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BHSC 1103 > Material for Midterm #1 > Flashcards

Material for Midterm #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does anaerobic mean?

A

In the absence of oxygen

- anaerobic metabolism decreases pH in the blood (build-up of lactic acid)

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2
Q

What does apoptosis mean?

A

Programmed cell death (normal occurrence)

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3
Q

What is an autopsy?

A

Examination of part or all of a body (including organs) AFTER death
- determine cause of illness and death

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4
Q

What is a biopsy?

A

Removal of small piece of LIVING tissue for examination

- to determine diagnosis

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5
Q

What does endogenous mean?

A

Inside the body

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6
Q

What does exogenous mean?

A

Outside the body

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7
Q

What is gangrene?

A

Necrotic tissue infected by bacteria

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8
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Stable or constant environment in the body

- blood pressure, temperature, pH

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9
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Reduced oxygen in the tissues

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10
Q

What does iatrogenic mean?

A

When a treatment, procedure or error causes a disease

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11
Q

What does idiopathic mean?

A

When the cause of the disease is unknown

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12
Q

What is inflammation?

A

Response to tissue damage

- redness, swelling, warmth, pain

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13
Q

What is ischemia?

A

A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a tissue or organ (due to circulatory obstruction)

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14
Q

What is lysis?

A

Destruction of a cell

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15
Q

What is a lysosome?

A

A membrane-bound vesicle in a cell

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16
Q

What does microscopic mean?

A

Visible only when magnified by lenses in a microscope

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17
Q

What does morphologic mean?

A

Structural changes occur in the nucleus and the cell

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18
Q

What does prognosis mean?

A

Likelihood (probability) for recovery or other outcomes

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19
Q

What is primary prevention of disease?

A

Protect healthy people from developing a disease or experiencing an injury
- education, immunizations, screening

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20
Q

What is secondary prevention of disease?

A

Halt or slow down the progress of a disease

- limit long-term disability or injury

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21
Q

What is tertiary prevention of disease?

A

Helps people manage complicated, long-term health problems

diabetes, cancer, heart disease

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22
Q

What does diagnosis refer to?

A

Identification of a specific disease

- evaluates signs and symptoms

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23
Q

What is etiology?

A

Studies the causative factors in a particular disease

- may be more than one factor

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24
Q

What are predisposing factors?

A

The tendencies that promote development of a disease in an individual
- indicates HIGH RISK, but not CERTAIN development

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25
Q

What are some example of predisposing factors?

A
  • age
  • gender
  • inherited factors
  • occupational exposure
  • certain dietary practices
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26
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

Development of the disease (or abnormal condition)

- sequence of events

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27
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic?

A 
Acute = short-term illness, develops quickly
Chronic = milder condition, develops gradually (more permanent damage)
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28
Q

What is the subclinical state?

A

Pathologic changes are occurring but no obvious signs are observed

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29
Q

What is the prodromal period of a disease?

A

Early stage of disease

  • individual marks a change in the body (headache, temperature change, fatigue) nothing specific
  • lab tests are negative
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30
Q

What are manifestations of a disease?

A

Clinical evidence or effects

  • signs and symptoms of a disease
  • local or systemic
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31
Q

What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?

A 
Sign = OBJECTIVE, it can be seen by an observer
Symptom = SUBJECTIVE, perceived by the patient (headache, dizzy, nausea, fatigue)
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32
Q

What is a primary sign?

What is a secondary sign?

A 
Primary = intrinsically associated with disease
Secondary = consequence of disease
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33
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

Sign + symptom = syndrome

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34
Q

What is a risk factor?

A

Any condition that increases rates of disease (including unproven links or associations)
- correlational, not causal

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35
Q

What do remissions and exacerbations mark?

A

The course or progress of a disease

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36
Q

What is a precipitating factor?

A

Condition that triggers an acute episode

- different from predisposing factor! know the difference

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37
Q

What are complications?

A

New secondary or additional problems that arise after the original disease begins

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38
Q

What is sequelae?

A

The potential UNWANTED outcomes of the primary condition

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39
Q

What is morbidity?

A

Number of people affected in a population by a disease

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40
Q

What is mortality?

A

Death rate of a disease

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41
Q

What is epidemiology?

A

Study of the dynamics of disease within a population

- genetic, ecology, socioeconomics, demographics

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42
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

Occurs when there are higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area

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43
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

Higher number of cases in many regions of the globe

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44
Q

What is the prevalence of a disease?

A

Total number of individuals affected by disease

- NEW + OLD cases

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45
Q

What is the incidence of a disease?

A

Number of NEW cases affected by disease

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46
Q

Describe a sensitivity test.

A

True positive rate - measures the proportion of positives that are correctly identified as such (% of sick people who are sick)

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47
Q

Describe a specific test.

A

True negative rate - measures the proportion of negatives that are correctly identified as such (% of healthy people who are healthy)

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48
Q

Describe a true negative result.

A

Normal in the absence of disease

- healthy + results are healthy

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49
Q

Describe a true positive result.

A

Abnormal in the presence of disease

- sick + results are sick

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50
Q

Describe a false positive result.

A

Abnormal in the absence of disease

- healthy + results are sick

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51
Q

Describe a false negative result.

A

Normal in the presence of disease

- sick + results are healthy

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52
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Decrease in size of cells

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53
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Increase in size of cells

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54
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Increased number of cells

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55
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

One mature cell type is replaced with another

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56
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Cells vary in size and shape

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57
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Cancer cells, malignant or benign

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58
Q

What are the different types of necrosis?

A
  • Liquefaction
  • Coagulative
  • Fat
  • Caseous
  • Infarction
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59
Q

Describe the anatomical position.

A

Stands erect, feet flat on floor, arms at sides, palms face forward

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60
Q

Describe anterior.

A

Towards the front of the body

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61
Q

Describe posterior.

A

Towards the back of the body

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62
Q

Describe superior.

A

Above

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63
Q

Describe inferior.

A

Below

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64
Q

Describe medial.

A

Towards the middle

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65
Q

Describe lateral

A

Away from the middle

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66
Q

Describe proximal.

A

Towards the point of origin or attachment

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67
Q

Describe distal.

A

Further from the point of origin

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68
Q

Describe superficial

A

Towards the surface

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69
Q

Describe deep

A

Inwards to the body

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70
Q

What are the three main anatomical planes?

A
  1. Frontal - cut body into anterior and posterior
  2. Transverse - cut body into superior and inferior
  3. Sagittal - cut body into left and right sides
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71
Q

What are the four abdominal quadrants?

A
  1. Right upper
  2. Left upper
  3. Right lower
  4. Left lower
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72
Q

What are the two planes that divide the abdomen into four quadrants?

A

Transumbilical plane - passes through umbilicus (transverse)

Medial plane - divides body into left and right halves

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73
Q

What are the nine abdominal regions?

A
  1. Right hypochondriac
  2. Epicastric
  3. Left mypochondriac
  4. Right lateral (lumbar)
  5. Umbilical
  6. Left lateral (lumbar)
  7. Right inguinal (groin)
  8. Pubic
  9. Left inguinal (groin)
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74
Q

What are the planes that divide the abdoment into nine regions?

A 
Subcostal plane - passes under ribs
Transtubercular plane - top of hips
Midclavicular planes (x2) - midpoints on clavicles
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75
Q

What does it mean if a test has a high predictive value (HPV)?

A

Many true positive or negative results

- few false positive or negative results

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76
Q

Describe the framework for pathophysiology.

A
  • If we eliminate the disease (etiology)
  • The disease doesn’t progress (pathogenesis)
  • Then the signs and symptoms will not exist (manisfestations)
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77
Q

Case Study:
Doctor noticed a rash on a young patient’s arm. The boy complained that the rash itched.
a) Identify signs and symptoms, what is the difference?
Boy recently ate poultry products, elder sister had similar rashes when eating eggs.
b) Identify etiological and risk factors.

A

a) Rash = sign (objective)
Itch = symptom (subjective)

b) Etiological factors - genetic susceptibility, allergen in poultry, some factor in the house, ingestion/exposure to poultry products, young age
Risk factors - family history, exposure to poultry products, young age

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78
Q

Case Study:
Mr. Lee feels sick, presents with high fever. Within 24 hrs, everyone in his house and then neighborhood feels sick.
a) What local health authority should be notified?
b) If symptoms are caused by a pathogen, what factors may have contributed to the quick spread?

A

a) Call an epidemiologist (study dynamics of a disease in a population)
b) Factors: Socioeconomic status, environmental factors, density/proximity, education level, mode of transmission, health status of population, nutritional status, cultural factors, levels of hygiene, demographic factos

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79
Q

Case Study:
Bobby complains of vague pain the in the abdomen. Points to epigastric and right hypochondriac regions.
Name the organs that could be involved.

A

Epigastric - Stomach, Liver, Pancreas, Small Intestine, Transverse Colon, Right & Left Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, Right & Left Kidneys, Right & Left Ureters, Spleen

Right hypochondriac - Liver, Gall Bladder, Small Intestine, Ascending Colon, Transverse Colon, Right Kidney,

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80
Q

Name the structure that is:

a. Immediately inferior to the heart
b. Superior to the heart
c. Anterior to the heart
d. Immediately lateral to the heart

A

a. Diaphragm
b. Esophagus, bronchi, brain?
c. Ribs
d. Lungs

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81
Q

What are the two main body regions?

A
  1. Axial (head, neck and trunk)

2. Appendicular (upper and lower limbs)

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82
Q

What organs are in the RIGHT UPPER QUADRANT?

A

a

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83
Q

What organs are in the LEFT UPPER QUADRANT?

A

a

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84
Q

What organs are in the RIGHT LOWER QUADRANT?

A

aa

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85
Q

What organs are in the LEFT LOWER QUADRANT?

A

a

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86
Q

What are the three kinds of passive transport

A
  • Diffusion (high to low concentrations)
  • Osmosis (diffusion of water molecules)
  • Facilitated diffusion (uses a carrier protein to move)
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87
Q

What are the three kinds of channel gating?

A
  • Voltage gated (high to low voltage)
  • Ligand gated (presence of chemical)
  • Mechanically gated (physically open, vibration in sound move hairs in ears)
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88
Q

What is an example of carrier-mediated transport?

A

Na+/K+ pumps

89
Q

What are the features of carrier-mediated transport?

A
  • have a capacity level
  • (maximum rate of transport)
  • bind, move and then release on other side
  • may be passive or active
90
Q

What is different about active transport?

A
  • low concentration to high concentration

- requires energy

91
Q

What happens to cells if they lack energy to facilitate active transport?

A
  • Na+/K+ pumps start to fail
  • Na+ leaks into cell
  • water follows Na+
  • Cells swell –> cells burst –> cells die
92
Q

What are two examples of gradients?

A
  1. Chemical gradient

2. Electrical gradient

93
Q

Where is Na+ high? low?

Where is K+ high? low?

A 
Extracellular = low K+, high Na+
Intracellular = high K+, low Na+
94
Q

What causes a cell to fire?

A
  • stimulus causes Na+ channels to open
  • Na+ rushes into cell (makes it +)
  • at threshold potential, more Na+ channels open
  • results in depolarization
  • causes an action potential
95
Q

What happens after a cell has fired?

A
  • K+ channels open
  • K+ diffuses out, making the cell negative again (re-polarization)
  • Na+/K+ ATPase removes Na+ and brings K+ back in
96
Q

What are the three ways that cells communicate with each other?

A
  1. Autocrine - communicates with itself
  2. Paracrine - interacts with neighboring cells
  3. Neuroendocrine - hormones … acts on systems/organs
97
Q

How do lipid-soluable messengers interact with target cells?

A

Able to penetrate plasma membrane, enters nucleus

98
Q

How do water-soluable messengers interact with target cells?

A

Cannot pass through the membrane, must bind to surface receptors

99
Q

How is glycolysis different from the Krebs cycle?

A
  • anaerobic
  • occurs in cytoplasm of cell (not in mitochondria)
  • produces small amounts of ATP
  • produces lactate acid as a by-product
100
Q

Describe oxidative phosphorylation.

A

Metabolic pathway in which mitochondria use their cell structure to create a H+ concentration gradient.

  • H+ can only flow back through an ATP-producing protein
  • ATPsynthase uses proton gradient to trap concentration enegy
101
Q

What is transcription?

A

DNA is copied into mRNA

- occurs in the nucleus

102
Q

What is translation?

A

Synthesis of protein from mRNA

103
Q

What are the six steps to go from DNA to peptide formation?

A
  1. DNA double helix
  2. DNA coding strand
  3. Codons of mRNA
  4. Anticodons of tRNA
  5. Amino acids
  6. Peptide
104
Q

What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A
  1. G1 phase - normal cellular functions
  2. S phase - DNA replication
  3. G2 phase - Preparation for mitosis
  4. M phase - nuclear and cytoplasmic
105
Q

What are the 4 phases of M phase?

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

106
Q

What are the three reasons that cells are able to divide?

A
  • adequate supply of nutrients
  • stimulation by growth factors
  • availability of open space
107
Q

What are the three reasons that cells stop dividing?

A
  • loss of growth factors
  • loss of nutrients
  • contact inhibition
108
Q

What is auto-regulation?

A

Automatic response in a cell, tissue or organ

- without interaction with nervous or endocrine systems

109
Q

What is extrinsic regulation?

A

Responses controlled by nervous and endocrine systems

110
Q

What are the important parts of a feedback system?

A
  1. Receptor - receives the stimulus
  2. Control center - processes the signal and sends instructions
  3. Effector - carries out instructions
111
Q

What is the controlled variable?

A

Factor that is maintained with a more or less narrow range around a desired value
- temperature, blood pressure

112
Q

What is the set point?

A

The desired value of a controlled variable

113
Q

What is a negative feedback system?

A
  • negative feedback system leads to stability
  • brings it back to homeostasis
  • inverted output COUNTERACTS the disturbance
114
Q

What is a positive feedback system?

A
  • disturbance is amplified (reinforced)
  • increases instability
  • does not lead back to homeostasis
115
Q

What are some examples of a positive feedback system?

A
  • clotting factors in blood
  • action potential (in cells)
  • lactation
  • childbirth
116
Q

What is the single most important factor that causes cell death?

A

Decreased oxygen supply

117
Q

What are some examples of stressors?

A
  • infection
  • noise
  • decreased oxygen supply
  • pain
  • malnutrition
  • heat/cold
  • trauma
  • obesity
  • old age
118
Q

What are the three components of physiologic stress?

A
  1. A stressor (exogenous/endogenous)
  2. Chemical or physical disturbance caused produced by the stressor
  3. Body responds to counteract the disturbance
119
Q

What two systems COULD react to a stress response?

A
  • Nervous system

- Endocrine system

120
Q

What is the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

The predictable way that the body responds to stress

- results were consistent, regardless of the stress introduced

121
Q

What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A
  • Alarm stage
  • Stage of resistance/adaptation
  • Stage of exhaustion
122
Q

What happens during the alarm stage of GAS?

A
  • arousal of CNS
  • body’s defenses are mobilized
  • fight or flight response triggered by SNS (sympathetic nervous system)
  • (animals try to remove themselves from it)
  • uses a lot of energy
123
Q

What happens during the resistance/adaptation stage of GAS?

A
  1. Arousal of CNS leads to release of CRH (hypothalamic corticotropin-releasing hormone)
  2. CRH stimulates pituitary gland to release ACTH
  3. ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex to produce stress hormone (cortisol)
124
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

Promotes the release of glucose from stored sources

  • mobilizes the body’s energy
  • suppresses inflammatory response
  • suppresses immune response
  • suppresses insulin
125
Q

What happens during the stage of exhaustion during GAS?

A
  • chronic stress
  • compensatory mechanisms break down
  • impairment of immune response, heart failure, kidney failure
126
Q

When does disease occur?

A

When cells function outside of the normal range

127
Q

What is the range of tolerance?

A

Range of specific environmental variable that an individual can survive
- one individual can have a higher tolerance than another

128
Q

What are the 5 types of cell adaptations?

A
  1. Atrophy
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Hyperplasia
  4. Metaplasia
  5. Dysplasia
129
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Cells decrease in size

  • not enough nutrition
  • not enough blood supply (ischemia)
130
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Cells increase in size

  • results from increased activity, stimulation, nutrition
  • fat cells enlarge
131
Q

What is hyperplasia

A

Cells increase in number

- results from increased stimulation and nutrition

132
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Convert one cell type to another

- occurs with adverse or prolonged exposure to stimuli

133
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Disorderly growth

  • growth is found above the basal cell level
  • maladaptive
134
Q

What is an example of metaplasia that can occur b/c of smoking?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium are replaced with stratified squamous epithelium

135
Q

Which cell adaptations are reversible?

A
  1. Atrophy
  2. Metaplasia
  3. Hyperplasia
  4. Hypertrophy
136
Q

What cell adaptation is IRREVERSIBLE?

A

Dysplasia!

137
Q

What are some reasons for the buildup of intracellular accumulations?

A
  • excessive amounts of normal intracellular substances (fat)
  • Abnormal substances due to faulty metabolism
  • Accumulation of pigments/particles that the cell is unable to degrade
138
Q

What are the types of intracellular accumulations?

A
  1. Exogenous substances (unused foods)
  2. Abnormal proteins (amyloid)
  3. Pigments (lipofuscin)
  4. Calcium salts
139
Q

What are the three reasons that intracellular accumulations can be dangerous for a cell?

A
  1. Toxic
  2. Evoke an immune response (that may injure the cell)
  3. Occupy space needed for metabolism
    * accumulations could occur b/c cell is ALREADY injured
140
Q

What is dystrophic calcification?

A

Necrotic tissue attracts calcium salts and becomes calcified

damaged heart values

141
Q

What is metastatic calcification?

A

Hypercalcemia followed by deposition of calcium salts in normal tissues
- too much calcium in blood, deposited into tissues

142
Q

Describe the mechanism of hydropic change

when Na+/K+ pumps cease

A
  • decreased oxygen
  • less ATP is produced
  • Na+/K+ pumps cannot work fast enough
  • Na+ leaks into cell, water follows
  • mitochonria and ER membranes rupture
  • catastrophic Ca+2 entry into cytosol from organelles
  • membrane ruptures
143
Q

What happens to a cell during hypoxia?

when anaerobic metabolism kicks in

A
  • decreased oxygen
  • anaerobic metabolism used –> lactic acid builds up
  • pH goes down, proteins become damaged
  • cell gets “cooked”
144
Q

If the heart has been without oxygen for a while, what would happen if we delivered 100% O2 to try to solve the problem?

A

Once cells adapt to reduced O2 levels (pilot light level) and regular O2 levels are introduced, free radicals are produced that ALSO cause damage to the heart!

145
Q

What is a free radical?

A

Molecules with an unshared pair of electrons in the outer electron shell

  • extremely reactive
  • causes cells damage
146
Q

If a patient is experiencing hypoxia, why do we have to control the flow of Ca+2?

A

Ca+2 acts as a second messanger inside the cell

  • can open more calcium “gates”
  • causes a calcium cascade!
147
Q

What are 4 factors that can result from increased Ca+2 in the cytosol of a cell?

A
  1. ATPase (decreased ATP)
  2. Phospholipase (decreased phospholipids)
  3. Protease (disruption of membrane proteins)
  4. Endonuclease (nuclear chromatin damage)
148
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Cell suicide

  • removes worn out/damaged cells
  • removes unwanted tissue
  • normal process in the body
  • very little debris left behind
  • DOES NOT lead to inflammation
149
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Unregulated cell death

  • cells swell and rupture
  • inflammation results
  • a LOT of debris left behind –> inflammation
150
Q

Why do cells that are not anchored to the extracellular matrix destroyed by apoptosis?

A

B/c the body does not random organ cells growing in other parts of the body

151
Q

What are the different types of necrosis?

A
  1. Coagulative necrosis
  2. Liquefactive necrosis
  3. Fat necrosis
  4. Caseous necrosis
152
Q

What occurs during coagulative necrosis?

A
  • digestive enzymes are denatured by acidosis
  • characteristic of hypoxic injury
  • Anaerobic –> produce lactic acid –> denature proteins
  • often results from infarct
153
Q

What occurs during liquefactive necrosis?

A

Enzymes digest necrotic tissue

  • occurs in the brain
  • happens with stoke victims
154
Q

What occurs during fat necrosis?

A

Enzymes attack cell membranes of fat cells

  • lipases digest lipids
  • occurs in pancreas
155
Q

What occurs during caseous necrosis?

A

Occurs in tuberculosis

  • encased tissue in a fibrous capsule
  • immune cells congregate and surround bacteria
156
Q

What is gangrene?

A

A large area of necrotic tissue

157
Q

What are the different kinds of gangrene?

A
  1. Dry
  2. Wet
  3. Gaseous
158
Q

Describe the characteristics of dry gangrene.

A
  • arterial blood flow is cut off
  • venous blood flow still functions
  • usually firm, black and NOT smelly
  • most common
  • possibility of infection is lower
159
Q

Describe the characteristics of wet gangrene.

A
  • venous blood flow is cut off
  • arterial blood flow remain
  • will become soggy/liquefy
  • high probability of infection
  • SMELLY
160
Q

Describe the characteristics of gaseous gangrene.

A
  • bacterium produces H2S
  • smells like rotten eggs
  • tissue will have bubbles
161
Q

Frostbite is an example of which type of ganagrene?

A

DRY

162
Q

What happens to dry gangrene if it becomes infected?

A

Becomes wet gangrene

163
Q

What is inflammation?

A

Automatic response to cell injury that:

  • neutralizes harmful agents
  • removes dead tissue
164
Q

What is resolution?

A

Damaged cell tissue is replaced with the original cell type

165
Q

What is healing?

A

Damaged tissue is replaced with a different kind of tissue

166
Q

What is involved with acute inflammation?

A
  • vascular changes
  • infiltration of tissue by WBCs
  • action of inflammatory mediators
167
Q

What are some signs of acute inflammation?

A
  • redness (vasodilation)
  • heat (vasodilation)
  • pain (vasoactive chemicals)
  • swelling (increased vascular permeability and emigration)
168
Q

What happens during the vascular stage of acute inflammation?

A
  • arterioles and venules dilate (increase blood flow to injured area)
  • capillaries become more permeable (allows exudate to escape into the tissues)
169
Q

When the phospholipid bilayer is damaged, which two chemicals are produced?

A

Prostaglandins

Leukotrienes

170
Q

How does histamine differ from prostaglandins?

A

Histamine is short-lived

  • released from mast cells and platelets
  • increased permeability
  • increased hydrostatic pressure causes formation of transudate (edema)
171
Q

What kind of white blood cell is the most numerous and fast-acting?

A

Neutrophils

band cell is an immature neutrophil

172
Q

What white blood cells are involved in inflammation?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils (same function as mast cells)
  • Tissue mast cells
  • Monocytes (macrophages) (large and slow)
173
Q

How do leukocytes enter an injured area?

A
  1. Express adhesive proteins
  2. Attach to the blood vessel lining (pavementing)
  3. Squeeze between the cells (emigration)
  4. Follow inflammatory mediators to the injured area (chemotaxis)
174
Q

What actions do leukocytes do at the site of inflammation?

A
  • phagocytosis

- release of inflammatory mediators

175
Q

What are the steps involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria by leukocytes?

A
  1. Recognition (opsonized)
  2. Binding
  3. Phagocytosis
  4. Digestion
176
Q

What are basophils, mast cells and platelets?

A

Histamines

177
Q

What do corticosteriods act on?

A

Lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase pathways

- Leukotriens AND prostagladins

178
Q

What do non-steriod anti-inflammatory drugs act on?

A

Cyclooxygenase pathway (prostagladins)

179
Q

What effect does prostagladins have?

A

Increase vascular permeability
Induce pain
Increase redness, increase swelling

180
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Increase in total number of WBCs in circulation

181
Q

What are the pathologic forms of inflammation?

A
  • serous inflammation
  • fibrinous inflammation
  • purulent inflammation
  • ulcerative inflammation
  • pseudomembranous inflammation
  • chronic inflammation
  • granulomatous inflammation
182
Q

Describe serous inflammation.

A

Early stage of most inflammation

  • joint swelling
  • viral infection
183
Q

Describe fibrinous inflammation

A

Leakage of blood from vessels

  • usually sticky and red
  • fibrinogen from blood forms strings, and strings stick together to form a clot
184
Q

Describe purulent inflammation

A

Pus

- results from WBCs entering the area

185
Q

Describe ulcerative inflammation

A

Membranes that have damage to mucus membranes

- bleeding

186
Q

Describe granulomatous inflammation

A

Definite border, very condensed

- healing is very slow

187
Q

What is the function of inflammatory exudate?

A
  • dilutes toxins produced in damaged tissue
  • washes out area of pathogens/debris
  • delivers WBCs, nutrients
  • delivers antibodies
188
Q

What is resolution?

A

Replaced with the same kind of tissue

189
Q

What is healing?

A

Replaced with different kind of tissue

- not fully functional

190
Q

What does chronic inflammation lead to?

Resolution or healing?

A

Healing

191
Q

Which tissues are NOT capable of regeneration?

A
  • Brain
  • Cardiac
  • Skeletal muscle
192
Q

Which tissues ARE capable of regeneration?

A
  • epidermis
  • GI
  • bone marrow
  • liver
  • kidney
193
Q

When do stable cells divide?

What are two examples of stable cells?

A

Divide only when injured

- liver and kidney

194
Q

What are the three phases of wound healing?

A
  1. Inflammatory phase
  2. Proliferative phase
  3. Remodeling phase
195
Q

Describe the inflammatory phase of wound healing.

A
  • damaged cells leak histamine; dilate blood vessels
  • increase blood flow
  • increase capillary permeability
196
Q

Describe the proliferative phase of wound healing.

A
  • plasma seeps into wound carrying antibodies, clotting factors and WBCs
  • fibroblasts come into area b/c macrophages are releasing chemicals that attract them
197
Q

Describe the remodeling phase of wound healing.

A
  • formation of granulation tissue
  • new capillaries grow (angiogenesis)
  • fibroblasts deposit new collagen to replace old material
198
Q

What determines how well a wound will heal?

A
  • site of wound
  • size of wound
  • mechanical factors
  • infection
  • circulatory status
  • nutritional and metabolic factors
  • age
199
Q

What removes blood vessels after wound healing?

A

Macrophages!

200
Q

What is wound healing by first intention?

A
  • small, narrow wounds
  • acute inflammation seals the wound
  • occurs when there is no infection
201
Q

What is wound healing by second intention?

A
  • large wounds, big scar
  • acute inflammation is NOT enough to seal the wound
  • chronic inflammation is needed
202
Q

What is a keloid?

A

Scar that goes beyond the edges of the injured area

- corticosteriods will slow them down

203
Q

What happens if you are able to slow down the action of fibroblasts?

A

Slow down collagen formation

–> decreased scar tissue formation

204
Q

Where is temperature regulated in the body?

A

Hypothalamus

205
Q

What causes the set point for temperature to be re-set?

A

Cytokines

Prostaglandins

206
Q

What happens to the metabolic rate with a 1 degree increase in temperature?

A

Increases HR by 15 beats per min

207
Q

Describe an intermittent fever.

A

Temperature returns to NORMAL at least once every 24 hours

208
Q

Describe remittent fever.

A

Temperature doesn’t return to normal, oscillates around new set point

209
Q

Describe sustained fever.

A

Temperature above normal

- minimal to no oscillations

210
Q

Describe relapsing fever.

A

Episode lasting several days

  • 1+ days of normal temp
  • 1+ days of fever
211
Q

What are the 4 stages of fever?

A
  1. Prodromal
  2. Chill
  3. Flush
  4. Defervescent
212
Q

What happens during the prodromal stage of a fever?

A

“Feeling off”

- malaise, mild headache, aches, pains, fatigue

213
Q

What happens during the chill stage of a fever?

A

Feeling cold

- prostaglandins raise set point, body temp hasn’t caught up yet = body thinks its cold

214
Q

What can we do to help a fever? Think medication…

A

Give NSAIDS

  • reduce effect of prostaglandins
  • limits the rise in set point of fever
215
Q

What happens during the flush stage of a fever?

A

Cutaneous vasdilation occurs

- warm and flushed skin

216
Q

What happens during the defervescence stage of fever?

A

Onset of sweating

217
Q

What happens to our metabolism during a fever?

A

Switch from glucose metabolism to protein/lipid metabolism

  • may lead to acidosis
  • increase resp rate
218
Q

Why does delirium occur in elderly patients who have a fever?

A
  • inadequate supply of O2 to the brain

BHSC 1103 (3 decks)

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