Master Question File (ALL 363 Questions) Flashcards
1
Q
What happens when a pilot presses and holds the MECH pb on the CALLS
panel?
A
It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external
horn
2
Q
How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?
A
Press the FWD button on the Calls Panel
3
Q
When would a pilot push the EMER pushbutton on the CALLS panel?
A
When there is an emergency, and the Pilot would like to speak with Flight Attendant A
4
Q
What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PUSHBUTTON?
A
Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the masks
5
Q
How does the passenger fixed oxygen system work and how long does it last?
A
Chemical oxygen generators last for approximately 15 minutes
6
Q
What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?
A
The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually.
7
Q
What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
A
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet
8
Q
How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?
A
The RESET control slide will accomplish this – it does not happen automatically.
9
Q
What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?
A
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.
10
Q
Could the passenger oxygen mask provide oxygen for anything other than depressurization?
A
No, unless there is a written COM procedure for its use.
11
Q
On the ground, if there is an amber half frame around the CKPT OXY PSI box, where would you look to see if you have enough oxygen for the flight?
A
COM Book 1 Performance – Limitations – Oxygen
12
Q
Why is the GND CTL pushbutton selected to ON during preflight?
A
To record preflight activities in the cockpit
13
Q
If the pushbutton was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?
A
- On the ground during the first 5 minutes after the aircraft electrical network is energized
- On the ground after the first engine start
- In flight (whether the engines are running or not)
- On the ground, it is stopped automatically 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown provided the CVR jack is not used.
14
Q
What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?
A
- ACP 3 PA volume knob out and set at or above the medium range
15
Q
What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?
A
- All basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5) are inhibited.
16
Q
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?
A
- Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5
17
Q
What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERR mode?
A
- No effect at all
18
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3.
A
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3.
- In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL
19
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton.
A
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
- FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off
20
Q
What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?
A
- No effect whatsoever
21
Q
What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?
A
- AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost, and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power
22
Q
When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?
A
- The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approximately eight seconds)
23
Q
How can the RAT be deployed?
A
- Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR Panel) or RAT MAN ON (HYDRAULIC Panel).
- Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
24
Q
What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?
A
- RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic pressure only, no electrical generation
25
After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?
* By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR
26
What does the RAT supply?
* Blue Hydraulic System pressure and the emergency electrical generator
27
What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?
* Smoke detectors (particle detectors) in the avionics ventilation ducting
28
Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?
* ECAM warning
* Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the
VENTILATION panel.
29
If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE pb sw to OFF, what will be accomplished?
* Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
* AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors
* Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank
30
Why do we select the CAPT position using the CAPT and CAPT/PURS sw?
* The alert may only be activated from the cockpit
* If one of the cabin CMD pushbuttons is pressed, only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds
31
While conducting the Emergency Evacuation Checklist, the pilots determine that evacuation is required. How should the pilots command an evacuation?
* Make a PA announcement
* Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton
32
What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
* Fly-By-Wire system
33
Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated.
* Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated
34
How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?
* Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
* Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
35
How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?
* Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
36
How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?
* Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
* Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
37
How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?
* Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
* Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
38
When operating in NORMAL LAW in flight mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?
* Pitch – G load
* Bank – Roll rate
39
What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?
* The other pilot has gained side stick authority
40
Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each.
* ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
* SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
* FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
41
What does SEC 3 control?
* Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing
42
What should happen to the THS after landing?
* Reset to zero
43
Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW?
* High Speed
* High Angle of Attack (AOA) Protection
* Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G With Flaps/Slats)
* Pitch Attitude Protections (30° UP / 15° DN)
* Bank Angle Protections (67°)
44
Describe High Speed Protection.
* If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.
45
What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?
* It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case, the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).
46
What is ALPHA MAX?
* The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
47
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
* When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, nose up pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.
48
What protections and stabilities, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE
LAW?
* Load Factor
* High-speed stability
* Low speed stability
49
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?
* None
50
When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.
* There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.
51
If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?
* If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.
52
When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?
* On the ground (Ground Mode)
* When in DIRECT LAW
53
It's common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.
* A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen. Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
54
How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
* By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.
55
What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
* Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.
56
If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?
* 30° up
57
If the pilot selects 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly if the autopilot and auto thrust are engaged?
* VLS
58
Describe, in detail, what would happen if the pilot slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle in Normal Law.
* As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
* If the angle of attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement commands a specific angle of attack instead of a G load change.
* Since nose up pitch trim ceases, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT.
59
Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?
* The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
* With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum safe angle of attack (ALPHA MAX). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.
60
At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?
* ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
* ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in
NORMAL LAW.
* Angle of attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
* On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M 0.6
61
Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL LAW.
* Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
* If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
* When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
* When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
62
What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the pilots?
* An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
* The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green "=" sign.
* An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pushbutton.
* If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed up to VMO+16/MMO+0.04 permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
* Positive spiral static stability is introduced to 0 degrees bank angle (instead of 33 degree in normal law) so that with the side stick released the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0 degrees. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 degrees to 40.
* If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
* It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed.
63
When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?
* In “flight” mode of NORMAL LAW, roll control is a roll rate demand. Side stick inputs commands the ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping.
* The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
* When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
* The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces.
* In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude.
* If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
* Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle-of-attack protection is active).
* Beyond 33°of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.
64
The pilots find themselves in ALTERNATE LAW. Describe the indications and available protections, and flight control logic.
* In most cases, a single system component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation).
* Indications would be amber Xs and an EW/D message. The ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available.
* Autopilot availability in ALTERNATE LAW depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures DO NOT affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.
* Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW, roll is direct (not roll rate demand), and yaw loses turn coordination.
* Attitude, high speed, and angle of attack protections are lost. They are replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability, respectively.
* High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning. Nose down trim is inhibited.
* Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited.
* The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft.
* Instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection.
* Bank angle protection is not available in ALTERNATE LAW. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification.
* Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice what it was in NORMAL LAW.
* Attitude protection is lost and the green "=" signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost.
* In ALTERNATE LAW, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.
65
The pilots find themselves in DIRECT LAW. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control logic.
* When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended and autopilot is off.
* DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE LAW.
* An ECAM message is generated and says “PROT LOST”. Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true. There are no protections or stabilities available in DIRECT LAW.
* The message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost.
* Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections).
66
The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP. What functions are available?
* MECHANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure.
* Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
* Note the EW/D warning message and red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” indication on the FMA. There isn’t a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.
* The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
* Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
* In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical.
67
What is the ADIRS?
* Air Data and Inertial Reference System
68
What type of information does the Air Data Reference System provide?
* Barometric altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle of attack, mach.
69
What type of information does the IR provide?
* Attitude, Flight Path Vector (FPV), track, heading, acceleration, angular rates, groundspeed and aircraft position.
70
If there was an IR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
* ATT/HDG to Capt 3
71
If there was an ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
* AIR DATA to Capt 3
72
Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.
* Switch from OFF to NAV
* ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
* White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on A319; 502-534)
* In A319; 535,536, A320s, and A321s, the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.
73
What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?
* An external horn sounds
* The ON BAT light comes on
* An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel.
74
What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?
* IR has failed and cannot be recovered
75
What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
* Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
76
Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?
* The pilot would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
* The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
* At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal.
77
What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
* There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older panel with a keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position, along with all the ADR information. The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot's side returns to normal.
* The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and the ADR information would still be available.
78
When would a pilot perform a complete alignment versus a fast alignment?
Complete Alignment:
* Before the first flight of the day
* When there is a crew change
* When the departure airport is located between
latitudes 2o north and 2o south
* If GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is
poor on the expected route
* If GPS is not available and the expected flight
time is more than 3 hours
Fast Alignment:
* If a complete alignment is not necessary and
the difference between the
IRS position and the FMGC position is greater
than 5nm
79
What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?
* PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast alignment
* Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
* Aircraft movement during alignment.
Differences
* No align light on A320 – The E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft.
80
If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
* The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted.
81
What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?
* Separate bulbs.
82
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
* When the main landing gear is not compressed.
83
What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?
* Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.
84
What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?
* APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.
85
What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound on the ground?
* APU fire.
86
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?
2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft.
87
If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cooldown cycle?
* Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton.
88
When running the securing checklist why is it important to wait 2 minutes after the APU avail light goes out before switching off the batteries?
* Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.
89
If one generator fails, what is the maximum altitude that you can start the APU?
* FL 410
90
If your aircraft is in an emergency electrical configuration, what is the maximum altitude to start an APU?
* FL 250
91
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
* All lights OFF
* Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
92
Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?
* It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries.
93
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
* Captain’s instrument panel
* Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
* Standby compass
94
How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes? * Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
* Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
* Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
* Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL
toggle switch
95
What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?
* Closes all openings below the waterline
Note: If you lose both cabin pressure systems 1 + 2, you have to manually close the outflow valve.
96
When would a pilot push the ditching pushbutton?
* When ditching
* When directed by the deicing checklist
97
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
* Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.
98
How can a pilot manually switch controllers?
* Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
99
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?
* Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
100
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
* Two pressure relief valves
101
What is accomplished if the WING anti ice pushbutton is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?
* The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.
102
What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
* Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
* Low pressure
103
What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
* Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
104
After selecting the probe/window heat pb on the ground to remove ice or fog on the window. Would the pilot need to select it off before T/O?
* Yes, so it can operate in the automatic mode.
105
What part of the wing is heated?
* Outboard 3 slats.
106
In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
* Wing – valves CLOSE
* Engine – valves OPEN
107
What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice accumulation?
* The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach.
108
A flight crew is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice that cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the flight crew do?
* Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT on. This must be selected off prior to takeoff in order to regain normal system logic.
109
The temperature outside is 2°C with visible moisture. What should the flight crew turn on?
* ENG anti ice after engine start.
110
After takeoff, when should the flight crew turn on the WING anti ice?
* WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when conditions warrant its use.
111
Climbing through FL240 in visible moisture, the crew notices the TAT is 22°C and the SAT is -45°C. What would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?
* Engine anti ice may be turned OFF in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.
112
Starting a descent out of FL350 with visible moisture, the TAT is -32°C and SAT is -53°C, what would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?
* Engine anti-ice must be ON during the descent in icing conditions even if SAT is below -40°C.
113
Descending through 10,000ft, the pilots notice ice accumulation on the cockpit windshield blades. What should they do?
* Turn on the WING anti ice. WING anti ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice accumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wipers blades.
114
Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?
* Yes, but it should only be considered in severe icing because second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.
115
What is TAT?
* Total Air Temperature is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram Air Temperature (RAT)
116
What is SAT?
* Static Air Temperature is also called: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or True Air Temperature
117
Should a flight crew use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn anti ice systems on?
* Remember TAT indicates when to turn anti ice ON. SAT indicates when it may be able to be turned OFF.
118
If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?
* HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
119
If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?
* All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.
120
How are the PACKS controlled and operated?
* Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
121
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
* Valve position disagrees with selected
* Compressor outlet overheat
* Pack outlet overheat
122
What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
* Bleed overpressure
* Bleed overheat
* Wing or engine leak on the related side
* Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
* Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON
123
What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?
* SHUT = the valve is closed.
* AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
* OPEN = the valve is open.
124
What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
* APU bleed leak.
125
What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?
* Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.
126
What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?
* Smoke/fumes removal in cabin
* Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
127
How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?
* If a Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on CEO.
128
When should you select LO pack flow?
* On the 319, when the number of passengers is below 138.
* On the 320, when the number of passengers is below 141.
* On the 321, select ON ECON FLOW when the number of passengers is below 168.
129
What is the minimum battery voltage?
* 25.6V
130
What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?
* Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to
AUTO
131
How long should the batteries be charged?
* 20 minutes, then recheck the voltage
132
Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?
* Select ELEC on ECAM
* Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
* Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
* If it fails the test, wait until the end of the charging cycle, and repeat the test
133
Describe the electrical power system.
* The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC
* Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then transformed into direct current for certain applications.
* Each of the aircraft's three generators can supply the whole network.
* If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power.
* If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the batteries into AC power.
134
If all AC power is lost, what happens?
* DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.
135
What would be an expected indication in the GEN pushbuttons prior to engine start?
* FAULT indication.
136
Define and describe an IDG.
* Integrated Drive Generator
* Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output.
137
How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?
* Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the pushbutton for longer than three seconds.
138
How would an IDG be reconnected?
* This cannot be done by the flight crew – it is a maintenance function.
139
Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO.
* Allows a single source to power AC BUS 1 and 2
* Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system
* Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
140
If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?
* Gen 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie.
141
How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?
* From AC bus 1
142
If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?
* AC bus 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS bus.
143
What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?
* AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated only if the switch is manually selected.
144
What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?
* At least one generator load is above 100% rated output.
145
Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY pushbutton.
* Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available
146
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
* DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor
147
What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?
* AC ESS BUS
* AC ESS SHED
* DC ESS BUS by the ESS TR
* DC ESS SHED
148
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
* Battery charging current outside limits.
* BAT contactor opens.
149
When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?
* APU start
* Battery charging
* AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
150
Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?
* 42,000 lbs (41,285)
151
Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs indicated on the ECAM FOB?
* The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard
152
How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?
* There are seven total fuel pumps: two center tank pumps, four wing tank pumps, (two in each wing) and one APU fuel pump. On some aircraft, the center tank pumps are jet pumps, which transfer fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks.
* The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply)
153
Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to climb (assume full tanks).
* At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks
* After an engine is started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run for 2 minutes.
* If slats are selected within those 2 minutes, the center tank pumps will continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop.
* If the slats are extended at any other time, the center pumps will shut off.
* At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks.
* When slats are retracted to zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank.
* When the center tank runs low, the pumps continue to run for 5 min.
154
What is the difference between CTR TK Pump on a A319 and some older A320’s (601 - 628) versus CTR TK XFR (transfer) on the A321 and newer A320’s (629 – 656, 690 - 696, 901 - 915)?
* CTR TK Pumps are identical to the main tank fuel pumps. The CTR TK XFR are jet pumps that transfer center tank fuel to the main L (R) pumps.
155
What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS pushbuttons indicate?
* Low delivery pressure
156
What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?
* Failure of the AUTO mode
* Center tank has more than 550 lbs and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs
157
How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?
* REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open.
158
Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.
* Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
* This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power.
* The FADEC controls the fuel return depending on the temperature of the IDG – the higher the temperature, the higher the flow.
159
What happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?
* The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs in the inner tanks.
160
What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank, when installed?
* Approximately 1,500 lbs
161
When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?
* When the inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs.
162
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve?
* All four transfer valves open.
163
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
* Automatically at the next refueling operation as long as there is AC power on the aircraft.
164
Describe the layout of the fuel tanks.
* The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft.
* Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
o On 319s and 320s, the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks.
o On 321s, the wing tanks are not divided into inner and outer tanks, but still have vent tanks.
165
What are the three HYD systems called?
* GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems
166
How is each hydraulic system normally powered?
* GREEN – engine driven
* BLUE – electrically driven
* YELLOW – engine or electrically driven
167
When does the BLUE pump normally operate?
* After the first engine is started
168
If the BLUE system lost pressure, how would pressure be restored?
* The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so if needed, it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton.
169
What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?
* On the ground, coordinate with ground personnel and turn on the YELLOW ELEC pump
170
With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?
* By using a hand pump
171
What causes the PTU to operate in if in AUTO?
* Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems
172
When is the PTU inhibited?
* On the ground with ENG MASTER levers split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake ON
* For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated
173
What are some users of the GREEN system?
* Landing gear
* Normal brakes
* Slats and flaps
* ENG 1 thrust reverser
174
What are some users of the BLUE system?
* Emergency generator
* Slats
175
What are some users of the YELLOW system?
* Flaps
* Nose wheel steering
* Alternate brakes
176
What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?
* Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls.
177
What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?
* Pump low pressure
* Over temp in reservoir
* Low air pressure in reservoir
* Low quantity
178
If the FAULT light illuminates in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the FAULT?
* ECAM will display the reason
179
Where are the engine fire loops (heat) sensors located?
* Pylon nacelle
* Engine core
* Fan section
180
How many fire loops are installed per engine?
* Two (Loop A and B)
181
In the event an engine fire, what action arms the fire extinguishing squibs?
* Pushing to release the ENG FIRE pushbutton.
182
What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?
* FIRE warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5 seconds)
183
What does an amber DISCH light mean?
* Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection
184
How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?
* Two
185
How do you conduct a successful engine fire test?
* ENG 1 and 2 FIRE pb-sw checked in and guarded
* AGENT 1 and 2 light checked off
* ENG 1 and 2 TEST pb press and maintain to check:
o ENG FIRE pb lighted read + SQUIP and DISCH lights on o CRC + MASTER WARN lights
o ENG 1(2) FIRE warning on ECAM ENG SD page displayed o FIRE light (on ENG panel) on
186
What would occur if the APU is running and an APU fire is detected on the ground? In flight?
* On the ground, APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge
* In the air – no automatic functions
187
What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?
* The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong
188
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
* The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
* Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available
189
With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START pushbutton is pressed?
* The start valve opens
* Both pack flow control valves close
190
What is the primary difference between the IAE V2500 and PW1100G engine?
* The NEO PW1100G engine includes a Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) which allows the low pressure turbine to operate at higher rotational speeds for peak efficiency while the engine’s fan can operate at lower speeds for optimum propulsion efficiency and lower noise levels.
191
When would a First Officer manually abort an AUTOMATIC start on the ground and what COM procedure would you apply when after selecting the master switch to off?
* The ground crew reports a tail pipe fire, Accomplish the COM Abnormal/Emergency Procedures “Engine Tailpipe Fire” procedure.
* In the case of electrical power supply interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by loss of the ECAM DUs), COM supplemental procedure Engine Ventilation (Dry Cranking).
192
What is the approximate time the engine will dry crank during an Automatic engine start?
* IAE V2500 = Approximately 30 Seconds
* PW1100G = Approximately 2 Minutes
193
When would a pilot select the EXTRACT to OVRD?
* Heavy Rain on the ground
* When directed to by the ECAM
194
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT pb light?
* Low blower pressure
* Duct overheat
* Computer power supply failure
* Smoke warning activated
195
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?
* Low extract pressure
* Computer power supply failure
* Smoke warning activated
196
What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?
* BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT on the ground with both engines stopped.
197
Describe the avionics ventilation system.
* It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow.
198
During normal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE remains closed
OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION – Both the inlet and the outlet flaps are
fully open (aircraft is on ground and the skin temperature is above a set
threshold)
CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION – Both the inlet and outlet flaps are
fully closed. The SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE and SKIN
EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE is open, allowing air to the cargo under
floor, eventually exiting via the outflow valve (aircraft is on the ground or in-flight and the skin temperature below a set threshold).
INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION – The inlet flap is fully closed,
the outlet small flap is open (aircraft is in-flight and the skin temperature is
above a set threshold)
199
During abnormal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE always opens
providing fresh ventilation air
BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT – Both inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed,
SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closed.
SMOKE CONFIGURATION – Once the BLOWER and EXTRACT
pushbuttons have been selected to OVRD, the blower fan will stop, the
extract fan will continue to run. The inlet flap closes, the small outlet flap
opens, the SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE closes and the SKIN
EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closes
200
Following a cargo smoke indication and subsequent discharge of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?
* The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment.
201
How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?
* Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.
202
When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?
* Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure.
203
When would the pilots use the maintenance panel?
* If a MEL requires its use.
* If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.
204
Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?
* Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF.
* If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.
205
Which pushbutton on the maintenance panel would be used to pressurize
the BLUE system on the ground?
* The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton
206
If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pushbutton what would occur?
* The APU would shut down.
207
What is the significance of black and green circuit breakers?
* Green – monitored by ECAM
* Black – not monitored by ECAM
208
What is the significance of a red collared circuit breaker?
* The flight crew should not pull or manipulate these collared circuit breakers.
209
What are the two modes of flight guidance?
* Managed guidance
* Selected guidance
210
What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?
* Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
211
What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?
* Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.
212
Does selected or managed guidance have priority?
* Selected guidance
213
What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR phase do for the pilot if in managed speed?
* Allows autothrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection: o F0 = green dot o F1 = S speed o F2 = F speed
o F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection) o Full = VAPP
* If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI is not available.
214
What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent phase?
* Once you manage speed, the autothrust system will target 250 kts below
10,000 ft.
215
What time of day would a pilot have to switch to a new Navigation Database?
* 0901z
216
Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?
* The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.
217
How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?
* On the A/C STATUS page.
218
What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?
* A hybrid IRS/GPS position.
219
What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?
* Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave
220
How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?
* If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
* If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
* If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master
221
If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?
* An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the COM.
222
In cruise flight with AP1 engaged, what would happen if AP2 was selected?
* The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton while conducting a ILS approach.
223
What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the
MCDU?
* Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
* Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data
224
If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur and what should be done?
* A ECAM CAUTION will be generated
* Thrust levers should be moved into the TOGA detent and continue the takeoff.
225
What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?
* Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
* Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
* Both autopilots fail
226
Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.
* Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time.
* Should there be dual inputs, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash. Side stick inputs are algebraically summed.
* Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE CONTROL”). An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT)” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK
PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority
* If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control (or if there is a malfunction present) the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up it will go out when the other pilot returns the stick to the neutral position, the side stick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds.
* The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover pushbutton
* Red Arrow light is illuminated on the pilot losing authority
* The Green CAPT / FO lights flash when both pilots move the side stick simultaneously.
227
What does each column mean on the PFD?
* A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPCH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
228
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
* A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.
229
Modes are displayed in the FMA in blue, magenta, and green. What do they indicate?
* Blue – armed
* Magenta – armed because of a constraint
* Green – engaged
230
When going around in the A320 NEO, if the FMA displays an amber message reading, “FOR GA: SET TOGA”, what action should the pilot take?
* The Pilot should move the thrust levers into the TOGA detent.
* When AP/FD is in approach vertical mode and aircraft is below 1000 ft RA, this message is displayed if all thrust levers are moved to or above the MCT detent, but below the TOGA detent.
231
When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
* Displayed when the first engine is started
* Disappears at liftoff
232
What do the large red arrowheads indicate?
* Pitch attitude of +30°
233
After loading an ILS approach into the MCDU and selecting the (I)LS pushbutton, what indications on should be present on the PFD?
* ILS frequency and course
* ILS identifier (once in range and identified)
* LOC and GS scales
234
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
* In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it becomes a blue beta target.
235
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
* The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.
236
What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?
* Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
* Blue – Selected speed on the FCU
237
What is VLS and how is it displayed?
* Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed
* Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
* In approach mode, it is equivalent to VREF
238
What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?
* It is the lowest of VMO/VMMO, VLE or VFE
* Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale
239
What is Green Dot speed?
* Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
* Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
* Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
240
What are the benefits of Ground Speed Mini (GSMINI)?
* Calculated groundspeed at the runway
* Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed
241
What does it mean if the magenta target airspeed triangle is above VAPP on the approach?
* GSMINI has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the present location.
242
What are the 3 key factors in the GSMINI Calculations?
* TWR wind = the MAG WIND entered in the PERF approach page (no gusts)
* TWR headwind component = the component of the MAG WIND projected on the runway axis (landing runway entered in the flight plan).
* Current Headwind Component = the actual wind measured by ADIRS is projected on the aircraft axis to define the current headwind component. The current headwind component is used to compute the variable speed target during final (IAS target).
243
What does it mean when the altitude digits on the altimeter change from green to amber?
* The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.
244
When is radio height displayed on the PFD?
* Below 2,500 feet
245
Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
* Captain’s PFD
* First Officer’s ND
246
Is a visual warning provided to the pilot if the aircraft is stalling?
* Non NEO Aircraft = No visual indication
* NEO Aircraft = STALL warning indication on PFD
247
What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?
* Active – continuous green line
* Secondary – continuous white line
* Temporary – dashed yellow line
* Alternate – dashed blue line
* Missed approach – continuous blue line
* Flight Plan Capture – continuous green with intercept path computed
* Data base EOSID – continuous yellow line
248
“Top of Descent” and “Continue Descent” arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?
* Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
* Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed
249
What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?
* White – constraint is not taken into account
* Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied
* Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed
250
When is a STATUS page displayed?
* After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
* Display will reappear when the slats are extended
251
What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?
* Level 3: WARNINGS – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, red E/WD message, and require immediate action
* Level 2: CAUTIONS – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light, single chime, amber E/WD message, and require crew awareness
* Level 1: CAUTIONS – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
252
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?
* A Level 3 WARNING has priority over a Level 2 CAUTION, which has priority over a Level 1 CAUTION.
253
What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?
* Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.
254
What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?
* Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight.
255
What are some of the warnings NOT inhibited with T.O INHIBIT displayed? * ENGINE FIRE
* APU FIRE
* ENG FAIL
* ENG OIL LO PR
* L+R ELEV FAULT
* A/P OFF
* CONFIG
* FWC 1+2 FAULT
256
If the flaps handle setting does not match the setting required by the MCDU, will you get a T/O CONFIG Warning?
* No. As long as the flap handle is in 1, 2, or 3, no warning will be generated.
257
When does the Takeoff Memo appear and disappear?
* Two minutes after the 2nd engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running
* Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied
258
When does the Landing Memo appear and disappear?
* The memo appears below 2,000 feet RA
* After a go-around, if the aircraft does not climb above 2,200 feet RA, the landing memo appears only below 800 ft RA during the subsequent approach
* The memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)
259
What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the E/WD?
* The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS
* Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable messages
260
What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs)?
* Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear.
* Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems
261
What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?
* Green
262
When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?
* Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.
263
What happens if airspeed is 280 knots and the Landing Gear lever is selected DOWN?
* Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots.
264
What do the red UNLK lights indicate?
* The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.
265
If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?
* Yes, as long as it is still powered.
266
What controls and manages all normal braking functions?
* The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
267
What happens when the A/SKID & N/W STRG is switched OFF?
* Loss of nose wheel steering
* Braking is powered by the YELLOW system
* Anti-skid is deactivated
* ABCU takes over
268
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
* Normal brakes – GREEN
* Alternate brakes – YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
269
When do the Auto Brakes activate on landing if armed?
* When the ground spoilers deploy.
270
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
* LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft./s2
* MED – progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft./s2
271
What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
* Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.
272
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?
* Airspeed above 72 knots, and
* Thrust levers at IDLE, and
* Ground spoiler extension
273
What is the impact of the loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure on the Auto Brakes?
* The Auto Brake function is lost, because the aircraft is now relying on the alternate brake system.
274
If on the alternate brake system, what is required in order to maintain Antiskid function, if anything?
* At least 1 channel of the BSCU
275
What would happen to the spoilers if they were not armed, but at least one engine was selected into reverse thrust?
* They would still deploy, even if they were not armed
276
How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
Approximately 7 full applications
277
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
* YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
* YELLOW system brake accumulator pressure
278
What computers feed data to the six display units?
* Three Display Management Computers (DMC)
279
If there are any automatic functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the automatic logic.
* If DMC 1 fails (or DMC3 if “CAPT 3” was selected), DMC 2 automatically drives the ECAM.
280
What are the indications on the DUs if a DMC has failed?
* “INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display unit.
281
What happens when the upper DU fails?
* The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower DU display.
282
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can the E/WD information be displayed?
* By selecting the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O
283
If the upper DU knob is selectd to OFF what will occur?
* The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the “lower” display.
284
With the E/WD displayed on the “lower” screen, what steps should be taken to view SD information?
* Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel. The information selected will be available for 30 seconds.
285
What does the ALL pushbutton do?
* Displays ALL the system pages successively in 3-second intervals when held down
* Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page
286
What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do?
* Allows the flight crew to review any warning or caution messages that the CLR pushbutton or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed
* If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton
287
If the STS pushbutton is pressed and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?
* “NORMAL” for 5 seconds
288
What occurs during the Before Takeoff Flow when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed?
* The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
* A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly
* “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
289
What does the EMER CANC accomplish?
* Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message)
* Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight
* Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure
* Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three seconds
290
What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?
* Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS
291
If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?
* The THS is jammed.
292
What happens to the THS after landing?
* The trim automatically resets to zero.
293
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
* FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
294
What is the power source for the FADEC?
* The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above10%
* If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
295
The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?
* There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, dry crank to clear the fuel from the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.
296
How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?
* One igniter with the other serving as a backup
* The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A or B) at each start
297
How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?
* Two, both A and B
298
On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?
* By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
* At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff
299
What is the active range of the A/THR?
* Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
* Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
300
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
* The thrust lever angle
301
What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?
* A/THR pushbutton
* Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
* Thrust levers to IDLE
302
What is the proper method of disconnecting A/THR?
* Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
303
How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?
* Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done.
304
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR?
* Thrust – TOGA
* FMA – “A.FLOOR”
305
When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?
* Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”
306
What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?
* Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent, if not already in the climb detent
* Afterwards re-engage the autothrust
307
When will ALPHA FLOOR activate?
* When the aircraft reaches a high AOA
308
When would Thrust Lock occur?
* Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or * A/THR disconnects due to a failure
309
How is A/THR normally armed?
* By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX
310
What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX thrust on a RWY with a localizer?
* MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)
311
What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll using TOGA thrust on a runway without a localizer?
* MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)
312
What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn't arm on a runway with a localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?
* SRS, RWY
* Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.
313
How should A/THR be turned off?
* Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting on the EWD and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE
314
What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?
* Move it out of the climb detent
315
What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
* Engine MASTER switch
* ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
316
What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?
* The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or * Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
* There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
317
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
* PW1100G
o Engine flame out detected o Surge detected o Thrust control malfunction detected o Ignition delay during start
* IAE V2500 o Engine anti-ice PB switch at ON o Max TO thrust selected (EPR or Rated N1 mode) o Flex to thrust selected (EPR mode) o EIU data failed (ignition and/or bleed config data)
o Approach idle selected o Inflight unscheduled sub idle or surge
o Master lever cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position
318
What is the required engine warm up time?
* IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown < 2hrs= 3 Mins
* IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown > 2hrs = 5 Mins
319
What is the required engine cool down time after landing?
* 3 Mins for all aircraft
320
What does the green cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO Aircraft?
* It’s displayed when an auto dry crank is required to cool the engines before engine start.
321
If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and non-NEO aircraft?
* IAE V2500 = Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1 at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart
* PW1100G = Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1 at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart
322
If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine, what should be done by the flight crew?
* PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is Required
323
How is Approach Idle different on NEO vs non-Neo aircraft?
* Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
o Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended (flap lever not at 0 position)
* NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
o Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the landing gear is down.
324
How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available?
* The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed
325
What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?
* Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
326
If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?
* The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.
327
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
* CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps * CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
328
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?
* During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
329
What is ALPHA LOCK?
* This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.
330
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
* The ailerons droop
331
Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff.
* If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle.
* If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
* Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment.
332
Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing.
* Full extension:
The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
o Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- Both main landing gears on ground,
- Both thrust levers at or below idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position). o Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
- Both main landing gears on ground,
- Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servocontrol is available on each side, when:
o The ground spoilers are fully extended o Flaps are not in clean CONF o Pitch attitude is lower than 2.5 °
o Flying manually o In normal law only.
* Partial extension:
In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection when the following conditions are met:
o Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground,
- Both thrust levers at or below idle position.
o Speed brake lever in the retracted position, but ground spoilers not armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground,
- Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met:
o Ground spoilers armed, o Both main landing gears on ground, o Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position.
* Retraction
The ground spoilers retract:
o After landing, o After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
o During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°.
333
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
* During a touch and go/balk landing and at least one thrust lever is advance above 20%
334
What are some conditions that inhibit speed brake extension?
* Angle of Attack protection is active
* Thrust levers above the MCT position
* ALPHA FLOOR is active
335
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
* The spoilers automatically retract.
336
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
* A319/A320 – Flaps FULL
* A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL
337
How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?
* If the PWS switch is in AUTO, reactive windshear detection is still available, even though the RADAR system is off.
338
When are predictive windshear (WINDSHEAR AHEAD) alerts inhibited?
* On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 feet.
* During landing below 50 feet
339
How are the communications radios tuned?
* From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)
340
Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
* RMP 1
341
Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
* VHF COM 1, HF 1
342
Why would a pilot select the NAV key on an RMP? * When both MCDUs fail
* An immediate landing into an airport not in the database.
343
If RMP 1 fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?
* By using RMP 2 or 3
344
What effect does setting the parking brake have on other braking modes?
* All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.
345
How can a pilot recharge the brake accumulator pressure with the engine not running?
* With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP.
346
How is the parking brake activated when turning the parking brake switch ON?
* Electrically
347
How can the crew verify the parking brake is set?
* ECAM PARKING BRK memo
* Triple indicator brake pressure
348
When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all possible?
* Using the RUD TRIM
349
What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?
* Nothing
350
What is the RESET button used for?
* To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged.
351
What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?
* Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.
352
How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?
* Rotate the handle clockwise three times until reaching the mechanical stop.
353
What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?
* YELLOW
354
What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?
* Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.
355
What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF? * Nose wheel steering is lost
* Anti-skid is deactivated
* YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes
356
Why do we need one engine OFF before turning OFF the seat belt signs?
* The residual cabin pressure light is inhibited with more than one engine running.
357
If the yellow electric pump fails, can the cargo doors be operated?
* Yes by using the hand pump, located on the hydraulic maintenance panel.
358
Name three sources for high pressure pneumatic air?
* Engine bleed system
* APU low compressor
* HP ground connection
359
What does BMC stand for?
* Bleed Monitoring Computer
360
What is the purpose of CPDLC (Controller/Pilot Datalink Communication)?
* The CPDLC application enables an exchange of specific ATC messages between the flight crew and air traffic controller.
361
What preventative measure can be taken by the crew to help prevent takeoff data from improperly uplinking?
* Clearing the ACARS cache (by swapping databases) as directed by AOM Vol. 2 may reduce the occurrence of bad Takeoff data uplinks.
362
Which VHF is used for ACARS?
* VHF 3
363
What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet
