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General Test Guide Prepware > Materials And Processes > Flashcards

Materials And Processes Flashcards

1
Q

Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect:

A

Flaws on or near the surface.

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2
Q

Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which of the following?
A. Ferrous metals and nonporous plastics.
B. Porous and nonporous plastics and nonferrous metals.
C. Ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.

A

C. Ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.

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3
Q

Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
A. Eddy current inspection.
B. Magnetic particle inspection.
C. Ultrasonic inspection.

A

C. Ultrasonic inspection.

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4
Q

Which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines?
A. Scratch or nicks hon the inside of a bend less than 10% of wall thickness.
B. Dents in straight section that are 10% of the tube diameter.
C. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter.

A

C. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter.

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5
Q

What nondestructive testing method requires littles or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treated conditions?
A. Eddy current inspection.
B. Ultrasonic inspection.
C. Magnetic particle inspection.

A

A. Eddy current inspection.

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6
Q

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?
A. Residual.
B. Inductance.
C. Continuous.

A

C. Continuous.

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7
Q

Which of the following factors are considered essential knowledge for X-ray exposure?
A. Processing of the film and its characteristics.
B. Material thickness and density and the type of defects to be detected.
C. Processing of the film, characteristics of X-ray machine used, and film characteristics.

A

B. Material thickness and density and the type of defects to be detected.

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8
Q

The testing, medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has;
A. High permeability and low retentivity.
B. Low permeability and high retentivity.
C. High permeability and high retentivity

A

A. High permeability and low retentivity.

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9
Q

Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?
A. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent.
B. It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures.
C. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications.

A

C. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications.

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10
Q

Mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?
A. Eddy current test.
B. Metallic ring test.
C. Ultrasonic test.

A

B. Metallic ring test.

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11
Q

What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?
A. Iron and ferric oxides.
B. Wet and dry process materials.
C. High retentivity and low permeability material.

A

B. Wet and dry process materials.

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12
Q

Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?
A. Copper alloys.
B. Aluminum alloys.
C. Iron alloys.

A

C. Iron alloys.

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13
Q

One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by;
A. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC.
B. Slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.
C. Slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.

A

B. Slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.

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14
Q

Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?
A. 45°
B. Longitudinal.
C. Transverse.

A

A. 45°

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15
Q

Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface in aluminum forging s and castings?
A. Dye penetrant inspection and eddy current inspection.
B. Dye penetrant inspection and magnetic particle inspection.
C. Magnetic particle inspection and metallic ring inspection.

A

A. Dye penetrant inspection and eddy current inspection.

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16
Q

To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires:
A. That the developer be applied to a flat surface.
B. A longer-than-normal penetrating time.
C. The surface to be highly polished.

A

B. A longer-than-normal penetrating time.

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17
Q

Which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when conducting a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection?
A. The size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for.
B. The size and shape of the part being inspected.
C. The type and/or density of the part material.

A

A. The size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for.

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18
Q

When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to:
A. Reveal all possible defects.
B. Evenly magnetize the entire part.
C. Ensure uniform current flow.

A

A. Reveal all possible defects.

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19
Q

In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes:
A. A large disruption in the magnetic field.
B. A minimal disruption in the magnetic field.
C. No disruption in the magnetic field.

A

A. A large disruption in the magnetic field.

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20
Q

If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part:
A. Was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied.
B. Has no appreciable damage.
C. Was not throughly washed before the developer was applied.

A

C. Was not throughly washed before the developer was applied.

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21
Q

(1) An aircraft part may demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength.
(2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength.
A. Both 1 and 2 are true.
B. Only 1 is true.
C. Only 2 is true.

A

A. Both 1 and 2 are true.

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22
Q

The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming:
A. A fern like pattern.
B. A single line.
C. Parallel lines.

A

C. Parallel lines.

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23
Q

A part which os being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned with:
A. A volatile petroleum-base solvent.
B. The penetrant developer.
C. Water-base solvents only.

A

A. A volatile petroleum-base solvent.

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24
Q

Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?
A. The discontinuity pattern is straight.
B. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed area of the part.
C. The discontinuity is found in highly stressed area of the part.

A

C. The discontinuity is found in highly stressed area of the part.

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25
Q

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer:
A. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect.
B. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication.
C. Throughly cleans the surface prior to produce a visible

A

B. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication.

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26
Q

What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable?
A. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
B. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.
C. Defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.

A

A. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.

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27
Q

Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects?
A. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.
B. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
C. Defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.

A

A. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.

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28
Q

(1) In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part.
(2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part.
A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true.

A

C. Both 1 and 2 are true.

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29
Q

What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished?
A. Concentration cell.
B. Intergranular.
C. Fretting.

A

B. Intergranular.

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30
Q

Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?
A. Decreasing internal stresses and softening of the metal.
B. Softening of the metals and improved corrosion resistance.
C. Improved corrosion resistance.

A

A. Decreasing internal stresses and softening of the metal.

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31
Q

Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?
A. Case hardening.
B. Annealing.
C. Tempering.

A

A. Case hardening.

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32
Q

Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
A. Tempering.
B. Normalizing.
C. Case hardening.

A

C. Case hardening.

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33
Q

Normalizing is a process of heat treating:
A. Aluminum alloys only.
B. Iron-base metals only.
C. Both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals.

A

B. Iron-base metals only.

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34
Q

Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force such as rolling, hammering, or bending is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature?
A. The metals become artificially aged.
B. The metals become stress corrosion cracked.
C. The metals become strain or work hardened or cold worked.

A

C. The metals become strain or work hardened or cold worked.

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35
Q

The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch:
A. Has little or no effect on a metal’s heat treated characteristics.
B. Has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment.
C. Can significantly alter a metal’s properties in the reheated area.

A

C. Can significantly alter a metal’s properties in the reheated area.

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36
Q

Why is steel tempered after being hardened?
A. To increase its hardness and ductility.
B. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses.
C. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.

A

C. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.

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37
Q

What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no Harding or tempering treatment?
A. 3003-F.
B. 5052-H36.
C. 6061-O.

A

A. 3003-F.

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38
Q

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?
A. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form.
B. 6061-T9 stainless steel.
C. Clad aluminum alloy.

A

C. Clad aluminum alloy.

39
Q

What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed?
A. Rapid cooling; high strength.
B. Slow cooling; low strength.
C. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear.

A

B. Slow cooling; low strength.

40
Q

Torque values for aircraft bolts normally consider:
A. The threads to be clean and dry.
B. Tightening the bolt head.
C. Lubricating the threads.

A

A. The threads to be clean and dry.

41
Q

What is generally used in the construction of aircraft exhaust collectors, stacks, and manifolds?
A. Stainless steel.
B. Titanium.
C. Aluminum.

A

A. Stainless steel.

42
Q

What metal has special short-time heat properties and is used in the construction of aircraft firewalls?
A. Stainless steel.
B. Chrome molybdenum ally steel.
C. Titanium alloy.

A

C. Titanium alloy.

43
Q

Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is:
A. Upward, or in rearward direction.
B. Upward, or in forward direction.
C. Downward, or in forward direction.

A

B. Upward, or in forward direction.

44
Q

Alclad is metal consisting of:
A. Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core.
B. Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core.
C. A homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy.

A

B. Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core.

45
Q

A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is:
A. Under shear loading.
B. Under tension loading.
C. Subject to rotation.

A

C. Subject to rotation.

46
Q

Self-locking nuts may be used on aircraft provided that:
A. The head of the bolt is safety wired.
B. They are installed with a lock washer.
C. The bolt or nut is not subject to rotation.

A

C. The bolt or nut is not subject to rotation.

47
Q

The society of automotive engineers (SAE) and the American iron and steel institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number “4130” designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the:
A. Percentage of the basic element in the alloy.
B. Percentage of carbon in the alloy in hundredths of a percent.
C. Basic alloying element.

A

C. Basic alloying element.

48
Q

(Refer to Figure 42) which of the bolt head code markings shown identifies an AN corrosion resistant steel bolt?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.

A

C. 3.

49
Q

Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt head are:
A. Made of aluminum alloy.
B. Close tolerance bolts.
C. Standard steel bolts.

A

C. Standard steel bolts.

50
Q

Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?
A. When tightening castellated nuts on a drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is permissible to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin hole.
B. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal that material thickness.
C. Alloy steel bolts smaller the 1/4-inch diameter should not be used in primary structure.

A

B. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal that material thickness.

51
Q

Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be:
A. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together, plus approximately one diameter.
B. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together.
C. One and one half times the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

A

B. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

52
Q

When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the recommended torque value be found?
A. AC 43.13-1b.
B. Technical standard order.
C. AC43.13-2A.

A

A. AC 43.13-1b.

53
Q

(Refer to Figure 43) identify the clevis bolt illustrated.
A. 1.
B. 3.
C. 2.

A

B. 3.

54
Q

A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to:
A. Exceed the recommended torque range by no more than 10%.
B. Tighten below the torque range.
C. Change washers and try again.

A

C. Change washers and try again.

55
Q

A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an:
A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.
B. NAS standard bolt.
C. NAS close tolerance bolt.

A

A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.

56
Q

How is a clevis bolt used with a fort-end cable terminal secured?
A. With a shear nut tightened to a snug sit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin.
B. With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached.
C. With a shear nut and a cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork end.

A

A. With a shear nut tightened to a snug sit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin.

57
Q

Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?
A. For tension and shear load conditions.
B. When external tension loads are applications.
C. Only for shear load applications.

A

C. Only for shear load applications.

58
Q

A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an:
A. NAS standard aircraft bolt.
B. NAS close tolerance bolt.
C. AN corrosion- resistant steel bolt.

A

B. NAS close tolerance bolt.

59
Q

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is:
A. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.
B. Commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum alloy.
C. Strain-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

A

A. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

60
Q

The aluminum code number is 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?
A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper.
B. Aluminum alloy containing zinc.
C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

A

C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

61
Q

Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a;
A. Class 1 fit for the threads.
B. Class 2 fit for the threads.
C. Class 3 fit for the threads.

A

C. Class 3 fit for the threads.

62
Q

In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates:
A. The major alloying element.
B. The number of major alloying elements used in the metal.
C. The percent of alloying metal added.

A

A. The major alloying element.

63
Q

How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut obtained?
A. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert.
B. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section.
C. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section.

A

A. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert.

64
Q

Why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld nomenclature?
A. So that accurate visual (pictorial) comparisons can be made.
B. In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used.
C. In order to compare welds with written (nonpictorial) description standards.

A

B. In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used.

65
Q

(Refer to Figure 44) identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of acetylene.
A. 4.
B. 1.
C. 3.

A

C. 3.

66
Q

(Refer to Figure 44) select the illustration which depicts a cold weld:
A. 3.
B. 2.
C. 4.

A

B. 2.

67
Q

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?
A. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal.
B. To increase the hardness of the weld.
C. To remove the surface scale formed during welding.

A

A. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal.

68
Q

Holed and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken?
A. Reweld the defective portions.
B. Remove all old weld, and reweld the joint.
C. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect, and reweld all gaps/holes.

A

B. Remove all old weld, and reweld the joint.

69
Q

Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?
A. Cracking adjacent to the weld.
B. Discoloration of the base metal.
C. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.

A

A. Cracking adjacent to the weld.

70
Q

Select a characteristic of a good gas weld.
A. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to s sure fusion of filler rod.
B. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal.
C. The weld should be taper off smoothly into the base metal.

A

C. The weld should be taper off smoothly into the base metal.

71
Q

One characteristic of a good weld is the no oxide should be formed on the base meta at the distance from the weld of more than:
A. 1/2 inch.
B. 1 inch.
C. 1/4 inch.

A

A. 1/2 inch.

72
Q

In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a mechanic should be familiar with:
A. Likely ambient exposure conditions and intestate use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition.
B. The weld technique, filler material, and temperature range used.
C. The parts, proportions, and formation of a weld.

A

A. Likely ambient exposure conditions and intestate use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition.

73
Q

(Refer to Figure 45) What type weld is shown at A?
A. Fillet.
B. Butt.
C. Lap.

A

B. Butt.

74
Q

(Refer to Figure 45) What type weld is shown at B?
A. Butt.
B. Double butt.
C. Fillet.

A

B. Double butt.

75
Q

(Refer to Figure 45) What type weld is shown at G?
A. Lap.
B. Butt.
C. Joint.

A

A. Lap.

76
Q

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the base metal thickness?
A. 100%.
B. 25 to 50%.
C. 60 to 80%.

A

B. 25 to 50%.

77
Q

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or plane of rotation of a disk?
A. Dial indicator.
B. Shaft gauge.
C. Protractor.

A

A. Dial indicator.

78
Q

(Refer to Figure 46) The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is:
A. 0.2851.
B. 0.2911.
C. 0.2901.

A

A. 0.2851.

79
Q

Identify the correct statement.
A. An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters.
B. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type.
C. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measure as a device.

A

C. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measure as a device.

80
Q

(Refer to Figure 47) what is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale?
A. 1.411 inches.
B. 1.436 inches.
C. 1.700 inches.

A

B. 1.436 inches.

81
Q

Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relative;y narrow surface being checked for flatness?
A. Depth gauges.
B. Thickness gauges.
C. Dial indicator.

A

B. Thickness gauges.

82
Q

Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer?
A. 0.00001.
B. 0.001.
C. 0.0001.

A

C. 0.0001.

83
Q

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work?
A. Combination set.
B. Dial indicator.
C. Micrometer caliper.

A

A. Combination set.

84
Q

(Refer to Figure 48) what does the micrometer read?
A. 0.2974.
B. 0.3004.
C. 0.3108.

A

B. 0.3004.

85
Q

If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a:
A. Telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gauge.
B. 0- to 1- inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly form the micrometer.
C. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

A

C. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

86
Q

(Refer to Figure 49) The measurement reading on the micrometer is:
A. 0.2758.
B. 0.2702.
C. 0.2792.

A

C. 0.2792.

87
Q

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension?
A. Machinist scale.
B. Surface gauge.
C. Dial indicator.

A

A. Machinist scale.

88
Q

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer on check its accuracy?
A. Gauge block.
B. Dial indicator.
C. Machinist scale.

A

A. Gauge block.

89
Q

What precision measuring tool is used fro measuring crank pin and main bearing journals for out-of-round wear?
A. Dial gauge.
B. Micrometer caliper.
C. Depth gauge.

A

B. Micrometer caliper.

90
Q

The side clearance of piston rings are measured with a:
A. Micrometer caliper gauge.
B. Thickness gauge.
C. Dial gauge.

A

B. Thickness gauge.

91
Q

How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?
A. Depth gauge and micrometer.
B. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor.
C. Telescopic gauge and micrometer.

A

C. Telescopic gauge and micrometer.

92
Q

The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bras on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a:
A. Dial indicator.
B. Height gauge.
C. Thickness gauge.

A

C. Thickness gauge.

93
Q

What may be used to check the stem on a poppettype valve for stretch?
A. Dial indicator.
B. Micrometer.
C. Telescoping.

A

B. Micrometer.

94
Q

Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out-of-round wear?
A. Telescopic gauges.
B. Micrometer caliper.
C. Dial indicator.

A

B. Micrometer caliper.

General Test Guide Prepware (12 decks)

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