A

to evaluate WBC morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is a cytospin smear used

A

whenever a fluid has a WBC count above 5x10^6/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What types of smears are used for bone marrows

A

push smears, squash smears and touch-prep smears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the components of a wright-giemsa stain

A

methylene blue, purified azure blue B, eosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What fixative is used for the wright-giemsa stain

A

methanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pH of the wright-giemsa stain

A

6.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What components are stained by the methylene blue and azure B in wright-giemsa

A

nucleic acids, RNA, DNA, neutrophil granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What components are stained by the eosin in wright-giemsa

A

hemoglobin, eosinophil, neutrophil granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the components of a May-Grunwald stain

A

eosin, methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the pH of a may-grunwald-giemsa stain

A

6.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the May-grunwald component of the may-grunwald-giemsa stain

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the giemsa component of the may-grunwald-giemsa stain

A

nuclear and inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the components of giemsa stain for malaria

A

eosin, purified azure B, methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are common supervital stains

A

new methylene blue, brilliant cresyl blue, methyl violet, crystal violet, brilliant green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the principle of supervital stains

A

used to stain living and unfixed cells in vitro to demonstrate heinz bodies and reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the components of the prussian blue iron stain

A

0.2N HCl, Potassium ferrocyanide

25
What is the principle of the prussian blue iron stain
HCl splits ferric iron from hemosiderin and then the iron combines with potassium ferricyanide to form a blue complex
26
What are considerations when viewing an iron stain slide
iron must be inside cells, extracellular iron is considered artifact
27
What can cause increased iron stores
megaloblastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, sideroblastic anemia, anemia of chronic disease, lead poisoning, hemosiderosis
28
What can cause decreased iron stores
iron deficiency anemia, polycythemia vera
29
What is myeloperoxidase stain used for
stains primary granules in monocytes and myeloid lineage
30
What is sudan black stain used for
stains primary and secondary myeloid granule lipids, weakly stains granules in monocytes
31
What is periodic acd-schiff stain used for
stains glycogen compounds commonly found in lymphoid lineage cells
32
What is non-specific esterase stain used for
stains non-specific esterase compounds in monocytes
33
What is the Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase stain used for
cells are scored based on intensity of staining, higher intensity is seen in mature neutrophils or band cells
34
What causes increased LAP scores
leukemoid reaction, multiple myeloma, hodgkins disease, myeloproliferative disorders, aplastic anemia
35
What causes decreased LAP scores
chronic myelogenous leukemia, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. sickle cell anemia, myelodysplastic syndromes
36
How does high pH effect staining
increased dissociation of methylene blue cause dark blue colour RBC stain green/blue neutrophils can appear toxic
37
How does low pH effect staining
increased dissociation of eosin causing dark pink colour RBC stain red/orange WBC nuclei will be pale eosin granules will be bright orange
38
How does short stain time effect staining
pale slides
39
How does long staining time effect staining
dark/overstained slides
40
What are common artifacts in slides
debris, stain precipitate, water, thick smears, no blood smear left
41
What is done under the 10x objective during smear analysis
check cell distribution and stain WBC estimate smear scan for rouleaux, smudge cells, fibrin strands, platelet clumps, large/abnormal cells, parasites
42
What is done under the 50x objective during smear analysis
WBC differential and morphologies Overview of RBC morph
43
What is done under the 100x objective during smear analysis
PLT estimate and morphology RBC morphology
44
What is the calculation for % parasitemia or %retic
(square A/Square B) x (100/9)
45
What is the calculation for corrected WBC
WBC count/(1+(nRBC/100))
46
How many cells should be counted using a miller-occular
111 cells in square B
47
What does transudate mean
an accumulation of fluid caused by a non-inflammatory circulation disturbance
48
What are examples of disorders tha cause transudates
congestive heart failure, liver disease, renal disease, obstructive tumors
49
What does exudate mean
an accumulation of fluid caused by an inflammatory condition
50
What is done to a fluid once it is recieved in the lab
gross examination, WBC count, RBC count if requested, cytospin differential if indicated, crystals if requested
51
What is done to a CSF once it is recieved in the lab
gross examination, cell count, cytospin differential if indicated
52
What can cause cloudy and colourless CSF
high WBC count, presence of microorganisms
53
What can cause coloured CSF
hemoglobin/RBC, increased proteins, bilirubin
54
What is an ESR
a nonspecific test used as a marker for tissue damage or inflammation
55
What causes increased ESRs
infection, rheumatoid arthritis, TB, cancer
56
What is the principle of the ESR
when more acute phase reactants are present the zeta potenetial is reduced and RBC fall quicker than normal
57
What can cause falsely increased ESR testing
increased rouleaux formation, decreased numbers of red cells, macrocytes, increased albumin
58
What can cause falsely decreased ESR testing
abnormally shaped red cells, increased numbers of red/white cells, microcytes, increased fibrinogen, increased immunoglobulin