May 2025 Flashcards

Question

What is the primary objective of ‘Operation Kagar’, recently seen in the news?

Answer 1

To eradicate Maoist (Naxalite) influence from insurgency-affected regions. Explanation : Telangana Chief Minister recently said there should be a national-level debate on Operation Kagar. About Operation Kagar: It is a large-scale counterinsurgency initiative launched by the Indian government in 2024, aimed at dismantling the Maoist (Naxalite) insurgency, particularly in the "Red Corridor" spanning Chhattisgarh, Telangana and neighbouring states. Under this operation, around 1 lakh paramilitary troops, including the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), its elite CoBRA units, District Reserve Guards (DRG), and state police, have been deployed in the left-wing terrorism-affected areas. These security personnel are equipped with modern technology like drones for information gathering, AI for intelligence gathering, and satellite imagery, among others. The primary goal of Operation Kagar is to eradicate Maoist influence by March 2026. Operation Kagar, which roughly means ‘Final Mission’, follows a four-part plan: Establishing forward operating bases deep in Maoist territory. Building hundreds of fortified police stations in reclaimed areas. Gathering intelligence through high-tech monitoring. Pushing a "generous surrender policy" that has seen thousands of Naxalites lay down arms in the past decade. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.newsonair.gov.in/telangana-cm-calls-for-national-debate-on-operation-kagar/

Answer 2

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A recent study in the Lancet eBioMedicine found a strong correlation between exposure to Di-2-ethylhexyl phthalate (DEHP) and increased cardiovascular mortality, especially in the 55–64 age group. About Di-2-ethylhexyl Phthalate (DEHP) Di-2-ethylhexyl phthalate (DEHP) is a synthetic chemical primarily used as a plasticiser, meaning it is added to plastics to make them more flexible, durable, and resistant to breaking. DEHP is a colourless, oily liquid with little to no odour, and is soluble in oils but not in water. It is widely used in the manufacture of polyvinyl chloride (PVC) plastics. Alternate names for DEHP include Dioctyl Phthalate (DOP) and Bis(2-ethylhexyl) Phthalate (BEHP), often found in industrial and consumer products. DEHP is prevalent in everyday items, such as food packaging materials, medical devices (like IV tubes), children’s toys, shampoos, lotions, and vinyl flooring, making human exposure widespread and continuous. In 2018, exposure to DEHP was linked to around 356,238 global deaths in that age group, accounting for over 13% of global cardiovascular deaths for individuals aged 55–64. India accounted for the highest number of DEHP-related cardiovascular deaths globally, with an estimated 103,587 deaths, nearly one-third of the global burden. DEHP is known to cause inflammation in coronary arteries, thereby increasing the risk of heart attacks and strokes over time. Apart from cardiovascular issues, DEHP exposure is associated with multiple health disorders, including: Obesity and Type 2 diabetes Hormonal disruptions and infertility Increased risk of certain cancers Premature birth and developmental disorders in infants About 75% of the global DEHP-related deaths occurred in regions like Asia, the Middle East, and the Pacific, highlighting the disproportionate burden on developing countries. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/these-regular-use-items-may-be-killing-you-india-has-highest-cardiovascular-mortality-linked-to-phthalates-finds-study

Answer 3

Moist Deciduous Forest Explanation : Tissue-cultured teak is being promoted as a high-yield, fast-return solution to boost India’s timber cultivation and trade, raising debates about its productivity, economic viability, and ecological sustainability. About Teak (Tectona grandis) Teak (Tectona grandis) is globally valued for its durability, strength, and resistance to pests and water, earning it the title of "king of timbers". It is one of the world’s most valuable tropical hardwoods, extensively used in shipbuilding, construction, furniture, flooring, and musical instruments. India holds 35% of the world’s planted teak forests, with Asia accounting for over 95% of global teak resources. As per the FAO Global Teak Resources and Market Assessment 2022, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra have the largest areas of native teak forests. Geographic Distribution Native to South and Southeast Asia, especially India, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, and Indonesia. In India, teak is found in states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Assam, and the Northeast region. Grows primarily in moist deciduous and mixed deciduous forests. Prefers well-drained soils and full sunlight; can grow up to 30–40 meters in height and live for hundreds of years. Ecological and Structural Characteristics Large, deciduous tree with a straight, cylindrical trunk (1–1.5 m diameter). Leaves: Oblong, glossy, dark green; arranged in opposite pairs. Flowers: Small, white/cream, fragrant, borne in clusters. Wood colour: Golden brown to dark brown. Ecological role: Supports wildlife and biodiversity in native ecosystems. Regulatory Context Green felling (commercial harvesting of trees) is prohibited in government forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, and National Forest Policy, 1988. Hence, private teak plantations are key to meeting domestic and export demands. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/forests/taming-the-teak

Answer 4

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Global trafficking of pangolin scales has sharply declined since 2020, primarily due to COVID-19-related disruptions, sustained law enforcement actions, and evolving smuggling tactics, according to the Wildlife Justice Commission (WJC) report. About Pangolin Species: There are 8 species of pangolins: 4 in Africa (Black-bellied, White-bellied, Giant Ground, Temminck’s Ground) and 4 in Asia (Indian, Chinese, Sunda, Philippine pangolins). Physical and Behavioural Traits Habitat: Pangolins live in tropical forests, grasslands, and agricultural areas, and are found close to human settlements. The Indian pangolin is common across India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh. Diet and Ecosystem Role: They feed primarily on ants and termites, contributing to pest control and soil aeration, making them crucial for ecosystem balance. Threats: They are heavily targeted for illegal trade in Asia, where their scales are used in traditional medicine and meat is considered a delicacy. Additionally, habitat loss has worsened their decline. Conservation Status: Indian pangolin is Endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Chinese pangolin is listed as Critically Endangered. Both are protected under Schedule I of India’s Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. All 8 species are listed in CITES Appendix I, prohibiting international commercial trade. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/global-trafficking-of-pangolin-scales-elephant-ivory-plummets-post-pandemic

Answer 5

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Eight Gram Sabhas in Baipariguda block of Koraput district, Odisha have collected over 4 lakh bundles of kendu leaves and are awaiting government notification to deregulate the trade. Why in the News? In the Koraput district of Odisha, eight Gram Sabhas from Baipariguda block, including villages like Kalatha Jodi, Kupuli Guda, and Badali Beda, have collectively harvested more than 4 lakh bundles of kendu leaves during the 2025 season. These tribal communities are seeking to independently manage and sell kendu leaves under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. What is Kendu Leaf? The Kendu Leaf, also called “Green Gold of Odisha”, is one of the most vital non-wood forest products (NWFPs) in the region. In other parts of India, it is known as the Tendu Leaf. It is nationalised, like Bamboo and Sal seed, meaning its collection and trade are regulated by the government. Primary use: Used to roll tobacco into bidis (local cigarettes); also holds medicinal value. Key Producer States: Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat. Odisha is the third-largest producer after MP and Chhattisgarh. Tribal Rights Under FRA Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognises rights of forest-dwelling communities to collect, use, and sell minor forest produce (MFP) like kendu leaves. 2012 Amendment to FRA: Empowers communities to process, store, transport, and sell MFP without paying royalties or seeking permission. Transit permits must be issued by the Community Forest Rights Management Committee (CFRMC), not forest officials. CFRMC Role & Transit Permits Under FRA, Transit Permits must be issued by the Community Forest Rights Management Committee (CFRMC). State laws like the Odisha Kendu Leaf (Control of Trade) Act cannot override the FRA, as its provisions hold legal supremacy. Hence both statements are correct. News: Odisha’s kendu leaf trade hangs in balance as tribal communities await deregulation of “green gold”

Answer 6

Rub’al-Khali, Ad-Dhana Desert and An-Nafud Desert Explanation : A recent study published in Nature presents evidence of recurring humid periods in the Arabian Desert, currently the largest expanse of dunes on Earth. Geography of the Arabian Desert Spans around 900,000 square miles, making it the second-largest desert in the world (after the Sahara). Located across Saudi Arabia, UAE, Yemen, and Oman, and stretches into Iraq, Jordan, Qatar, and Kuwait. Composed of three main deserts: Rub’al-Khali (Empty Quarter) – the largest dune desert. Ad-Dhana Desert – central corridor. An-Nafud Desert – northern zone. Climatic Features The region is hyper-arid, with less than 33 mm of annual rainfall. Extreme temperature variations: above 50°C during the day, dropping sharply at night. Frequent sandstorms, including seasonal Shamals and whirlwinds called Dust Devils, reduce visibility and affect human movement. Flora and Fauna Plant life is scarce but includes Date palms, adenium (desert rose), acacia, ghaf trees, salt-bush, and juniper. Animal species: Large mammals like the Arabian oryx, camels, and gazelles. Predators like striped hyenas, Arabian wolves, and caracals (now rare). Reptiles like dhub lizards, horned vipers, and cobras. Birds like falcons, vultures, and doves. Insects including scarab beetles, ants, and wasps. Green Arabia Key Discoveries Speleothems (Stalagmites & Stalactites): Found deep within caves in the Arabian Peninsula, these mineral deposits form only with consistent rainfall, vegetation, and soil. Their existence points to multiple “green phases” in the region over the last 8 million years. Uranium dating: Used to accurately determine the age of speleothem formations, providing one of the oldest continuous climate records for Arabia. Oxygen isotope analysis: Helped estimate past rainfall levels and periods of humidity, confirming that Arabia was not always a desert. Archaeological evidence: In the Baynunah Formation (UAE), fossils dating back 7 million years show the presence of: Hippos, Elephants, Giraffes & Primates. These fossils indicate that Green Arabia served as a migratory route for animals and hominids. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.sciencenews.org/article/green-arabian-desert-link-africa-asia

Answer 7

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has successfully developed two genome-edited rice varieties. About Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. Formerly known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture. The ICAR has its headquarters in New Delhi. The Council is the apex body for coordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture, including horticulture, fisheries, and animal sciences, throughout the country. India has one of the largest agricultural systems in the world, with 113 ICAR institutes and 74 agricultural universities across the country. Through its research and technology, India has significantly increased production from 1950-51 to 2021-22: foodgrains grew by 6.21 times, fruits and vegetables by 11.53 times, fish by 21.61 times, milk by 13.01 times, and eggs by 70.74 times. This has greatly improved the country’s food and nutritional security. New Genome Rice Varieties The first variety, named as DRR Dhan 100 Kamala, was developed from a popular high yielding green rice Samba Mahsuri and the second variety is from Maharashtra Technology University 1010 (MTU1010), which is also widely used by farmers across the country. The new variety developed from Samba Mahsuri can be harvested 15-20 days ahead of its original. The yield is almost 25% more, which is about eight tonnes more per hectare. Each panicle of the paddy will give 450 to 500 more grains in this variety than the original crop. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/icar-to-launch-two-genome-edited-rice-varieties/article69535695.ece

Answer 8

1 only Explanation : The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has alleged that a director of several group companies shared price-sensitive information and breached regulations aimed at preventing insider trading. About Insider Trading Insider trading involves buying or selling a publicly traded company's stock based on nonpublic, material information about that company. Material, nonpublic information is any undisclosed information that could substantially impact an investor's decision to buy or sell a security. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) defines an ‘insider’ as someone who has access to price-sensitive information about a particular company's shares or securities. In India, insider trades are regulated by the SEBI under the Insider Trading Regulations, 2015. To prevent such acts of insider trading and to promote fair trading in the market for the interest of common investors, SEBI has prohibited the firms from purchasing their own shares from the secondary market. SEBI can impose fines and prohibit individuals or entities from trading in the capital market if found in violation of rules. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/sebi-accuses-pranav-adani-in-insider-trading-case-he-seeks-to-settle/article69530009.ece

Answer 9

Goa Explanation : In a tragic turn of events, at least six people died, and over 70 others were injured after a stampede at wee hours of Saturday in Shirgaon village in North Goa's Bicholim, during the annual Lairai Jatra procession at Shree Lairai Devi temple. About Lairai Devi Temple The Lairai Devi Temple is a revered spiritual site located in Shirgao village, Bicholim taluka, North Goa. Dedicated to Goddess Lairai, who is believed to be an incarnation of Goddess Parvati, the temple holds immense cultural and religious significance for the local community. The temple's architecture reflects traditional Goan design, with intricate carvings and vibrant interiors that add to its sacred charm. The temple is a symbol of religious harmony, with local Hindus and Catholics regarding Lairai Devi and the Virgin Mary of Mapusa as sisters. It is best known for hosting the annual Lairai Devi Jatra (Shirgao Jatra), where the dramatic fire-walking ritual (Agnidivya) is performed by devotees called "dhonds." The festival begins with processions, devotional dances, and drumming. At midnight, a massive bonfire is lit, and in the early hours, the fire-walking ritual commences. Devotees chant the goddess’s name as they cross the embers, believing the righteous will remain unharmed. The event draws tens of thousands of devotees from Goa, Maharashtra, and Karnataka, fostering strong community bonds and reinforcing local traditions. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/what-led-to-stampede-at-goas-lairai-devi-temple-six-people-killed-collector-sp-shunted-out-5-points-to-know-11746278247643.html

Answer 10

Pakistan Explanation : Pakistan claimed on Saturday that it has conducted a ‘successful’ training launch of the Abdali Weapon System. About Abdali Missile The Abdali (Hatf-II) is a short-range, road-mobile, solid-fuel ballistic missile developed by Pakistan’s Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission (SUPARCO). It is designed for tactical battlefield use and can deliver both conventional and nuclear warheads. The latest test claims a maximum range of 450 kilometers (about 280 miles), doubling the previously reported operational range of 180–200 km. The missile is equipped with an advanced inertial navigation system, offering a Circular Error Probable (CEP) of 100–150 meters, indicating high accuracy. It is launched from a road-mobile Transporter-Erector-Launcher (TEL), enabling rapid deployment and mobility. The Abdali can carry a single payload (high explosive, submunitions, or conventional warhead) weighing between 250–500 kg. The missile’s solid-propellant engine allows for quick reaction and storage, enhancing its battlefield utility. The system is already in operational service with Pakistan’s Army Strategic Forces Command since 2005. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.livemint.com/news/successfully-tested-abdali-ballistic-missile-with-450-km-range-claims-pakistan-11746259206966.html

Answer 11

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Government of India has announced the establishment of the Indian Institute of Creative Technology (IICT) in Mumbai, modelled after the IITs and IIMs. About Indian Institute of Creative Technology The Indian Institute of Creative Technology (IICT) is India’s first dedicated institute for Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics and Extended Reality (AVGC-XR), established as a National Centre of Excellence in Mumbai. IICT is modelled after the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs), aiming to set new benchmarks in creative technology education and research. The institute’s mission is to create Indian intellectual property leveraging the country’s rich cultural heritage and to cultivate talent for the global digital content industry. IICT will feature state-of-the-art infrastructure, including immersive studios, animation and gaming labs, virtual production setups, editing and sound suites, and smart classrooms. The permanent campus will be developed over ten acres at Dadasaheb Phalke Chitranagari (Film City), Goregaon, Mumbai, while initial operations will begin at Bandra-Kurla Complex (BKC). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/sports/off-the-field/india-unveils-indian-institute-of-creative-technology-to-empower-youth-in-digital-economy/articleshow/120850225.cms

Answer 12

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A recent study published in ACS Environmental Science & Technology has provided the first direct evidence of turbidity currents transporting microplastics into the deep sea through submarine canyons, even in areas not fed by rivers (e.g., Whittard Canyon off Ireland). What are Turbidity Currents? Turbidity currents are rapid, downslope flows of water heavily laden with sediments, increasing the water’s density. They function similarly to underwater avalanches, triggered by: Earthquakes Submarine landslides Slope failures and other geological disturbances Key Features of Turbidity Currents: As turbidity increases, water becomes denser and less transparent. These flows erode the seafloor, forming and enlarging submarine canyons. They deposit sediment in graded layers, with coarser particles settling first and finer ones later. Aid in deep-sea sedimentation and shaping oceanic topography. Submarine Canyons Submarine canyons are narrow, steep-sided underwater valleys found on continental slopes and rises, often extending from the continental shelf into the deep ocean. They are carved out mainly by erosional forces like turbidity currents, similar to how river canyons are formed on land. Globally, there are about 9,477 known submarine canyons, covering nearly 11% of continental slope areas. Canyons on active margins (tectonically active zones) tend to be steeper and shorter, while those on passive margins are more gradual. Their walls can be nearly vertical and are prone to collapse, adding sediment to turbidity flows. Types of Submarine Canyons Bank: A flat-topped elevation on continental margins, formed by erosional and depositional processes, e.g., Dogger Bank in the North Sea. Shoal: A shallow area of sediment accumulation, often hazardous to navigation, and generally found at depths <10 meters at low tide. Reef: Built from calcareous skeletons of corals and algae; coral reefs are biodiversity hotspots and prominent in the Pacific Ocean, associated with guyots and seamounts. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-04-scientists-deep-sea-microplastic-hotspots.html#google_vignette

Answer 13

To simulate heat transfer within the human body in space Explanation : Researchers at the Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST) have developed a 3D computational model that shows microgravity consistently increases human core body temperature, which is crucial for long-duration space missions. What is Microgravity? Microgravity is a condition of apparent weightlessness experienced in space when objects are in free-fall orbit around Earth. Microgravity does not mean the absence of gravity. At orbital altitudes (~250 miles above Earth), gravity is ~89% as strong as on Earth. Objects appear to float because they are in continuous free fall around the Earth, a state first explained by Isaac Newton's orbiting cannonball thought experiment. Weightlessness ≠ no gravity; rather, it results from free-fall motion, where objects, spacecraft, and astronauts all fall simultaneously. In such an environment, physiological changes occur, affecting bones, muscles, blood circulation, metabolism, and thermoregulation. Thermoregulation is the process by which the human body maintains a stable core temperature. It is crucial during long-duration space travel, where the microgravity environment significantly alters normal physiological responses. Thermoregulation Model IIST's Thermoregulation Model: Developed a 3D computational model to simulate how heat moves through the human body under microgravity. Incorporates sweating, shivering, clothing effects, organ heat, and blood redistribution to simulate real conditions. Key findings of the model include: Hands and feet become cooler in space over time. Head, abdomen, and core body regions become warmer. During exercise in space, the body temperature rises faster than it does on Earth. Core body temperature can rise from 36.3°C to 37.8°C in 2.5 months of microgravity exposure. With exercise, the temperature may rise to nearly 40°C, a potentially dangerous level. The model’s accuracy was validated using past data from astronauts onboard the Mir Space Station and the International Space Station (ISS). The predicted results matched historical observations. The model also estimates the Universal Thermal Climate Index (UTCI), which reflects how hot or cold it feels outside by factoring in wind, humidity, and solar radiation. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: Microgravity increases core body temperature: IIST model - The Hindu

Answer 14

Italy Explanation : Recently, Scientists observed cyclical episodes of unrest, notably during 1982–1984 and 2011–2024, marked by land uplift, seismic activity, and rumbling sounds caused by underground fluid pressure at Campi Flegrei. Campi Flegrei Campi Flegrei, also known as the Phlegraean Fields, is an active volcanic region situated near Naples, Italy. It differs from traditional volcanoes like Mount Vesuvius, as it is not a single volcano but a volcanic system spread across a large caldera. The caldera, or volcanic depression, spans approximately 12–15 km in diameter and was created due to a massive eruption around 39,000 years ago. This eruption is hypothesized to have had such a climatic impact that it contributed to the decline of Neanderthals. Physical Characteristics One-third of Campi Flegrei lies beneath the Tyrrhenian Sea, between the Italian mainland and the island of Sardinia. It is the largest active volcanic caldera in Europe, far larger and more active than Mount Vesuvius. The last recorded eruption was in 1538, forming Monte Nuovo and ending an interval of roughly 3000 years without eruptions. Campi Flegrei is categorised as a supervolcano, implying that a large-scale eruption could have global consequences, including climate disruption. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-scientists-key-earthquake-italy-

Answer 15

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A research team led by the Hong Kong University of Science and Technology (HKUST) has reported the first-ever experimental observation of a two-dimensional layered room-temperature altermagnet. About Altermagnets Altermagnets are a new class of antiferromagnetic materials that exhibit momentum-dependent spin splitting without requiring spin–orbit coupling (SOC) or net magnetization. This novel spin splitting mechanism arises due to exchange interactions between crystal-symmetry-connected magnetic sublattices, creating a phenomenon known as C-paired spin-valley locking (SVL). Altermagnetism combines the long spin lifetimes and magnetic stability of antiferromagnets with the advantage of spin-split energy bands, making them ideal for spintronic applications. About Spintronics Spintronics (short for spin transport electronics) is a field of electronics that utilises both the intrinsic spin and charge of electrons to store, process, and transfer data. It offers faster processing speeds, higher integration densities, and reduced energy consumption. Key spintronic devices include spin transistors, spin diodes, spin filters, spin RAM, and spin logic gates. In contrast to conventional electronics, which rely solely on electron charge, spintronics provides an additional degree of freedom—electron spin, enabling energy-efficient computation. Valleytronics is an emerging field that uses valley degrees of freedom (minima in energy bands) to store and manipulate data. Like spin, valley indices can be used as binary information units, potentially offering faster and denser data processing. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-04-era-magnetization-future-applications-spintronics.html

Answer 16

Only three Explanation : Recently, President Droupadi Murmu hosted Angolan President João Lourenço at Rashtrapati Bhavan during his first State visit to India. The visit coincided with the 40th anniversary of India–Angola diplomatic relations. Key Facts about Angola Angola is located on the southwestern coast of Africa, with a strategic Atlantic Ocean coastline to the west. Capital: Luanda – a key maritime and oil-exporting hub. Neighbouring countries: Northwest: Republic of the Congo North & Northeast: Democratic Republic of the Congo Southeast: Zambia South: Namibia Major rivers: Cuango River and Cuanza River, vital for hydropower and inland water transport. Highest peak: Mount Moco, the tallest mountain in Angola, located in the Huambo province. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2126648

Answer 17

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India recently received a fresh shipment of Russian Igla-S air defence missiles amid rising tensions with Pakistan following the Pahalgam terror attack. About Igla-S: It is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPADS) developed by Russia. It is a hand-held defence system that can be operated by an individual or crew. It is designed to bring down low-flying aircraft and can also identify and neutralise air targets such as cruise missiles and drones. Features: The Igla-S system comprises the 9M342 missile, the 9P522 launching mechanism, the 9V866-2 mobile test station, and the 9F719-2 test set. These components work together to provide a comprehensive air defence solution. Weighing only 10.8 kilograms (missile) and 18 kilograms (entire system), it offers significant battlefield mobility. Its compact form makes it ideal for mobile ground units in high-threat zones. It uses infrared (IR) homing to lock onto the heat signatures of aerial targets. It is capable of engaging targets up to 6 km away and at altitudes of up to 3.5 km. The speed of the missile is 400 metres per second and the deployment time is 13 seconds. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/international/india-receives-igla-s-air-defences-from-russia-new-missiles-for-forward-deployment-amid-pak-tensions/videoshow/120870670.cms

Answer 18

Pacific Ocean Explanation : Scientists are currently on high alert while observing the Axial Seamount volcano, which is set to erupt for the first time in a decade. About Axial Seamount: It is an underwater volcano located about 300 miles off the coast of Oregon, United States in the Pacific Ocean. It is a shield volcano with a summit marked by a large caldera. It rises to a depth of 1400 m below sea level. It is formed by a hot spot, an area in the Earth's mantle where hot plumes of molten material rise into the crust. It is located on the Juan de Fuca Ridge, the boundary between the Pacific and Juan de Fuca tectonic plates. The volcano is home to hydrothermal vents, underwater hot springs where seawater is heated by magma and ejected in mineral-rich plumes. These vents support diverse marine life, including microbes that use volcanic gases for energy, forming the basis of an ecosystem that includes giant tubeworms, spider crabs, clams, fish and octopuses. It is the most active submarine volcano in the northeast Pacific, with known eruptions in 1998, 2011, and 2015. While Axial Seamount's eruptions are not dangerous to people on land, they offer valuable opportunities for scientific observation. It is part of the Ocean Observatories Initiative (OOI) and hosts the world’s first underwater volcanic observatory called NeMO. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.indy100.com/science-tech/underwater-volcano-scientists-warning-eruption-axial-seamount

Answer 19

Chenab Explanation : In a significant move, India recently stopped the flow of water through the Baglihar Dam on the Chenab River leading to Pakistan. About Baglihar Dam: Baglihar Dam, also known as the Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project, is a run-of-the-river power project on the Chenab River in the Doda District of Jammu and Kashmir. It consists of a concrete gravity dam 144.5 m high and 363 m long, which has a total volume of 1.9 million m³, creating a reservoir with a capacity of 475 million m³. The underground powerhouse is 221 m long, 24 m wide, and 51 m high. The planning of the project started in 1992 and was approved in 1996; the construction began in 1999. The project consists of two stages of 450 MW each. The first phase of the Baglihar Dam was completed in 2004. With the second phase completed on 10 October 2008, the Baglihar Dam has a capacity of 900 MW. Key Facts about Chenab River: The Chenab River literally means "Moon" (Chan) and "River" (aab); is a major river of India and Pakistan. It is a tributary of the Indus River. Course: Origin: It is formed by the confluence of two streams, Chandra and Bhaga, at Tandi in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti Districts of Himachal Pradesh. In its upper reaches, it is also known as the Chandrabhaga. It flows west through Jammu and Kashmir union territory, between the steep cliffs of the Siwalik Range (south) and the Lesser Himalayas (north). Turning southwest, it continues into Pakistan, descending from the uplands into the broad alluvial lowlands of Punjab province. After receiving the Jhelum River near Trimmu, the Chenab empties into the Sutlej River, a tributary of the Indus River. Its total length is about 605 miles (974 km), and it feeds several irrigation canals. Tributaries: The tributaries of the Chenab River include Miyar Nalla, Sohal, Thirot, Bhut Nalla, Marusudar, and Lidrari. The waters of the Chenab are shared by India and Pakistan as per the terms of the Indus Water Treaty. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.news18.com/india/india-cuts-water-flow-through-baglihar-dam-after-indus-treaty-suspension-report-ws-l-9323289.html

Answer 20

Goa Explanation : After months of delay and neglect, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) will begin repairs on the damaged mihrab structure surrounding the centuries-old water tank at Safa Masjid in Ponda. About Safa Masjid: Safa Masjid, also known as the Safa Shahouri Masjid, is a historical mosque located in the village of Ponda, Goa. Constructed in 1560 by Sultan Adil Shah of Bijapur, the mosque stands out as one of the few Islamic structures that survived the Portuguese colonial era when many temples and mosques were destroyed. Recognized for its historical and architectural significance, the Safa Masjid has been designated a national monument under the protection of the Archaeological Survey of India. Architecture: The mosque is designed in an Indo-Islamic architectural style. It has a rectangular structure with a single prayer hall. The roof is built with terracotta tiles. A striking feature of the mosque is its simplicity, with minimal decoration and a focus on clean lines, creating a peaceful and contemplative environment. The mosque doesn't bear any inscription, nor are there historical records that mention its construction. Near the mosque is a water tank (hauz), featuring intricate masonry and stone carvings. It is believed that this tank was part of a more extensive water system, which may have included fountains and pavilions. One of the most enchanting features of Safa Masjid is its garden, designed in the Charbagh style. This garden layout includes an arrangement of paths and plantings. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/goa/archaeological-survey-of-india-to-restore-damaged-mihrab-structure-at-safa-masjid-in-ponda/articleshow/120698337.cms

Answer 21

1 only Explanation : India's SVAMITVA scheme -- a massive project to digitalise land records - will be in global focus at the World Bank Land Conference that begins in the US capital. About SVAMITVA Scheme: The Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas (SVAMITVA) is a central sector scheme launched in 2020. It aims to provide rural people with the right to document their residential properties so that they can use their property for economic purposes. The scheme is for surveying the land parcels in rural inhabited areas using drone technology. The survey shall be done across the country in a phased manner. The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives: To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits. Creation of accurate land records for rural planning. Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the Gram Panchayats (GPs) directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer. Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use. To support the preparation of a better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps. To reduce property-related disputes and legal cases. Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme. In the States, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department will be the Nodal Department and shall carry out the scheme with the support of the State Panchayati Raj Department. Survey of India is the technology partner for implementation. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/india-to-showcase-svamitva-scheme-at-world-bank-land-conference/articleshow/120866489.cms?from=mdr

Answer 22

Coastal East Africa Explanation : A new mosquito species, provisionally named the "Pwani molecular form", has been discovered in the coastal regions of Tanzania and Kenya. About Pwani Molecular Form The species belongs to the Anopheles gambiae complex, a group comprising some of the world’s most potent malaria vectors. The Pwani mosquito shows clear genetic divergence from other members of the Anopheles gambiae complex, indicating it could have distinct ecological or behavioural adaptations. Genetic sequencing confirms that this species is geographically restricted to coastal East Africa, especially Tanzania and Kenya. Unlike known malaria vectors in the region, this mosquito lacks the usual genetic markers for insecticide resistance, indicating a unique resistance mechanism or greater susceptibility to existing insecticides. This creates serious implications for current malaria control strategies, which depend heavily on chemical insecticides, including bed nets and indoor residual spraying. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://phys.org/news/2025-04-species-mosquito-coast-east-africa.html?deviceType=desktop

Answer 23

Chandra X-ray Observatory and MeerKAT radio array Explanation : Astronomers have identified the likely cause of a fracture in a long, bone-like structure in the Milky Way Galaxy, known as G359.13142-0.20005 (G359.13 or "The Snake"), using data from the Chandra X-ray Observatory and MeerKAT radio array. About Pulsar G359- Galactic ‘Bone’ G359.13 is one of the longest and brightest non-thermal filaments in the Galaxy, stretching about 230 light-years and located ~26,000 light-years from Earth, near the Galactic Center. These galactic "bones" are elongated structures seen primarily in radio waves and aligned with magnetic field lines. Their appearance is due to charged particles spiraling along these magnetic fields, emitting synchrotron radiation. A fracture has been detected in the otherwise continuous structure of G359.13. This disruption aligns with the location of a pulsar, identified via both X-ray (Chandra) and radio data (MeerKAT and VLA). The pulsar is a fast-moving, highly magnetized neutron star, created by the collapse of a massive star during a supernova explosion. It travels at speeds estimated between 1 to 2 million miles per hour. The pulsar appears to have collided with G359.13, causing a distortion in its magnetic field, which in turn warped the radio signal and physically fractured the filament. The Chandra X-ray data revealed blue-colored emission from the suspected pulsar. Additional X-ray sources near the pulsar may originate from electrons and positrons (antimatter particles) that have been accelerated to extremely high energies. This event provides critical insights into high-energy astrophysical processes, especially the interaction of pulsars with galactic magnetic structures. About Chandra X-ray Observatory The Chandra X-ray Observatory is NASA’s flagship space telescope for detecting X-ray emissions from super-hot regions of the universe, like supernova remnants, black holes, and galaxy clusters. Launched on July 23, 1999, by the Space Shuttle Columbia (STS-93), Chandra operates in high Earth orbit at altitudes up to 139,000 km to avoid X-ray absorption by Earth’s atmosphere. It is part of NASA’s “Great Observatories” program, along with the Hubble Space Telescope, Spitzer Space Telescope, and the now-retired Compton Gamma Ray Observatory. Chandra has eight-times greater resolution than earlier X-ray missions and can detect X-ray sources 20 times fainter than any of its predecessors. It is managed by NASA’s Marshall Space Flight Center and supports international collaboration for studying extreme environments in the cosmos. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-chandra-fracture-galactic-bone.html

Answer 24

1 only Explanation : University of Oxford scientists have proposed a new method for monitoring volcanic eruptions using a seismic phenomenon called shear-wave splitting at Mount Ontake, Japan. What is Shear-Wave Splitting? Shear-wave splitting refers to the phenomenon where seismic shear waves travel at different speeds based on their polarisation, especially when passing through aligned cracks or fractures in rocks. As magma and volcanic fluids move underground, they alter stress conditions, causing cracks in surrounding rocks to open or close. These changes affect the speed and direction of shear-waves, which scientists can monitor. The degree of shear-wave splitting increases when internal pressure builds up, offering a potential early-warning signal for impending eruptions. About Mount Ontake Mount Ontake is an active stratovolcano located in Honshū Island, Central Japan, near Tokyo. It is Japan's second-highest volcano and part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. The volcano experienced a deadly phreatic (steam-driven) eruption in 2014, which occurred without significant seismic warning, killing over 60 people, most of whom were hikers. Phreatic eruptions are hydrothermal explosions caused by steam pressure and do not involve new magma, making them hard to predict with conventional methods. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-eruption-approaches-earthquake-ontake-volcano.html

Answer 25

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : An international archaeological team has unearthed the oldest known spear tip in Europe, crafted not by Homo sapiens, but by Neanderthals. Where and How Was It Found? The spear tip was discovered in a cave in the North Caucasus region of Russia, embedded in a sediment layer. The findings were published in the Journal of Archaeological Science and are based on materials excavated in 2003 but studied in-depth only recently. It was found along with animal bones and the remains of a campfire, indicating habitation by prehistoric hominins. The team employed spectroscopy, computed tomography (CT scans), and microscopy techniques to analyse the artefact in high detail. Key Features of the Spear Tip The spear tip is approximately 9 cm long. It was made from animal bone, most likely from a bison. It had been shaped using stone tools and affixed to a wooden shaft using natural tar—a sign of planned construction. Micro-cracks on the tip suggest that it struck a hard target, implying use in hunting or combat. Lack of wear and tear indicates the spear was likely used successfully shortly after it was crafted. Dating and Attribution: The artefact dates back to 70,000–80,000 years ago, which is much earlier than the arrival of modern humans in Europe (~45,000 years ago). This confirms that the tool was created by Neanderthals, not Homo sapiens. About Neanderthals (Homo neanderthalensis) Neanderthals were an extinct species of archaic humans, closely related to modern humans. They inhabited Europe, Central Asia, and parts of the Middle East. Genetic evidence shows that modern humans and Neanderthals diverged about 500,000 years ago. The last known Neanderthals died out ~40,000 years ago, shortly after Homo sapiens migrated deeper into Europe. Modern humans carry 1–2% Neanderthal DNA, proving interbreeding occurred. Neanderthal Physical and Cultural Traits Robust bodies adapted for cold climates: shorter, stockier, and extremely muscular. Skull characteristics: Large middle face, projecting nose, angled cheekbones, and receding chin. Brain size comparable to or larger than modern humans, relative to body size. Expert hunters: They used sophisticated stone and bone tools, controlled fire, made clothing, and lived in structured shelters. Practised symbolic behaviour: Made ornaments, and deliberately buried their dead, sometimes with funerary offerings—a practice unmatched by any earlier hominin. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-ancient-bone-spear-russia-oldest.html

Answer 26

All four Explanation : Recently, the Defence Minister held a bilateral meeting with Japan’s Defence Minister Gen Nakatani in New Delhi. Key Facts about Japan Capital: Tokyo, located in east-central Honshu. Official Language: Japanese Currency: Japanese Yen Form of Government: Parliamentary government under a constitutional monarchy Geography: Island nation in East Asia, situated in the Northwestern Pacific Ocean Physical Geography of Japan Archipelago structure: Comprises a chain of islands stretching ~1,500 miles in a northeast–southwest arc. Main Islands (north to south): Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku and Kyushu Maritime borders: East: Pacific Ocean North: Sea of Okhotsk West: Sea of Japan (East Sea) Southwest: East China Sea Land borders: None (island nation) Terrain and Natural Features Landscape: Over 80% mountainous, with rugged terrain. Volcanic activity: Located on the Pacific Ring of Fire – a major zone of earthquakes and active volcanoes. Highest peak: Mount Fuji (3,776 m), a stratovolcano and national symbol. Major mountain ranges: Japanese Alps Major rivers: Shinano River (longest), Tone River, Kiso River Climate Climatic zones: Ranges from subarctic in the north to humid subtropical in the south Frequent natural disasters: Earthquakes, tsunamis, and volcanic eruptions due to tectonic activity Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-pak-tensions-rajnath-to-host-japanese-defence-minister-nakatani-for-talks-on-may-5/article69537994.ece

Answer 27

Sanjay Gandhi National Park Explanation : A recent census reveals at least 54 leopards in Sanjay Gandhi National Park, highlighting coexistence of wildlife amid urbanization and conservation efforts. About Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP): It is a large protected area near Borivali in the northern part of Mumbai. It is situated partly in Thane District and in Mumbai Suburban District of Maharashtra. In the early days, the park was known as Krishnagiri National Park. However, in 1974 the name of this park was changed to 'Borivali National Park' and in 1981 to 'Sanjay Gandhi National Park' to pay tribute to late Indian leader Sanjay Gandhi. It covers an expansive area of 103 sq.km., making it one of the largest parks in the world located within city limits. The Kanheri caves, which are located within the park, were carved out by Buddhist monks between the 1st century CE and 10th century CE. The caves served as monasteries, temples, schools, and living quarters for the monks. They also contain some of the finest examples of Buddhist art and architecture in India. They were chiseled out of a massive basaltic rock outcropping. Besides, the park also has two artificial lakes, namely Tulsi Lake and Vihar Lake. The two lakes together supply a significant amount of water to South Mumbai. Flora: Kadamba, Teak, Karanj, Shisham, and species of acacia, Ziziphus, euphorbias, etc are found in this National Park. Fauna: Leopard, sambar, chital, barking deer, rusty spotted cat, hyena, common palm civet, small Indian civet, Indian crested porcupine, Indian hare, Indian flying fox, common langur, and bonnet macaque. The park also boasts 251 species of birds and a large variety of butterflies. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/54-leopards-well-and-thriving-in-national-park-census-101746385152180.html

Answer 28

United States Explanation : The US President recently directed his administration to rebuild and enlarge Alcatraz, the infamous prison that has been shuttered for more than 60 years on a remote California island off the coast of San Francisco. About Alcatraz Island: Alcatraz Island, also known as 'The Rock,' a rocky island in San Francisco Bay, off the coast of California, in the United States. It occupies an area of 22 acres (9 hectares). History: Sold in 1849 to the U.S. government, Alcatraz was the site of the first lighthouse (1854) on the coast of California. In 1859 the first permanent army troops were stationed at Alcatraz. Two years later it became a military prison. In 1907 it was named the Pacific Branch of the U.S. Military Prison. The army left the island in 1933. Alcatraz served as a federal (national) prison from 1934 to 1963. It housed some of the most dangerous prisoners in the country. The prison was able to hold more than 330 convicts in cells that were 10 feet by 4.5 feet (3 meters by 1.5 meters). However, it was rare for more than 260 prisoners to occupy the island at one time. Alcatraz was considered to be the most inescapable prison in the United States. A few inmates did escape the island. However, it is unlikely that they survived the currents of San Francisco Bay. Eventually, the cost of maintaining the prison resulted in its closing in March 1963. In 1972 Alcatraz became part of the newly created Golden Gate National Recreation Area. It is now open to the public and is a popular tourist destination. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/photos-a-look-at-alcatraz-prison-once-the-home-to-al-capone-machine-gun-kelly-floyd-hamilton-101746440651364-1.html

Answer 29

1 only Explanation : Iran recently unveiled a new solid-fuel ballistic missile named Ghassem Basir. About Ghassem Basir Missile: It is a new medium-range ballistic missile (MRBM) developed by Iran. It is designed to strike targets located more than 1,200 kilometers away. Features: The missile’s length is estimated to be approximately 11 meters, with an overall weight of roughly 7 tons. The missile's airframe is apparently manufactured using carbon fiber composite materials, reducing structural mass and radar cross-section. The warhead is reported to weigh approximately 500 kilograms. The propulsion system is based on solid fuel, which enables quicker launch readiness and more stable storage conditions compared to liquid-fueled alternatives. It can reach speeds up to Mach 12. The guidance system features a thermal imaging sensor, allowing the missile to identify and home in on targets using heat signatures during its terminal flight phase. Additionally, the missile is equipped with a maneuverable reentry vehicle (MaRV) that separates from the booster and is designed to decrease drag, reduce radar observability, and improve ballistic efficiency. It can reportedly be launched from mobile transporter-erector-launchers (TELs), including platforms that resemble civilian trucks. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/iran-unveils-new-ballistic-missile-with-1-200-km-range-amid-houthi-attacks-8333165

Answer 30

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : In a significant step towards streamlining electoral services, the Election Commission of India (ECI) will be launching a single-point digital platform called ECINET. About ECINET: It is a single-point digital platform being developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI). It is a new user-friendly digital interface for the electors and other stakeholders such as the election officials, political parties, and civil society. It will integrate and reorient over 40 of ECI’s existing mobile and web applications. ECINET will subsume existing apps like the Voter Helpline App, Voter Turnout App, cVIGIL, Suvidha 2.0, ESMS, Saksham, and KYC App. ECINET will have an aesthetic User Interface (UI) and a simplified User Experience (UX) by providing a singular platform for all electoral-related activities. This move is also designed to alleviate the burden of the users for downloading and navigating multiple apps and remembering different logins. ECINET will enable users to access relevant electoral data on their desktops or smartphones. The data on ECINET will be entered solely by the authorized ECI official. It would ensure that the data made available to the stakeholders is as accurate as possible. However, in case of any conflict, the primary data as duly filled in statutory forms will prevail. The data provided through ECINET will be strictly aligned within the legal framework established by the Representation of People Act 1950, 1951, Registration of Electoral Rules 1960, Conduct of Election Rules 1961, and instructions issued by ECI from time to time. ECINET is expected to benefit nearly 100 crore electors and the entire electoral machinery comprising over 10.5 lakh Booth Level Officers (BLOs), around 15 Lakh Booth Level Agents (BLAs) appointed by Political Parties, nearly 45 Lakh Polling Officials, 15,597 Assistant Electoral Registration Officers (AEROs), 4,123 EROs, and 767 District Election Officers (DEOs) across the country. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/eci-to-launch-unified-digital-platform-ecinet-to-streamline-electoral-services/articleshow/120866654.cms?from=mdr

Answer 31

1 only Explanation : In its recent statement, the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) raised concerns over the tense situation between India and Pakistan and called for restraint and dialogue. About Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC): It is the second largest intergovernmental organisation after the United Nations, with the membership of 57 states, covering four continents. The Organization was established upon a decision of the historical summit, which took place in Rabat, Kingdom of Morocco on 25 September 1969, following the criminal arson of Al-Aqsa Mosque in occupied Jerusalem. Objective: It aims to preserve Islamic values, safeguard and defend the national sovereignty and independence of member states, and contribute to international peace and security. The OIC is the collective voice of the Muslim world to ensure and safeguard their interest in economic, social, and political areas. Headquarters: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Its official languages are Arabic, English, and French. Notable members include Afghanistan, Bahrain, Bangladesh, Egypt, Indonesia, Iran, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Malaysia, Maldives, Morocco, Niger, Oman, Pakistan, the Palestinian Authority (PA), Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Turkey, Uganda, United Arab Emirates, and Yemen. The OIC is composed of the following main bodies: The Islamic Summit Conference (ISC) is the supreme authority of the OIC, which meets every three years to lay down the Organization's policy. The Council of Foreign Ministers (CFM) meets once a year to examine the implementation of its decisions taken within the framework of the policy defined by the Summit The General Secretariat is the executive organ of the OIC entrusted with the implementation of the decisions of the two preceding bodies To coordinate its action in the various fields of cooperation: political, economic, cultural, social, spiritual and scientific, among Member States, the Organization has created different committees at the ministerial level and a number of which are chaired by heads of states. The OIC partners with international mechanisms (including every specialized UN agency), governments, and civil society organizations (CSOs) to address issues of concern to its member states and Muslims worldwide. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/toi-original/despite-indias-rap-oic-parrots-pak-narrative-on-jk-calls-for-de-escalation-between-nuke-rivals/videoshow/120904631.cms

Answer 32

Maafilaafushi Atoll, Maldives Explanation : INS Sharda, an offshore patrol vessel of the Indian Navy, has arrived at Maafilaafushi Atoll, Maldives, to participate in its first-ever Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise, scheduled from May 4 to May 10, 2025. INS Sharda's Maiden HADR Exercise at Maldives This initiative is part of India’s broader strategic vision to foster regional maritime cooperation and ensure disaster preparedness in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). The deployment underscores India’s commitment to its "Neighbourhood First" Policy, wherein the Maldives holds a special strategic and cultural significance as a close maritime neighbour. The exercise aligns with the recently launched "MAHASAGAR" vision – Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions – announced by the Prime Minister in Mauritius. This vision reaffirms India’s role as a net security provider and first responder in the Indian Ocean. The MAHASAGAR vision is an extension of India’s earlier SAGAR doctrine (Security and Growth for All in the Region), emphasising inclusive security, regional collaboration, and disaster resilience. According to the Indian Navy, the key objectives of this HADR exercise include: Enhancing interoperability between the Indian Navy and the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF). Conducting joint drills for Search and Rescue (SAR) operations, disaster response coordination, logistical support, and medical assistance. Facilitating training sessions for capacity building. Engaging with local communities for awareness and disaster resilience preparedness. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2126999

Answer 33

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The recent New England Journal of Medicine study published that a weekly dose of semaglutide has shown remarkable results in treating Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated Steatohepatitis (MASH). What is Semaglutide? Semaglutide is a GLP-1 receptor agonist, originally developed for Type 2 diabetes management. It is the active ingredient in drugs like Ozempic (for diabetes) and Wegovy (for weight loss). What is MASH? MASH (Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated Steatohepatitis) is a serious form of fatty liver disease marked by excessive fat accumulation, inflammation, and fibrosis in the liver. It occurs independently of alcohol use and is often linked to overnutrition, obesity, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome. MASH is considered a progressive liver condition and can lead to cirrhosis or liver failure if untreated. Why is This Study Important? There is currently no approved drug treatment for MASH, making this finding highly significant. The results show that semaglutide not only improves liver histology but also addresses the root metabolic dysfunctions, such as insulin resistance and inflammation. It provides hope for an additional therapeutic option for patients already vulnerable to cardiovascular, metabolic, and renal complications—areas where semaglutide has proven benefits. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/experts-explain-ai-as-normal-technology-9984804/

Answer 34

Annamite Mountains of Laos and Vietnam Explanation : An international team of scientists has successfully mapped the genome of the Saola using tissue fragments obtained from hunter-collected remains, marking a critical step in understanding and conserving this species. About Saola The Saola (Pseudoryx nghetinhensis) is one of the rarest large land mammals in the world and is often dubbed the "Asian Unicorn" due to its elusive nature. The Saola was first scientifically discovered in 1992 during a joint expedition by the Vietnamese Ministry of Forestry and WWF. The animal is characterised by long, straight, and parallel horns up to 20 inches, found in both males and females, and striking white facial markings. It is currently listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, with an estimated population of only 50 to 300 individuals as per the 2015 assessment. Habitat and Distribution The Saola is found exclusively in the mist-covered evergreen forests of the Annamite Mountains along the Vietnam–Laos border. These forests have little or no dry season and are known for their dense canopy and unique biodiversity. Major Threats The species is threatened by widespread snaring, illegal hunting, and deforestation due to human activities such as agriculture and burning. Its habitat fragmentation and low reproductive numbers make it particularly vulnerable to extinction. Why Genome Mapping Matters For the first time, scientists have mapped the complete genome of the saola using DNA fragments from remains found in hunter households. Genomic data were compiled for 26 saola individuals, offering valuable insights into genetic diversity, population structure, and conservation potential. Key Genetic Findings The analysis revealed that saola populations split into two distinct genetic groups between 5,000 and 20,000 years ago, likely due to changes in forest habitats after the Last Glacial Maximum. The shift from hunter-gatherer to agricultural societies (~4,000 years ago) led to increased hunting, forest loss, and genetic isolation of populations. Each group lost different segments of genetic diversity, meaning their gene pools are complementary—when combined, they can restore overall diversity crucial for species survival. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/saola-scientists-map-genome-of-worlds-rarest-large-land-mammal

Answer 35

Maximum legal harvest of a fish species from a water body Explanation : A recent dispute involving the US and Russia highlighted the geopolitical and environmental implications of TAC enforcement. What is Total Allowable Catch (TAC) ? Total Allowable Catch (TAC) refers to the maximum quantity of a particular fish species that can be legally harvested from a specific water body, such as oceans, seas, or lakes, within a defined period. It is a regulatory measure adopted by national governments and international fisheries management agencies to ensure the sustainable exploitation of marine resources. Why is TAC Important? TAC ensures the long-term sustainability of fish stocks by maintaining a minimum viable population size that can replenish naturally each year. In the absence of TAC, overfishing can occur, depleting fish populations to the extent that they are unable to recover, thus threatening marine biodiversity, ecosystem balance, and the livelihoods of coastal communities. It acts as a scientific tool for preventing resource collapse, especially in commercially valuable species. Indian Context India implements a seasonal fishing ban, which functions as a TAC equivalent of zero for a specified duration to conserve fish stocks during the breeding season. The ban is enforced in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) for 61 days annually: East Coast: From April 15 to June 14 West Coast: From June 1 to July 31 This restriction aims to protect spawning fish and support regeneration of marine life during peak monsoon when fish reproduce in large numbers. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-the-total-allowable-catch/article69501270.ece

Answer 36

Only three Explanation : A recent massive power outage across the Iberian Peninsula (Spain and Portugal) has raised concerns over the integration of solar and wind energy into national power grids. Key Facts about Spain Spain is located in Southwestern Europe, occupying nearly 82% of the Iberian Peninsula, making it the dominant territorial entity in this region. Land borders: Spain shares its borders with Portugal (to the west), France and Andorra (to the northeast), and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar (to the south). Maritime borders: Spain is bounded by the Mediterranean Sea (to the southeast and east), the Bay of Biscay (to the north), and the Atlantic Ocean (to the northwest and southwest). Mountain ranges: The Pyrenees Mountains form a natural barrier between Spain and France, playing a crucial role in shaping climatic zones and acting as a cultural divide. Plateaus and Plains: The Meseta Central is a vast interior plateau, dominating the central part of Spain. The Andalusian Plain lies in the south and is agriculturally significant. Rivers: Spain is traversed by important rivers such as: Ebro River – flows into the Mediterranean. Tagus River – shared with Portugal. Douro River – originates in Spain and enters Portugal. Guadalquivir River – navigable and important for trade. Desert feature: Spain hosts the Tabernas Desert in Andalusia, recognized as the only true desert in mainland Europe, contributing to Spain’s environmental diversity. Islands: Balearic Islands – located in the Mediterranean Sea. Canary Islands – situated off the northwest coast of Africa in the Atlantic Ocean. These are of strategic geopolitical importance. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/spains-blackout-highlights-renewables-grid-challenge/article69540514.ece

Answer 37

Karnataka Explanation : Public trespassing into the ecologically sensitive Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) in Khanapur taluk continues unchecked, raising serious concerns among conservationists. About Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary: It spans over the Western Ghats in the Belgaum district of Karnataka. It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in December 2011. The sanctuary has been named after the Bhimgad Fort, constructed and commanded by Shivaji in the 17th century as a defence from Portuguese troops. It shares its boundary with the north of Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary, north-west of the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park, north of Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary, and east of Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary. It is characterized by its diverse topography, encompassing hills, valleys, and plateaus. BWS forms the headwaters of a number of rivers like Tillari, Malaprabha, and Mhadei and several perennial streams. This sanctuary is known for the Barapede caves, the only known breeding area of the Wroughton’s Free-tailed Bat, a threatened species on the verge of extinction. Vegetation: The dominant vegetation of the forest comprises tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests. Flora: Forests are dominated by towering trees like Malabar teak, rosewood, and various species of dipterocarps It also hosts a number of medicinal plants. Fauna: It provides habitat for several endangered species, such as the Indian sloth bear, Indian pangolin, and the elusive black panther. Other notable residents include the Malabar giant squirrel, gaur, sambar deer, and a plethora of bird species, including the Malabar trogon and the great Indian hornbill. One of the unique features of Bhimgad is the presence of large, isolated rock formations that serve as ideal breeding grounds for the King Cobra, the world’s longest venomous snake. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/public-trespassing-persists-in-bhimgad-wildlife-sanctuary-despite-entry-ban/articleshow/120939209.cms

Answer 38

It is a stealth guided missile frigate. Explanation : In the wake of rising tensions with Pakistan following the recent terror attack in Pahalgam, the Indian Navy is set to bolster its maritime strength with the induction of its second advanced warship -- INS Tamal. About INS Tamal: It is a state-of-the-art stealth guided missile frigate. It is an upgraded Krivak-III class frigate and is part of a significant $2.5 billion deal between India and Russia for four stealth frigates, two to be built in Russia and the other two to be manufactured at Goa Shipyard Limited. INS Tushil, the first of this, was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2024. INS Tamal will be the last warship to be commissioned outside India or imported. The country now designs and constructs its own warships. The remaining two — Triput and Tavasya — are under construction at Goa Shipyard Limited through a technology transfer deal, estimated to cost around Rs 13,000 crore. Key Features of INS Tamal: It is designed for blue water operations, capable of engaging in various naval warfare dimensions, including air, surface, underwater, and electronic warfare. It measures 125 meters in length and has a displacement of 3,900 tonnes, blending Russian design with Indian technology. Approximately 26% of its components are sourced from Indian manufacturers. It is capable of cruising at speeds of up to 30 knots (approximately 55 km/h) and operating over a range of 3,000 kilometres per deployment. Missile Systems: INS Tamal carries an array of missile systems, including BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles and vertically launched Shtil surface-to-air missiles, providing it with formidable offensive and defensive capabilities. For undersea warfare, it is equipped with anti-submarine torpedoes and rocket launchers. The vessel can also support the operation of a multi-role helicopter, enhancing its reach and versatility during missions. The warship also has radar-evading stealth technology. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/news/india/ins-tamal-indian-navy-to-receive-multi-role-stealth-frigate-russian-built-warship-know-its-capabilities-and-other-details-2025-05-06-988864

Answer 39

Godavari Explanation : India’s national safety regulator for large dams, the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA), has found “irreparable damage” in the structure of three barrages that are part of the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP). About Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP): It is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana. It is designed to provide water for irrigation and drinking purposes to about 45 lakh acres in 20 of the 31 districts in Telangana, apart from Hyderabad and Secunderabad. Currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers. The Pranahita River is itself a confluence of various smaller tributaries, including the Wardha, Painganga, and Wainganga rivers, which combine to form the seventh-largest drainage basin on the subcontinent. It comprises seven links and 28 packages, stretching over a distance of approximately 500 km (310 mi) across 13 districts. The extensive canal network associated with the project spans over 1,800 km (1,100 mi). The project aims to produce a total of 240 TMC (Thousand Million Cubic Feet) of water, which is allocated for various purposes such as irrigation, municipal water supply to Hyderabad, industrial use, and drinking water in nearby villages. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-crisis-at-kaleshwaram-why-telanganas-massive-irrigation-project-is-distressed-9982867/

Answer 40

2 only Explanation : India ranked 130th on the Human Development Index, out of 193 countries and territories, according to the 2025 Human Development Report (HDR) released recently. About Human Development Report: It is an annual publication by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) that evaluates and compares countries based on human development rather than just economic growth. It analyses development progress across a range of indicators known as the Human Development Index (HDI), which encompasses achievements in health and education, along with levels of income. Highlights of HDR 2025: The 2025 HDR, titled “A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI”, highlights the critical role of artificial intelligence in shaping the next chapter of human development. The study revealed stalled progress on the HDI in all regions across the world and warned that increasing trade tensions, a worsening debt crisis, and the rise of jobless industrialisation risked making the situation worse. Iceland, with an HDI value of 0.972, ranked at the top of the Index, followed by Norway and Switzerland. South Sudan was at the bottom at 193 with 0.388. India is ranked 130th on the Human Development Index (HDI), out of 193 countries and territories. India improved its HDI value from 0.676 in 2022 to 0.685 in 2023, with the country remaining in the medium human development category, although moving closer to the threshold for high human development (HDI ≥ 0.700). It also noted that India’s HDI value has increased by over 53 percent since 1990, growing faster than both the global and South Asian averages. Among India’s neighbours, China (75th), Sri Lanka (78th), and Bhutan (127th) are ranked above India, while Bangladesh (130th) is ranked at par. Nepal (145th), Myanmar (149th), and Pakistan (168th) are ranked below India. India’s life expectancy also rose to 72 years in 2023 from 67.7 in 2022, while expected schooling years increased to 13 from 12.6, with average schooling years increasing to 6.9 from 6.57. Meanwhile, the per capita Gross National Income (GNI) jumped from $6,951 to $9,047 (PPP 2021). India was the only low- or middle-income country among the top 10 in the Global AI Index, with the highest level of self-reported AI skills penetration. The country also showed improved retention of domestic AI talent: 20 percent of Indian AI researchers reportedly remained in India in 2023, compared to almost none in 2019. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/india-ranks-130th-on-human-development-index-says-undp-2025-report-125050601535_1.html

Answer 41

2 only Explanation : The Government of India recently launched a groundbreaking cashless treatment scheme for road accident victims across the country, ensuring swift and hassle-free medical care for those affected. About Cashless Treatment of Road Accident Victims Scheme, 2025: Under the scheme, any individual injured in a road accident involving a motor vehicle on any public road in India will be eligible for cashless medical treatment at designated hospitals. The maximum benefit under the scheme is capped at Rs 1.5 lakh and is valid for up to seven days from the date of the accident. Treatment at hospitals that are not designated under the scheme will be limited to stabilisation measures, as further detailed in the scheme's guidelines. To ensure seamless execution, the National Health Authority (NHA) will serve as the coordinating agency. It will work in collaboration with the police, hospitals, and respective State Health Agencies to operationalise the scheme effectively. The State Road Safety Council in each state and Union Territory will act as the nodal agency responsible for the scheme's implementation within their jurisdiction. This includes coordinating with the National Health Authority for the onboarding of designated hospitals, the treatment of victims, payment processes to hospitals, and other related matters through a dedicated portal. A 17-member steering committee headed by the road transport secretary will monitor the implementation of the scheme. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.livemint.com/news/cashless-treatment-up-to-1-5-lakh-for-road-accident-victims-modi-government-launches-nationwide-scheme-11746522028750.html

Answer 42

India Explanation : India will host the 12th edition of the Global Space Exploration Conference (GLEX 2025) from 7th to 9th May 2025 in New Delhi. About Global Space Exploration Summit (GLEX) 2025 GLEX 2025's theme is “Reaching New Worlds: A Space Exploration Renaissance,” emphasising innovation, inclusivity, and international cooperation in space science. GLEX 2025 is jointly organised by: International Astronautical Federation (IAF) – the world’s leading space advocacy body. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) – as the primary host. Astronautical Society of India (ASI) – as the co-host. The conference represents a milestone in India’s expanding global space leadership, highlighting its transition from a regional space power to a key international player. About the IAF (International Astronautical Federation) Founded in 1951, the IAF has over 500 members from 78 countries, including major space agencies, private firms, research institutes, and universities. Its motto “Connecting @ll Space People” and vision “A space-faring world cooperating for the benefit of humanity” guide its efforts to promote global space cooperation. The GLEX series, organized by IAF, serves as a platform to share programmatic, technical, and policy insights, and facilitate collaborative space missions across nations. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127310

Answer 43

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Scientists use classical poems to map decline of Yangtze finless porpoise from Tang Period to People’s Republic of China. Why in the News? Chinese scientists have utilised classical Chinese poetry to reconstruct the historical distribution of the Yangtze finless porpoise, the only known freshwater porpoise species in the world. This study demonstrates the scientific use of ancient literary records to track biodiversity trends over 1,000+ years, from the Tang Dynasty (618–907 CE) to the modern People's Republic of China. About the Yangtze Finless Porpoise Habitat: Found exclusively in the Yangtze River, Asia’s longest river. Unique traits: Known for a mischievous smile and intelligence similar to gorillas. Ecological role: Considered a key indicator species, reflecting the overall health of its freshwater ecosystem. Size & Behaviour: Small-bodied, slow-moving, and non-migratory. Conservation Status IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Estimated population: Only 1,000–1,800 individuals Extinction risk: High – parallels drawn with the Baiji dolphin, declared functionally extinct in 2006, marking the first human-driven extinction of a dolphin species. Hence option d is the correct answer.

Answer 44

map phytoplankton succession and carbon export Explanation : Researchers from the Monterey Bay Aquarium Research Institute (MBARI) and Florida State University have developed a new method to estimate oceanic carbon export using satellite data. About Lagrangian Growth-Advection Model A Lagrangian Growth-Advection Model combines Lagrangian methods, which track individual fluid particles, with the concept of advection (the movement of a fluid) and growth (changes in a particle's properties). It maps phytoplankton succession and carbon export by following surface ocean currents, particularly in upwelling regions like the California Current. Key Innovations: Incorporates spatial and temporal lags between carbon production and export. Accounts for zooplankton activity, ocean advection (movement of plankton), and biological succession. Does not rely solely on ocean color, providing a complementary alternative. Performance and Validation: The new model's predictions matched results from deep-sea carbon monitoring, such as those at Station M (a long-term MBARI seafloor observatory). Pulses of carbon flux observed previously, unexplained by earlier models, are better captured by this approach. The ocean absorbs a significant portion of atmospheric CO₂, playing a key role in regulating Earth's climate. Marine organisms convert dissolved CO₂ into organic carbon, which eventually sinks to the deep ocean, a process known as carbon sequestration via the biological pump. Existing satellite-based models depend primarily on ocean colour data, which measures phytoplankton productivity via surface chlorophyll concentrations. However, these models fail to account for subsurface and temporal lags in carbon transfer. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-method-tracking-ocean-carbon-space.html

Answer 45

ASI (Italy) Explanation : NASA’s IXPE Unlocks X-ray Emission Mystery in Black Hole Jets. What is IXPE? IXPE (Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer) is a joint mission of NASA and the Italian Space Agency, launched on December 9, 2021. It is the first satellite capable of measuring the polarisation of X-ray light, a key feature for understanding high-energy astrophysical phenomena. What are Blazars and Why BL Lacertae Matters? Blazars are a type of active galactic nuclei (AGN) where a supermassive black hole ejects a relativistic jet of particles oriented directly toward Earth. BL Lacertae (BL Lac) is a well-known blazar and among the first discovered. It is located in the Lacerta constellation. It is distinguished by its high variability and intense electromagnetic emissions, making it a suitable candidate for polarisation studies. Scientific Discovery by IXPE – Key Findings The mission aimed to solve the long-standing mystery of how X-rays are generated in black hole jets. Two competing theories existed: Proton-based models (would result in high X-ray polarization). Electron-based models (would result in low X-ray polarization). IXPE's observations found that the X-rays emitted from BL Lac's jets were only weakly polarized (no more than 7.6%). Simultaneously, the optical light was highly polarised (as high as 47.5%, the highest ever recorded for a blazar). This clear contrast confirmed that the X-rays are not generated by protons, but rather through electron-photon interactions. Compton Scattering The phenomenon responsible is Compton Scattering, where high-speed electrons scatter infrared photons, boosting them to X-ray energies. This interaction provides a direct link between relativistic electron activity and X-ray generation in extreme environments. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-nasa-ixpe-reveals-ray-generating.html

Answer 46

Raniganj Coalfield Explanation : Recently, Scientists have traced evidence of palaeofires (ancient wildfires) from the Permian Period (~250 million years ago) in the Godavari Basin. About Palaeofires and Key Findings Palaeofires refer to wildfire events preserved in geological records, which play a crucial role in understanding Earth’s past vegetation, climate evolution, and coal formation. The study spanned geological periods from the Late Silurian (443.8–419.2 million years ago) to the Quaternary (from 2.58 million years ago to present), highlighting how wildfires have historically shaped landscapes, vegetation patterns, and coal formation. The research combined advanced techniques like Palynofacies analysis, Raman Spectroscopy, Rock-Eval Pyrolysis, and FTIR Spectroscopy to examine microscopic organic matter and fossil charcoal in ancient sedimentary rocks. Palynofacies analysis revealed three main types of organic particles: Translucent Organic Matter (TrOM) – includes pollen and plant debris. Palaeofire Charcoal (PAL-CH) – direct evidence of vegetation burning. Oxidized Charcoal (OX-CH) – possibly reworked or transported post-burning. Key discovery: The team successfully distinguished between in situ (on-site) and ex situ (transported) charcoal, helping resolve a long-standing debate in geology regarding the origin of charcoal found in coal-bearing formations. Stratigraphic patterns (rock layering) revealed that: During regressive phases (sea-level drop), well-preserved, concentrated fire residues were found. During transgressive phases (sea-level rise), charcoal was more oxidised and dispersed, indicating environmental mixing and transport. High atmospheric oxygen levels in the Permian Period likely made the Earth more fire-prone, intensifying wildfire frequency and scale. The Raniganj Coalfield was one of the earliest Indian sites where macroscopic charcoal in coal seams suggested the presence of palaeofires in ancient peat-forming environments (palaeomires). These findings help understand how wildfires influence carbon cycling and long-term carbon sequestration—important for modern climate change mitigation strategies. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127307

Answer 47

Vulnerable Explanation : A group of tourists on a road trip through Himachal Pradesh’s Spiti Valley had a once-in-a-lifetime encounter with one of nature’s most elusive predators, a snow leopard. About Snow Leopard: It is a medium-sized big cat that resides in the rugged terrains of Central and South Asia. Scientific Name: Panthera uncia Despite a range of over 2 million sq.km., scientists estimate that there may only be between 3,920 and 6,390 snow leopards left in the wild. Very rarely seen by humans, it has come to be known as the ‘ghost of the mountains’. Distribution: The snow leopard inhabits the mountains of central Asia and the Indian subcontinent, ranging from an elevation of about 1,800 metres (about 6,000 feet) in the winter to about 5,500 metres (18,000 feet) in the summer. They are found in 12 countries, including China, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Pakistan, Russia, and Mongolia. In India, they can be largely found in the high-altitude cold, arid, and rugged terrains of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. Features: The snow leopard’s pale grey fur is marked with dark rosettes, serving as camouflage against rocky terrains. The undercoat is dense and insulating, while the outer layer of fur, about 2 cm long, protects it from harsh winds. The snow leopard reaches a length of about 7 feet (2.1 meters). Almost half of that length is the tail. The tail helps to provide balance when the cat climbs in mountainous terrain and warmth when the cat sleeps. The adult snow leopard stands about 2 feet (0.6 meter) high at the shoulder and weighs 60–120 pounds (27–54 kilograms). Males are typically larger than females. The snow leopard is solitary and lives alone except when mating or raising offspring. Conservation status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/trending/rare-predator-caught-on-camera-snow-leopard-casually-strolls-past-stunned-tourists-in-spiti-valley-101746630256048.html

Answer 48

Indonesia Explanation : Anak Krakatau’s deadly 2018 collapse was preceded by years of unnoticed ground movement, now exposed through satellite radar analysis. About Anak Krakatau Volcano: Anak Krakatau (meaning “Child of Krakatau”) is a stratovolcano located in the Sunda Strait, between Java and Sumatra in Indonesia. It is a part of the Ring of Fire, a chain of volcanoes in the Pacific Ocean. It emerged from the sea in 1927 and is the offspring of the catastrophic Krakatoa eruption of 1883. Over the following years, frequent strombolian eruptions resulted in growth of the volcano. It sits above multiple magma chambers. Anak Krakatau has been the site of frequent eruptions. Anak Krakatau has had at least nine episodes of activity since 1963, most lasting less than one year. On 22 December 2018, an eruption led to the collapse of the southwestern flank of the volcano, with the resulting landslide generating a tsunami that caused devastation along the nearby coasts of southern Sumatra and west Java. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.msn.com/en-ie/money/other/after-12-years-of-silence-this-volcano-triggered-a-devastating-tsunami/ar-AA1ElQ0j

Answer 49

Karnataka Explanation : Jenu Kuruba families recently began their long-awaited re-occupation of their ancestral homes inside the Nagarhole National Park. About Jenu Kuruba Tribe: The Jenu Kuruba is recognized as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), primarily found in the Kodagu and Mysore districts of Karnataka. The name "Jenu Kuruba" originates from Kannada, where "jenu" means honey. This name reflects their traditional occupation of honey collection, gathering food, and managing forest produce. The Jenu Kuruba community's primary sources of income have historically been land and forest resources. They are also referred to by the names "Then Kurumba" or "Kattu Naikar." They live in small settlements called Hadi. Social life: They live a semi-nomadic lifestyle which is not maintained by rulers, police, centralized visible forces, or religious monasteries. They have their own pattern, which consists of levels with a headman (Yajamana) and a ritual head (Gudda). Except for the religious decisions, they take care of all the functions of the people. Beliefs: The Jenu Kuruba belief system refers to religious behaviour relating to supernatural beings. They have their own identities and names and the Jenu Kuruba people have deep surrenderance towards them. Their songs and dances deal with themes relating to agriculture, marriage, myths, and religious beliefs. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.survivalinternational.org/news/14199

Answer 50

First credible discovery of Buddha’s relics in modern times Explanation : Buddhist scholars and monks from around the world expressed concerns over the auction of ancient Piprahwa Gems which they say were widely considered to be imbued with the presence of the Buddha. About Piprahwa Gems: The Piprahwa Gems denote the cache of jewels discovered interred in a stupa, or burial monument, in Piprahwa, located in present-day Uttar Pradesh. According to an inscription carved into one of the reliquaries, the stupa contained the remains of the Buddha himself. The gems were believed to have been combined with some of the cremated remains of the Buddha, who died around 480 BC. They were excavated by William Claxton Peppe, a British colonial engineer, after excavating part of his estate in 1898. The site was the first credible find of the Buddha’s relics in modern times. The British crown claimed Peppé’s find under the 1878 Indian Treasure Trove Act, and the bone and ash fragments were gifted by the British to King Chulalongkorn of Siam, now Thailand. The Piprahwa gems include amethysts, coral, garnets, pearls, rock crystals, shells, and gold, either worked into pendants, beads, and other ornaments, or in their natural form. Most of the 1,800 gems went to what is now the Indian Museum in Kolkata. But Peppe was permitted to retain about a fifth of them, some of which were described as “duplicates” by British colonial administrators at the time. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/piprahwa-buddha-relics-auction-sparks-buddhist-outrage-125050201178_1.html

Answer 51

UK and France Explanation : In Operation Sindoor, SCALP missiles were reportedly launched from Indian Rafale jets to strike deep-terror infrastructure in Pakistan and PoK. About SCALP Missile: The SCALP missile, also known by its British name, ‘Storm Shadow’, is a long-range, air-launched cruise missile. It is conventionally armed and used for deep strike missions against high-value, fixed or stationary targets. Its full name, Systeme de Croisiere Autonome a Longue Portee, underscores its role as an autonomous, extended-range strike weapon. It is jointly developed by the United Kingdom and France. It is also in service with the air forces of Egypt, India, Italy, Greece, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Features: It has a range of around 500 km. Weighing 1,300 kg, it carries a 450 kg conventional warhead capable of penetrating hardened bunkers. It is around five metres long and has a wingspan of three metres. Flying at subsonic speeds (around Mach 0.8) and low altitudes, it uses terrain-following navigation, GPS/INS guidance, and infrared terminal homing for high accuracy. These features allow it to fly at low altitudes to evade enemy radar detection. As it approaches its target, the missile’s infrared guidance system compares the target with preloaded images to ensure high accuracy and minimise collateral damage. Designed for stealth and precision, the SCALP is capable of operating in any weather conditions. Launch platform: India integrates SCALP with the Rafale fighter jets, which are currently operated by the Indian Air Force. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.firstpost.com/explainers/scalp-missile-hammer-bomb-india-operation-sindoor-pakistan-strike-weapons-13886219.html

Answer 52

Singapore Explanation : INS Kiltan, an Indian Naval Ship, arrived in Singapore to participate in IMDEX Asia 2025, held at the Changi Exhibition Centre. IMDEX Asia 2025 About IMDEX (International Maritime Defence Exhibition) IMDEX Asia is a premier maritime and defence exhibition in the Asia-Pacific region, held biennially in Singapore since its inception in 1997. It serves as a global platform for navies, coast guards, and maritime defence industries to: Showcase naval platforms and systems Debut cutting-edge maritime technologies Engage in high-level policy and strategic dialogue The International Maritime Security Conference (IMSC) is a key part of IMDEX. It was established in 2009. Jointly organised by the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) and the S. Rajaratnam School of International Studies (RSIS). It brings together navy chiefs, coast guard heads, policymakers, strategic analysts, and maritime stakeholders. The conference focuses on enhancing mutual security, maritime domain awareness, and cooperative solutions for challenges in the global maritime commons. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127494

Answer 53

A Soviet-era Venus lander Explanation : A part of the Soviet spacecraft Kosmos 482, launched on March 31, 1972, is expected to re-enter Earth's atmosphere around May 10, 2025, after orbiting the planet for over five decades. What is Kosmos 482? Kosmos 482 is a Soviet-era Venus lander, launched on March 31, 1972 as part of the Venera space programme. It was meant to land on Venus, but a rocket's upper stage malfunction left it stranded in Earth orbit. After more than 50 years in space, a 500-kg lander module is expected to make an uncontrolled re-entry into Earth’s atmosphere around May 10, 2025. What went wrong with Kosmos 482? The upper stage of the launch vehicle shut down prematurely due to a timer malfunction. This prevented the spacecraft from escaping Earth’s gravity and sent it into a low Earth orbit instead. The main spacecraft eventually burned up in the atmosphere, but the lander module continued orbiting. About the Venera Programme The Venera programme (1961–1984) was a Soviet interplanetary mission series aimed at exploring Venus. It launched 28 probes, of which 13 entered Venus’s atmosphere and 10 landed on the surface. Venera 8, the twin of Kosmos 482, successfully landed on Venus in 1972 and transmitted data for 50 minutes. Venus conditions: Surface temperature ~462°C and pressure ~92 times Earth’s. Venera landers were specially designed using: Spherical titanium hulls Heat-resistant layers Pressure insulation Active cooling systems Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/soviet-spacecraft-crash-earth-kosmos-482-9989070/

Answer 54

Air-to-ground precision weapon Explanation : Operation Sindoor was launched by the Indian Armed Forces recently was a retaliatory precision strike on terror camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Precision and Targeting 21 terror camps across 9 different locations were hit using niche-technology weapons and carefully selected warheads to ensure minimum collateral damage. The weapons deployed were part of India’s long-range precision-guided arsenal, built over the last few years for high-value target engagement. Key Weapons Used in Operation Sindoor HAMMER (Highly Agile and Manoeuvrable Munition Extended Range): A French-origin air-to-ground smart weapon system integrated with Rafale aircraft. Range: Up to 70 km; capable of being fitted on various guided platforms. Features: All-weather precision, autonomous guidance, resistant to jamming, and effective at low altitudes and rough terrains. Recently acquired by India for deep strike capabilities. SCALP (Système de Croisière Autonome à Longue Portée): An air-launched stealth cruise missile, also called Storm Shadow in the UK. Range: Up to 450 km, with terrain-hugging flight for stealth and precision. Equipped with INS, GPS, and terrain referencing systems for bunker-busting accuracy. METEOR (Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile - BVRAAM): A next-generation air-to-air missile built by MBDA, effective in electronic warfare environments. Uses a solid-fuel ramjet engine, giving it an extended No-Escape Zone, enabling target destruction at maximum range. BRAHMOS Supersonic Cruise Missile: Jointly developed by DRDO (India) and NPOM (Russia) under BrahMos Aerospace. Speed: Up to Mach 2.8–3.0; Range: Increased from 290 km to ~450–500 km after India enters into the MTCR. Operates on Fire-and-Forget Principle, adaptable for land, sea, and air platforms. Warhead: 200–300 kg; Terminal altitude as low as 10 metres. Loitering Munitions (Kamikaze Drones): Can hover over target areas, perform surveillance, and strike with high precision when a target is identified. Autonomous or semi-autonomous systems used to strike mobile or time-sensitive targets. Being inducted in large numbers across the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/operation-sindoor-precision-guided-long-range-weapons-in-indian-militarys-arsenal-9989366/

Answer 55

Strait of Hormuz Explanation : The US President Donald Trump plans to officially rename the ‘Persian Gulf’ as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ during a visit to Saudi Arabia, aligning with the preferences of Arab Gulf nations. Historical Context and Naming Dispute The term ‘Persian Gulf’ has been used consistently since the 16th century, widely recognised in historical records, international treaties, and cartographic references. Arab states, especially Saudi Arabia and the UAE, prefer the term ‘Arabian Gulf’, using it in their national maps and documents. In 2012, Iran threatened to sue Google for not labelling the water body on its maps, asserting its historical naming rights. Geographical Features of the Persian Gulf The Persian Gulf is a marginal sea of the Indian Ocean, located in Western Asia, and is a vital geopolitical chokepoint. It is connected to the Arabian Sea via the Strait of Hormuz, one of the world’s most strategic maritime passages for global oil shipments. It spans ~251,000 km², with an average depth of 50 meters and a maximum depth of 90 meters. The coastline stretches ~5,117 km, with Iran having the longest stretch (~1,536 km). It is bounded by: North: Iran Southwest: Saudi Arabia, Qatar, UAE Northwest: Iraq, Kuwait, Bahrain Important Islands: Qeshm Island (Iran) is the Largest Island in the Persian Gulf, with an area of ~1,491 km²—about 2.5 times the size of Bahrain. Bahrain: A sovereign archipelago state, comprising over 50 islands, and a significant US naval base location. Institutional recognition: The International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) still recognises the water body as the Persian Gulf. Although countries can use alternative names domestically, they cannot impose unilateral changes in global nomenclature. Strategic and Economic Importance The Persian Gulf is central to global energy security, with ~30% of the world’s oil exports passing through the Strait of Hormuz. It is a theatre of naval deployment for countries like the USA, Iran, and Gulf states, often reflecting power projection and regional dominance. Islands like Qeshm (Iran) and Bahrain (a sovereign state) hold strategic military and economic value. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/trump-say-us-will-use-arabian-gulf-instead-of-persian-gulf-9988791/

Answer 56

All of the above Explanation : Recently, Researchers discovered a chiral quantum state in topological Kagome lattice material (KV₃Sb₅), a material previously believed to be non-chiral, marking a landmark moment in condensed matter physics. What is Chirality? Chirality refers to a property of an object that is not superimposable on its mirror image. It is also known as "handedness". It is ubiquitous, found in amino acids, DNA’s double helix, and spiral patterns in biological organisms. Left-handed (L) and right-handed (D) forms are common in molecules and are essential in biochemistry and quantum physics. What is KV₃Sb₅ and Kagome Lattice? KV₃Sb₅ is a bulk quantum material with a Kagome lattice structure, composed of corner-sharing triangles. The Kagome pattern, originally from Japanese basket-weaving, is a platform to explore exotic quantum phenomena. Scientific Method Used A newly developed tool, the Scanning Photocurrent Microscope (SPCM), was used to detect nonlinear electromagnetic responses in the material. This is distinct from STM (Scanning Tunnelling Microscope), which provides atomic-scale images. The SPCM detected handedness in photocurrent, confirming the presence of circular photogalvanic effect (CPGE), a signature of chirality. Key Findings Spontaneous symmetry breaking was observed in the form of a charge density wave (CDW) in KV₃Sb₅. When cooled to 4 Kelvin, the material displayed differential response to right- and left-handed circularly polarised light, proving broken inversion and mirror symmetry. This is the first confirmation of an intrinsic chiral charge order in a bulk topological quantum material. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-physicists-unusual-chiral-quantum-state.html

Answer 57

It is India's first indigenously designed and manufactured aircraft carrier. Explanation : Amid surging tensions between India and Pakistan, especially after Pakistan’s attempted aerial strikes on Indian territory, the Indian Navy has deployed its most formidable naval asset — INS Vikrant — to the Arabian Sea. About INS Vikrant: It is India’s first indigenously designed and manufactured aircraft carrier. The ship has been designed in-house by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau and constructed by M/s Cochin Shipyard Limited. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2022. It has an overall indigenous content of 76%. It strengthens the country’s standing as a ‘Blue Water Navy’—a maritime force with global reach and capability to operate over deep seas. With it, India also joined the elite group of nations–the US, Russia, France, the UK, and China–who are capable of designing and constructing aircraft carriers. Features: With a length of 262 metres and a width of 62 metres, the massive aircraft carrier boasts 14 decks, making it as tall as a 14-storey building. It can house over 1,500 personnel. Its full-load displacement is 43,000 tonnes. The ship is powered by four Gas Turbines totaling 88 MW of power and has a maximum speed of 28 knots. Endurance: 8,600 miles (13,890 kilometres) It is capable of functioning independently for up to 45 days at sea. It is capable of operating an air wing consisting of 30 aircraft comprising MIG-29K fighter jets, Kamov-31, MH-60R multi-role helicopters, in addition to indigenously manufactured Advanced Light Helicopters (ALH) and Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) (Navy). Using a novel aircraft-operation mode known as STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Landing), INS Vikrant is equipped with a ski- jump for launching aircraft and a set of 'arrester wires' for their recovery onboard. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://zeenews.india.com/photos/india/india-pakistan-war-operation-sindoor-meet-ins-vikrant-a-floating-fortress-that-gives-india-decisive-edge-against-pakistani-navy-2898279/a-fully-operational-air-base-on-water-2898296

Answer 58

1 only Explanation : Indian armed forces recently deployed Israeli-origin Harop drones to carry out precision strikes on air defence systems in Pakistan as part of their ongoing 'Operation Sindoor'. About HAROP Drones: The Harop drone, developed by the MBT Missiles Division of Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), belongs to a class of weapons known as loitering munitions. These drones are designed to hover in a designated area for up to nine hours, identify hostile targets, and destroy them by crashing into them with a built-in explosive payload. Unlike conventional UAVs, which return after surveillance missions, loitering munitions serve a dual purpose: reconnaissance and attack. The Harop is equipped with an electro-optical (EO) or infrared (IR) seeker to detect, track, and engage static or mobile threats, including radar systems, missile launchers, and command posts. Capable of autonomous operation with human oversight, the Harop offers a man-in-the-loop control mode, allowing the operator to make final decisions before impact. It is also equipped with abort capability, allowing for mission cancellation mid-flight to avoid collateral damage. Other notable features include: A wingspan of 3 meters and a length of 2.5 meters. Maximum speed of 417 km/h. Operational range of 200 km. Flight endurance exceeding six hours. Service ceiling of approximately 15,000 feet. A 16 kg high-explosive warhead. Circular Error Probable (CEP) of under one meter, making it highly accurate. This combination of attributes allows the Harop to loiter over hostile areas, strike from any angle—including shallow or steep dives — and perform in GPS-denied environments due to its resistance to satellite jamming (GNSS). India has been a known operator of the Harop drone for over a decade. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/what-are-harop-drones-weapon-used-by-india-to-target-pakistan-air-defence-systems/articleshow/120995810.cms

Answer 59

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Quad partners recently convened at the Asia-Pacific Center for Security Studies in Honolulu, Hawaii, for a Tabletop Exercise, a simulation to launch the Quad Indo-Pacific Logistics Network IPLN. About Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN): The Quad Indo-Pacific Logistics Network pilot project was launched during the fourth Quad Leaders’ Summit in September 2024. IPLN is an initiative that enables Quad partners to leverage shared logistics capabilities in the Indo-Pacific to support civilian response to natural disasters more rapidly and efficiently across the region. This effort will complement existing efforts with Indo-Pacific partners. Together with the Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness, the IPLN reflects the Quad’s commitment to ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific and highlights the value of strengthening practical cooperation to address regional challenges. What is Quad? The Quad, officially the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, is a group of four countries: the United States, Australia, India, and Japan. Genesis: Quad came together during the 2004 tsunami in the Indian Ocean region to coordinate response and assistance to countries in the region. The first meeting of Quad officials took place on the sidelines of the ASEAN Regional Forum summit in the Philippines in May 2007. After a gap of 10 years, Quad officials met in Manila in November 2017 on the margins of the East Asia Summit for consultations on connectivity issues; maritime security and counter-terrorism; shared principles for a Free and Open Indo-Pacific; and proliferation threats in Asia. Since 2021, the leaders of the four nations have met annually to drive the Quad’s positive contributions across South Asia, Southeast Asia, and the Pacific. The core objective of the Quad is to secure a rules-based global order, freedom of navigation, and a liberal trading system. The coalition also aims to offer alternative debt financing for nations in the Indo-Pacific region. It is basically seen as a strategic grouping to reduce Chinese domination. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/quad-concludes-indo-pacific-logistics-network-simulation-in-honolulu/

Answer 60

2 only Explanation : World Thalassaemia Day is observed on May 8 every year to raise awareness and promote action around the genetic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. About Thalassaemia: Thalassemia (thal-uh-SEE-me-uh) is an inherited blood disorder. Thalassemia causes the body to have less of the protein hemoglobin than usual. Hemoglobin is present in red blood cells and allows the red blood cells to carry oxygen. Not having enough hemoglobin or red blood cells can lead to a condition called anemia. That can make you feel tired and weak. Thalassaemia is caused by inheriting a gene mutation (change in the normal DNA) from one or both parents. There are different types of thalassaemia. The type someone has depends on which gene mutation they inherit. Symptoms: Thalassemia can cause mild or severe anemia and other complications over time (such as iron overload). Symptoms of anemia include: Fatigue. Trouble breathing. Feeling cold. Dizziness. Pale skin. Treatments: Blood transfusions – regular blood transfusions treat and prevent anaemia; in severe cases these are needed around once a month. Chelation therapy – treatment with medicine to remove the excess iron from the body that builds up as a result of having regular blood transfusions The only possible cure for thalassaemia is a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, but this is not done very often because of the risks involved. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.theweek.in/news/health/2025/05/08/world-thalassaemia-day-2025-theme-significance-and-all-you-need-to-know-about-the-day.html

Answer 61

1 only Explanation : The Competition Commission of India recently notified the Competition Commission of India (Determination of Cost of Production) Regulations, 2025, aimed at effectively assessing alleged predatory pricing and deep discounting practices in the quick commerce and e-commerce sectors. About Competition Commission of India (Determination of Cost of Production) Regulations, 2025: It was notified by the Competition Commission of India (CCI). It is aimed at effectively assessing alleged predatory pricing and deep discounting practices in the quick commerce and e-commerce sectors. Predatory pricing refers to a strategy where a dominant company deliberately lowers its prices below the cost of production to drive competitors out of the market. Once rival firms are weakened or eliminated, the company typically raises prices to recoup its losses and consolidate market control. This practice is specifically prohibited under Section 4(2)(a)(ii) of the Competition Act, 2002, when used to unfairly gain or maintain dominance. To strengthen oversight of such behavior, CCI (Determination of Cost of Production) Regulations, 2025, implements updated cost assessment standards. These revised benchmarks are designed to reflect modern economic thinking, judicial rulings, and international best practices in competition law. According to the latest regulations, the “cost of a good or service would be assumed to be its average variable cost”, which is the total variable cost divided by total output during a particular period. Here, the total variable cost refers to the total cost (including everything that goes into the production of that good or service) minus the fixed cost and fixed overheads attributable to the product. One of the key changes in the new regulations is the shift from sector-specific benchmarks to a case-by-case assessment model that is flexible and adaptable to various industries, including the digital economy. Therefore, rather than prescribing sector-specific metrics, the framework allows for case-by-case assessment, enabling the Commission to consider the unique features and evolving dynamics of digital markets when evaluating alleged predatory conduct. These new regulations repeal the 2009 Cost Regulations and reflect evolving global practices in competition law. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://theprint.in/economy/competition-commission-issues-norms-to-assess-predatory-pricing-practices/2618816/

Answer 62

the ancient practice of producing gold through alchemical processes Explanation : CERN’s ALICE detector has experimentally confirmed the conversion of lead into gold through a process of nuclear transmutation at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). About Chrysopoeia The concept of turning lead into gold, known as chrysopoeia, was a medieval alchemist’s dream, based on the similar density of the two metals, but modern science clarified that they are distinct chemical elements and chemical methods cannot achieve such a transformation. Mechanism of Transmutation Gold nuclei (Au-203) are created when three protons and two neutrons are ejected from lead nuclei (Pb-208) during ultra-peripheral collisions in the LHC, where nuclei pass close without directly colliding. These near-miss collisions generate strong electromagnetic fields due to the 82 protons in each lead nucleus moving at 99.999993% of the speed of light, compressing the field into a short-lived photon pulse. The process, called electromagnetic dissociation, triggers internal nuclear oscillations, causing the emission of protons and neutrons. Role of ALICE Detector and ZDC The ALICE detector utilises Zero Degree Calorimeters (ZDCs) to identify photon–nucleus interactions and detect the ejection of zero, one, two, or three protons, linked to the formation of lead, thallium, mercury, and gold, respectively. This is the first systematic experimental detection of gold creation at the LHC, thanks to ALICE’s high precision in recording both high-energy and rare low-particle collisions. About the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) The LHC is the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator, built by CERN to study fundamental particles and test predictions of the Standard Model. It consists of a 27-kilometre circular ring with superconducting magnets and accelerating structures, located on the Franco-Swiss border near Geneva. Inside, two beams of hadrons (usually protons or lead nuclei) are accelerated to 99.999999% the speed of light in opposite directions, then made to collide at four detector sites: ALICE, ATLAS, CMS, and LHCb. About CERN CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) was established in 1954 as Europe’s first joint scientific venture after WWII. It is headquartered near Geneva, with 23 member states and 10 associate members, including India as an Associate Member. CERN is dedicated to collaborative high-energy particle physics research, and houses the LHC and its associated detectors. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-alice-conversion-gold-large-hadron.html

Answer 63

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, India actively participated in the 20th Session of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF20), held at the United Nations Headquarters in New York. About the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) was established in 2000 by the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) to promote sustainable forest management and conservation worldwide. The forum holds annual sessions at the UN Headquarters, alternating between technical discussions (odd years) and policy-level dialogues (even years). UNFF has universal membership, including all UN Member States and specialised forest-related agencies. India is a founding member of the UNFF, and continues to play a proactive role in shaping forest-related global policy. The 19th UNFF Session Declaration aimed to secure high-level political commitment to forest protection, with actionable steps to achieve the goals of the UN Strategic Plan for Forests (UNSPF). India at United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF20) The Indian delegation highlighted the country’s achievements in forest conservation and sustainable forest management, reaffirming its commitment to the Voluntary National Contributions (VNCs) under the United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests (UNSPF) 2017–2030. India reported a steady increase in forest and tree cover, which now stands at 25.17% of its geographical area, as per the latest India State of Forest Report. Among the key national initiatives mentioned were: Aravalli Green Wall project for land restoration, A 7.86% increase in mangrove cover over the past decade, Afforestation of over 1.55 lakh hectares under the Green India Mission, and Planting of 1.4 billion seedlings under the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam (Plant4Mother) campaign. A major highlight was India’s invitation to all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), a global platform initiated by India to protect the seven big cat species through collaborative research, knowledge exchange, and capacity-building. These studies focused on quantifying ecosystem services like carbon sequestration, water provisioning, and biodiversity conservation, using tools such as the System of Environmental-Economic Accounting (SEEA) and the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MEA). Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127828

Answer 64

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Delivery of ‘Arnala’- First Anti Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft to the Indian Navy. About Arnala ‘Arnala’ is the first of eight indigenously built Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts (ASW SWCs) delivered to the Indian Navy recently. It was designed and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, and constructed at M/s L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP). The warship was built according to the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) classification rules, showcasing adherence to domestic naval architecture standards. The project reflects the successful collaboration between the public and private sectors in India’s defence manufacturing ecosystem, supporting strategic self-reliance. ‘Arnala’ is named after the historic Arnala Fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra, symbolising India’s rich maritime legacy and heritage. The vessel is 77 metres long and holds the distinction of being the largest Indian Naval warship powered by a Diesel Engine-Waterjet propulsion system. Primary roles of the ship include: Underwater surveillance in coastal zones Search and Rescue (SAR) operations Low Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO) Coastal Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) operations Advanced mine-laying capabilities. The induction of ASW SWCs like Arnala significantly enhances India’s shallow water anti-submarine warfare capacity, vital for maritime security in littoral zones. Over 80% of the ship’s components are sourced indigenously, marking a major step in the realization of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ in defence manufacturing. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127729

Answer 65

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Ministry of Coal has signed the Coal Gasification Plant Development and Production Agreement (CGPDPA) with selected applicants under Category II of the Coal Gasification Financial Incentive Scheme. What is Coal Gasification? Coal gasification is a thermo-chemical process that converts coal into syngas, a synthetic gas composed mainly of Carbon Monoxide (CO), Hydrogen (H₂), Carbon Dioxide (CO₂), Methane (CH₄), and Water Vapour (H₂O). Coal is reacted at high temperatures (1000–1400°C) with a controlled amount of oxygen and steam, producing syngas. Process of Coal Gasification Preparation: Coal is finely crushed to increase surface area. Gasification reactor: The powdered coal is fed into a reactor with limited oxygen/air and steam. Chemical reactions: Coal breaks down into syngas components due to partial oxidation. Gas cleaning: Impurities like tar, sulfur, and dust are removed from raw syngas. Ex-situ vs In-situ Gasification Aspect Ex-situ Gasification In-situ Gasification Location Above ground in controlled gasifiers Underground, in coal seams Process Coal is extracted and gasified in reactors Oxygen and steam are injected into the coal seam to generate syngas underground Application Suitable for shallow reserves Ideal for deep or unmineable coal seams Efficiency More energy is used in mining and handling More energy-efficient for deeper deposits About the Financial Incentive Scheme (Launched January 24, 2024) Total outlay: ₹8,500 crore. Target: Achieve 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030. Aim: To efficiently utilise India’s domestic coal reserves for sustainable industrial development. It promotes both public and private sector participation for setting up coal gasification infrastructure. Aligned with India’s goal of a clean coal transition, energy security, and reduction of import dependency. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127819

Answer 66

Only three Explanation : Recently, India and Chile signed the Terms of Reference (ToR) to begin negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Key Facts about Chile Location and Borders: Located in South America, Chile is a long, narrow country bordered by: Peru and Bolivia to the North, Argentina to the East, Pacific Ocean to the West. The Argentina–Chile border is the longest in South America and the third-longest globally. Key Geographical Features: Andes Mountains: The World's longest continental mountain range. Atacama Desert: Driest non-polar desert in the world. Loa River: Chile’s longest river (approx. 440 km). Ojos del Salado: The World’s highest active volcano and 2nd highest peak in South America (6,880 m). Frequent earthquakes and tsunamis due to Chile's location on the Pacific Ring of Fire. Economic Resources: World’s largest copper producer. Member of the “Lithium Triangle” (with Argentina and Bolivia), holding over 75% of global lithium reserves under salt flats. Other resources include molybdenum, iron ore, timber, hydropower, and precious metals. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2127826

Answer 67

Chenab Explanation : The Indian government has fast-tracked approval for the electricity transmission line of the 1,000 MW Pakal Dul hydropower project in Jammu and Kashmir’s Kishtwar district. About Pakal Dul Hydropower Project: It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river scheme hydroelectric project (HEP) under construction on the Marusudar River, a tributary of the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir. It comprises a 167 m-high concrete-face rockfill dam, a 157 m-long, 20.2 m-wide, and 49 m-high underground powerhouse, a 123.6 m-long, 16 m-wide, and 13.1 m-high transformer cabin, and a rockfill impervious core cofferdam. The underground powerhouse will be equipped with four 250 MW Francis turbine units operating at a net head of 397.3m. It is anticipated to produce around 3,330 million units of energy a year. It is being constructed by Chenab Valley Power Projects [P] Ltd. (CVPPL), a joint venture company of National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC Limited) and Jammu & Kashmir State Power Development Corporation Ltd (JKSPDC). JKSPDC holds a 49% stake in CVPPL while NHPC and PTC India hold 49% and 2%, respectively. During the first ten years of operation, the state of J&K will receive 12% free power from the project, in addition to waiving water usage charges. The state will also have the first right to purchase the power allotted to NHPC and PTC. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://swarajyamag.com/news-brief/centre-fast-tracks-power-line-clearance-for-pakal-dul-project-across-chenab-tributary-after-indus-treaty-suspension

Answer 68

Manas National Park Explanation : Three persons have been arrested for their alleged involvement in the killing of three wild elephants in Assam’s Manas National Park recently. About Manas National Park: It is located in the foothills of Himalayas in Assam. Sprawling in a large area of 950 sq.km, the national park shares a border with Bhutan's Royal Manas National Park. The Manas River, from which its name has been derived, flows through the west of the park and is the main river within it. The river also acts as an international border between India and Bhutan. Manas River is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River and divides into two separate rivers, the Beki and Bholkaduba, as it reaches the plains. The park’s elevation ranges from 60 to 1,500 meters (200 to 4,900 feet) above sea level, contributing to its rich biodiversity. The area has the unique distinction of being a Natural World Heritage Site, a Tiger Reserve, an Elephant Reserve, a Biosphere Reserve, and an Important Bird Area. It is one of the first reserves included in the tiger reserve network under Project Tiger in 1973. It forms part of a large tiger conservation landscape which includes Buxa-Nameri-Pakke-Namdapha tiger reserves and protected areas of Bhutan and Myanmar. The park is inhabited by several indigenous communities, including the Bodo, who have a deep connection with the land and its wildlife. Flora: In general, the vegetation comprises Sal (Shorea robusta), scrub forests, old plantations (in buffer areas), semi-evergreen and mixed deciduous forests, interspersed with grasslands and riparian vegetation (in core area). The most presiding plant species found here are hoolong trees. Some other prominent species available here are Amari, Dewa Sam, Himolu, Garjan, etc. Fauna: The Park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife, such as the Hispid Hare, Pygmy Hog, Golden Langur, Indian Rhinoceros, Asiatic Buffalo, etc. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://theprint.in/india/three-arrested-for-killing-wild-elephants-in-assams-manas-national-park/2616199/

Answer 69

2 only Explanation : World Lupus Day is celebrated every year on May 10 to raise awareness about this rare but severe disease. About Lupus: It is a disease that occurs when your body's immune system attacks your own tissues and organs (autoimmune disease). Inflammation caused by lupus can affect many different body systems — including your joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart, and lungs. Causes: The cause of lupus is unknown. It’s thought to be the result of a mix of genetic, hormonal, and environmental factors. Lupus is much more common among women than men. There are several kinds of lupus: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is the most common type. It can be mild or severe and can affect many parts of the body. SLE accounts for 70% of lupus cases. Discoid lupus causes a red rash that doesn't go away. Subacute cutaneous lupus causes sores after being out in the sun. Drug-induced lupus is caused by certain medicines. It usually goes away when you stop taking the medicine. Neonatal lupus, which is rare, affects newborns. It is probably caused by certain antibodies from the mother. Symptoms: Lupus causes symptoms throughout your body, depending on which organs or systems it affects. Everyone experiences a different combination and severity of symptoms. The symptoms of lupus occur in times of flare-ups. Between flare-ups, people usually experience times of remission, when there are few or no symptoms. The wide range of symptoms in the body includes joint pain, headache, rashes, fever, fatigue, mouth sores, confusion, swollen glands, and blood clots, among others. Treatment: There is no cure for lupus, but medicines and lifestyle changes can help control it. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!health/what-is-lupus-disease-and-what-are-the-symptoms-and-how-to-treat-that-enn25050902624

Answer 70

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA) has claimed that it has captured several strategic army posts across Balochistan that include the provincial capital, Quetta. About Balochistan: Balochistan lies mostly in western Pakistan but also extends into southeastern Iran. It is the traditional homeland of the Baloch people, after whom it is named. Balochistan (also spelled Baluchistan) is bounded on the north by Afghanistan and on the south by the Arabian Sea. The Pakistani province named Balochistan covers an area of 347,190 sq.km. It is the country’s largest but least populated province. Its capital is Quetta. The Baloch and Pashtun people make up the two major and more distinct ethnic groups. The third major group consists of people who are of mixed ethnicity but mainly of Sindhi origin. Most of the people practice Islam, and most speak languages of the Iranian branch of the Indo-Iranian language family. The main languages are Balochi, Brahui, Pashto, and Sindhi. The largest towns and main trade centers in Balochistan are Quetta, in Pakistan, and Zahedan, in Iran. History: It was ruled by the Greeks after being conquered by Alexander the Great in 330 bc. Arabs held most of the region from the 7th to the 10th century. The British annexed most of Balochistan to India in the late 19th century. When British rule ended in India in 1947 and the colony was divided, much of Balochistan became part of Pakistan. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://zeenews.india.com/world/amid-india-pakistan-war-bla-captures-key-army-posts-in-balochistan-2898215.html

Answer 71

1 only Explanation : Bihar secured first position in the country for successfully implementing the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises(PMFME) scheme in the financial year 2024-25, said the industries minister recently. About Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme: Launched on June 29, 2020, PMFMPE is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries. It is designed to address the challenges faced by micro-enterprises and to tap the potential of groups and cooperatives to support the upgradation and formalization of these enterprises. Objectives: To build the capability of microenterprises to enable: Increased access to credit by existing micro food processing entrepreneurs, FPOs, self-help groups, and co-operatives. Integration with an organized supply chain by strengthening branding & marketing. Support for the transition of existing 200,000 enterprises into a formal framework. Increased access to common services like common processing facilities, laboratories, storage, packaging, marketing, and incubation services. Strengthening of institutions, research, and training in the food processing sector; and Increased access for enterprises to professional and technical support. Outlay: The scheme envisages an outlay of ₹ 10,000 crores over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25. The expenditure under the scheme would be shared in a 60:40 ratio between Central and State Governments, in a 90:10 ratio with the Northeastern and the Himalayan States, a 60:40 ratio with UTs with the legislature, and 100% by the Center for other UTs. Coverage: Under the scheme, 2,00,000 micro food processing units will be directly assisted with credit-linked subsidies. Adequate, supportive common infrastructure and institutional architecture will be supported to accelerate the growth of the sector. Benefits: The program has four broad components addressing the needs of the sector: Support to individuals and groups of micro-enterprises. Branding and Marketing support. Support the strengthening of institutions. Setting up a robust project management framework. Financial Support: Support to Individual micro units: Micro enterprises will get credit-linked subsidy @ 35% of the eligible project cost with a ceiling of Rs.10 lakh. Beneficiary contribution will be a minimum 10% and balance from the loan. On-site skill training & Handholding for DPR and technical upgradation. Support to FPOs/SHGs/Cooperatives: Seed capital will be given to SHGs (@Rs. 4 lakh per SHG) for loans to members for working capital and small tools. Credit linked capital subsidy @35% subject to a maximum of Rs. 3 crore, to support FPOs, SHGs, Cooperatives, and any Government agency for setting up common infrastructure. Grant upto 50% for Branding and Marketing to groups of FPOs/ SHGs/ Cooperatives or an SPV of micro food processing enterprises. Skill training & Handholding support. Credit linked capital subsidy The Eligible Borrowers for PMFMPE can be: Farmer Producer Organization (FPO) Self-Help Groups Co-operatives Existing Micro Food Processing Entrepreneurs New Units, whether for individuals or groups, would only be supported for One District One Product (ODOP). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/patna/bihar-tops-in-implementation-of-pmfme-scheme-minister/articleshow/121035196.cms

Answer 72

International Energy Agency (IEA) Explanation : According to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) Global Methane Tracker 2025, the energy sector contributed approximately 145 million tonnes (Mt) of methane emissions in 2024, with oil and gas facilities alone accounting for over 80 Mt. About Methane Methane is a potent greenhouse gas, responsible for about 30% of the global temperature rise since the Industrial Revolution. Its atmospheric concentration is now 2.5 times higher than in the preindustrial era and is rising faster than other greenhouse gases. The three major anthropogenic sources of methane emissions are agriculture, energy, and waste sectors. The energy sector — comprising oil, natural gas, coal, and bioenergy — accounts for over 35% of human-induced methane emissions. Within the energy sector: Oil operations contributed around 45 Mt. Natural gas operations released nearly 35 Mt. Abandoned oil and gas wells emitted approximately 3 Mt. Coal activities added more than 40 Mt, including 4 Mt from abandoned mines. Bioenergy combustion, especially in developing countries, contributed 18 Mt, mostly from traditional biomass like wood, dung, and charcoal. Methane Characteristics: It is a colourless, odourless, and highly flammable gas, also known as marsh gas. It has a short atmospheric lifespan of ~10 years but a Global Warming Potential (GWP) of ~80 times that of CO₂ over 20 years. Around 60% of atmospheric methane comes from human activities; the rest is from natural sources like wetlands and permafrost thawing, which release methane and CO₂ as temperatures rise. End-use equipment in energy systems also leaks methane — contributing an additional 2 Mt. Modern bioenergy sources contributed ~2 Mt of methane. These include biogas, biomethane, and biofuels derived from plant residues and waste. The IEA highlighted that ~70% of fossil fuel methane emissions can be mitigated using existing technologies, and in oil & gas, ~75% of emissions can be reduced by fixing leaks and plugging abandoned wells. China, followed by the USA, Russia, Iran, Turkmenistan, and India, are the top emitters from fossil fuel operations. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Methane emissions from energy sector in 2024 remains ‘stubbornly high’ despite available measures: IEA

Answer 73

armed unmanned aerial system Explanation : Recently, Pakistan attempted a mass drone incursion at 36 locations from Leh to Sir Creek, deploying an estimated 300–400 Songar drones. About Songar Drones Songar drones are armed unmanned aerial systems (UAS) developed by Turkey-based defence company Asisguard and are considered Turkey’s first indigenously developed armed drones. First launched in April 2019, these drones were officially inducted into the Turkish Armed Forces (TAF) in February 2020 after completing successful trials. Key Technical Features of Songar Drones The drone's rotor-to-rotor width is 140 cm, with a maximum take-off weight of 45 kg. It can perform operations for 35 minutes without payload, and has autonomous and manual flight control modes. Operational range is approximately 10 km, with a maximum altitude of 3,000 m above mean sea level and 300 m above ground level. Equipped with real-time video transmission and dual cameras – a pilot camera for navigation and a gun-mounted camera for targeting. Includes GPS and GLONASS-based navigation, with autonomous return-to-base function in case of communication loss. Weapon Configurations and Variants There are five primary weaponised variants of Songar drones: Songar 5.56×45 mm Assault Rifle – uses standard NATO rounds with a recoil-dampening mechanism. Songar 2×40 mm Grenade Launcher – fires two grenades up to 400–450 metres. Songar 6×40 mm Drum-type Grenade Launcher – fires six grenades in rapid succession. Songar 3×81 mm Mortar Gripper – suited for launching mortar shells. Songar 8×Tear/Smoke Grenade Launcher – delivers grenades via controlled free-fall, ideal for riot control or non-lethal missions. All variants are equipped with multi-layered safety protocols, requiring operator authorization before firing. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/operation-sindoor-from-offering-drones-to-solidarity-turkeys-hand-in-pakistans-attacks-9993753/

Answer 74

All three Explanation : Recently, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) approved the immediate disbursement of $1 billion to Pakistan under its Extended Fund Facility (EFF). About International Monetary Fund (IMF) The IMF is a specialised UN agency, established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference to ensure global monetary stability post the Great Depression. It promotes monetary cooperation, ensures financial stability, facilitates international trade, supports high employment, and works to reduce poverty. Functions of the IMF Provides economic surveillance of member countries and policy advice. Offers financial assistance to countries facing balance-of-payments crises. Delivers technical assistance and capacity-building support for sound economic governance. IMF loans are usually conditional upon economic reforms to ensure fiscal discipline and long-term growth. Membership and Voting Power The IMF has 190 member countries. Each member contributes a quota, based on its economic size and performance, which determines its voting power and access to funding. Voting is determined by a formula: 1 vote per 100,000 SDRs of quota + basic votes. SDRs (Special Drawing Rights) are an IMF-created international reserve asset, not a currency, but can be exchanged among members for freely usable currencies. Organisational Structure The Board of Governors (usually finance ministers or central bank governors) is the highest decision-making body. Day-to-day affairs are run by a 24-member Executive Board. The Managing Director, often a European, is the Chair of the Executive Board and leads the IMF staff. The IMF is headquartered in Washington, D.C. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pakistan-pmo-says-imf-has-approved-1-billion-loan/article69558903.ece

Answer 75

search for dark matter candidates like axions Explanation : The MADMAX collaboration has published the first results of its search for dark photons using a prototype detector. What is MADMAX? MADMAX stands for Magnetised Disk and Mirror Axion Experiment. It is a research initiative designed to detect dark matter candidates such as axions and dark photons. The detector consists of a stack of dielectric (sapphire) disks and a reflective mirror, forming a resonator system. What are Dark Photons? Dark photons are hypothetical particles similar to photons (light particles) but with mass. They are proposed components of galactic dark matter halos. Under specific conditions, dark photons can convert into ordinary photons, with the frequency of conversion depending on the mass of the dark photon. How does the MADMAX Detector Work? The core detection mechanism involves boosting the conversion of dark photons to microwave photons. This is achieved using a resonator composed of parallel dielectric disks that enhance conversion probabilities. A curved mirror focuses the resulting microwave signals into a horn antenna that connects to a microwave receiver. Key Features of the MADMAX Setup Resonators larger than the wavelength of expected dark photon signals, enabling detection at higher frequencies (~20 GHz). Ability to tune resonance frequencies by adjusting disk positions, thereby expanding the mass range coverage. Signal identification relies on detecting a narrow peak in Fourier space that stands out from thermal noise. Experimental Findings The first prototype run did not detect dark photon signals. However, the instrument functioned successfully, detecting signals with a sensitivity three orders of magnitude better than prior methods. This run covered a previously unexplored range of parameters in just one experiment. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-results-dark-photons-madmax-prototype.html

Answer 76

New Zealand Explanation : The first round of negotiations for the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA) concluded successfully in New Delhi recently. Key Facts about New Zealand New Zealand is an island country located in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean, situated between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle. It comprises two major islands—the North Island and the South Island, separated by the Cook Strait, along with over 700 smaller islands. Geologically, New Zealand is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, making it prone to earthquakes and volcanic activity. The country features diverse relief, including the Canterbury Plains, a high central plateau in Central Otago, and active volcanoes such as Mount Ruapehu and White Island. The highest peak is Mount Cook (Aoraki), and the largest glacier is the Tasman Glacier. Lake Taupō is the largest natural lake in New Zealand and lies in a volcanic caldera, contributing to the country’s hydroelectric energy and tourism. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2128011

Answer 77

Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra Explanation : In a significant move towards regional water security, the governments of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to jointly implement the Tapti Basin Mega Recharge Project. About Tapti Basin Mega Recharge Project (TBMRP): The Tapti River (called Tapi in Maharashtra) originates in Madhya Pradesh’s Betul district and flows through parts of Maharashtra. TBMRP is a joint project of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. It is the world’s largest groundwater recharge initiative. The project aims to channelise adequate water to northeastern Maharashtra, including Nagpur, for drinking purposes, and to southern Madhya Pradesh, particularly the Chhindwara district, for irrigation. The total water usage of the Tapti Basin Mega Recharge Project will be 31.13 thousand million cubic feet (TMC), of which 11.76 TMC has been allocated to Madhya Pradesh and 19.36 TMC to Maharashtra. It will facilitate irrigation of 1,23,082 hectares of land in MP and 2,34,706 hectares in Maharashtra. Under the Project, four water structures are proposed: Low diversion weir at Kharia Gutighat dam site: The weir is proposed at Khalwa tehsil of Khandwa district in MP and Amravati tehsil of Maharashtra on the border of both states with 8.31 TMC capacity. Right bank canal phase I: A 221-km-long canal is proposed from the right bank of the proposed Kharia Gutighat weir, with 110 km in MP. The canal will irrigate over 55,000 hectares of area in MP. Left bank canal phase I: A 135.64-km-long canal is proposed from the left bank of the proposed Kharia Gutighat weir, with 100.42 km in MP. It will irrigate over 44,000 hectares of area in MP. Left bank canal phase II: Its length will be 123.97 km, which will irrigate over 80,000 hectares in Maharashtra. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/madhya-pradesh/madhya-pradesh-maharashtra-ink-mou-for-tapti-basin-mega-recharge-project/article69561869.ece

Answer 78

Mapping brain’s neural networks and identifying molecules. Explanation : Scientists recently developed a way to map how brain cells are connected using light microscopes in a technique called LICONN. About LICONN Technology: Light-microscopy-based Connectomics (LICONN) is a new method to map the brain’s complex neural networks at the nanoscale while simultaneously identifying specific molecules within those connections. It was developed at the Institute of Science and Technology Austria (ISTA). LICONN combines conventional light microscopy technology with the properties of hydrogel and experimental techniques, artificial intelligence, and analytical methods. It is the first technology beyond electron microscopy (EM) that is capable of reconstructing brain tissue with all the synaptic connections between neurons. Until now, researchers studying brain connectivity faced a challenging trade-off: they could either see the detailed physical structure of neural connections using electron microscopy (EM) or identify specific molecules using light microscopy—but not both simultaneously at the resolution needed to trace individual connections. LICONN allows researchers to see structures in the brain that are smaller than what normal light microscopes can detect. They do this by soaking brain tissue in a special gel that expands it by about 16 times its original size, then use fluorescent stains to highlight different proteins and advanced computer programs, including AI, to identify and trace the shapes of neurons. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/131409/OPS/GANEC101T.1+GHIEC2R0A.1.html

Answer 79

1 only Explanation : As Lucknow rapidly transforms into a modern metropolis, environment experts and citizens are concerned over the future of Lucknow’s lifeline - the Gomti, which is battling a host of urbanisation challenges. About Gomti River: It is a tributary of the Ganges (Ganga) River, flowing entirely through the state of Uttar Pradesh. The river is also known by the names Gumti or Gomati. The Gomti River is unique in that it is both rain- and groundwater-fed; the other major tributaries of the Ganga in this region are snow-fed rivers originating in the Himalayas. Course: It originates from the Gomat Taal, otherwise called Fulhaar Jheel, which is located near the Madho Tanda in the Pilibhit district in Uttar Pradesh. The river drains the area between the rivers Ramganga and Sharda. After flowing southwards through the districts of Lucknow, Barabhanki, Sultanpur, Faizabad, and Jaunpur, it joins with the River Ganga near Saidpur. The river extends to about 900 km. It drains a basin of about 7,240 square miles (18,750 square km). Major tributaries of the Gomti include the Sai River, Chowka River, Kathina River, and Saryu River. Major cities situated on the banks of the River Gomti are Sultanpur, Lucknow, Jaunpur, and Lakhimpur Kheri. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/lucknow-news/gomtis-future-tense-will-lucknow-s-lifeline-become-a-river-on-life-support-101746731423609.html

Answer 80

2 only Explanation : The Centre recently notified an expansion of the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS). About Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS): The Government of India established the CGSS in 2022 for providing credit guarantees to loans extended by Scheduled Commercial Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). CGSS is aimed at providing credit guarantees up to a specified limit against loans extended by Member Institutions (MIs) to finance eligible borrowers, viz., Startups as defined in the Gazette Notification issued by Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) and amended from time to time. The National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) is the implementing agency of the Scheme. CGSS does not provide guarantee cover to DPIIT-recognised startups directly, but the Trustee (NCGTC), which in turn provides guarantee cover to Member Institutions (MIs) who provide loans to startups. The instruments of assistance would be in the form of venture debt, working capital, subordinated debt/mezzanine debt, debentures, optionally convertible debt and other fund-based as well as non-fund-based facilities, which have crystallised as debt obligations. The credit guarantee cover under the Scheme would be transaction-based and umbrella-based. In transaction-based guarantee cover, the guarantee cover is obtained by the MIs on a single eligible borrower basis. It will promote lending by Banks/ NBFCs to eligible startups. The umbrella-based guarantee cover will provide guarantee to Venture Debt Funds (VDF) registered under AIF regulations of SEBI. Recent Changes: The revised framework has enhanced guarantee coverage, increasing the maximum limit from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore per eligible borrower. The extent of guarantee has also been increased. For loans up to ₹10 crore, the guarantee will now cover 85 percent of the amount in default, while for loans above ₹10 crore, the coverage will be 75 percent. Further, the Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) for startups in 27 Champion Sectors has been reduced to 1 percent p.a. from 2 percent p.a. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/centre-expands-credit-guarantee-scheme-for-startups/

Answer 81

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Union Cabinet recently approved the National Scheme for Industrial Training Institute (ITI) Upgradation and the Setting up of five (5) National Centres of Excellence for Skilling as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. About National Scheme for Upgradation of Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and the establishment of five National Centres of Excellence (NCOEs) for Skilling: It will be implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with an outlay of Rs.60,000 crore (Central Share: Rs.30,000 crore, State Share: Rs.20,000 crore, and Industry Share: Rs.10,000 crore), with co-financing to the extent of 50% of the Central share by the Asian Development Bank and the World Bank, equally. The scheme will focus on upgradation of 1,000 Government ITIs in hub and spoke arrangement with industry aligned revamped trades (courses) and Capacity Augmentation of five (5) National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs), including setting up of five National Centres of Excellence for Skilling in these institutes. The Scheme aims to position existing ITIs as government-owned, industry-managed aspirational institutes of skills, in collaboration with State Governments and industry. Over a five-year period, 20 lakh youth will be skilled through courses that address the human capital needs of industries. The scheme will focus on ensuring alignment between local workforce supply and industry demand, thereby facilitating industries, including MSMEs, in accessing employment-ready workers. A need-based investment provision has been kept under the scheme, allowing flexibility in fund allocation based on the specific infrastructure, capacity, and trade-related requirements of each institution. A unique feature of this scheme is the introduction of an industry-led Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) model to oversee ITI upgradation. This approach will ensure better industry participation, course alignment, and outcome-driven implementation. Under the scheme, infrastructure upgradation for improved Training of Trainers (ToT) facilities will be undertaken in five NSTIs, namely Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur, and Ludhiana. Additionally, pre-service and in-service training will be provided to 50,000 trainers. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2127416

Answer 82

National Technology Day Explanation : The Technology Development Board (TDB) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) has announced the official theme for National Technology Day 2025 as: “YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration.” About National Technology Day National Technology Day is observed annually on 11th May to commemorate key milestones in India's technological advancement. Historical Milestones on 11th May 1998: Pokhran-II Nuclear Tests under Operation Shakti, establishing India as a nuclear weapons state. First test flight of the indigenously developed “Hansa-3” aircraft at Bengaluru. Successful test firing of the Trishul missile, a short-range surface-to-air missile developed by DRDO. The day was officially declared by then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 1998, and since 1999, it has been celebrated as National Technology Day. Organising body: The event is organised by the Technology Development Board (TDB), a statutory body under DST, which promotes the commercialisation of indigenous technologies. About YANTRA The word “YANTRA”, drawn from India’s ancient scientific and cultural traditions, signifies not just mechanical tools but also symbolic power representing: Systems thinking Synergistic innovation Scalable technological solutions The term “Yugantar”, meaning epochal transformation, reflects India’s transition from technology adoption to global technology leadership, signalling a shift in India's innovation narrative. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2128090

Answer 83

Meghalaya Explanation : A proposed ₹23.7 crore ecotourism project in Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary, Meghalaya, has triggered opposition from local groups and environmental activists. About Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary: Location: Situated in Ri-Bhoi district of Meghalaya, within the Eastern Himalayan Global Biodiversity Hotspot. Topography: Features undulating plains, low hills, and rugged terrain shaped by the Umtrew River and its tributaries (Umran, Umling, Umtasor). Main river: Umtrew River, forming the western boundary of the sanctuary. Fauna: Home to over 400 bird species, including the endangered Rufous-necked Hornbill, and mammals like the Clouded Leopard, Elephant, and Himalayan Black Bear. Flora: Dominant species include Shorea robusta, Tectona grandis, Terminalia myriocarpa, and Gmelina arborea. Legal and Conservation Status: Established in 1981 as a protected sanctuary under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Rated as the best-managed protected area in Northeast India in the 2021 Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) Report. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:Meghalaya group opposes ecotourism project in wildlife sanctuary - The Hindu.

Answer 84

A type of neutron star with extremely strong magnetic fields Explanation : Researchers have found observational evidence that magnetar flares can produce heavy elements like gold through a process known as r-process nucleosynthesis. Until now, gold was believed to form predominantly in neutron star mergers. What Are Magnetars? Magnetars are a type of neutron star characterised by exceptionally strong magnetic fields, estimated to be a thousand times stronger than typical neutron stars. Occasionally, they emit intense bursts of energy in the form of flares. The discovery was based on data from a giant flare emitted by a magnetar in 2004, during which unusual gamma-ray emissions were recorded almost a day after the initial flare by NASA’s Compton Gamma Ray Observatory. The delayed emission was not consistent with standard flare afterglows. Instead, it displayed signatures of radioactive decay from neutron-rich isotopes, suggesting the presence of r-process nucleosynthesis. What Is R-Process Nucleosynthesis? The r-process or rapid neutron-capture process is a series of nuclear reactions where atomic nuclei rapidly capture neutrons, forming heavy elements like gold, platinum, and uranium. It requires extreme energy environments and neutron-rich matter. Researchers estimated that approximately 1.9 septillion kg of r-process material was ejected at nearly light speed during the flare. This material likely underwent rapid neutron capture, resulting in the synthesis of heavy elements. This discovery suggests that magnetars could have contributed to the universe’s heavy element inventory much earlier than neutron star collisions, offering insights into the chemical evolution of galaxies. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: In remains of 2004 flare, scientists find second natural source of gold - The Hindu

Answer 85

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Researchers at Emory University and the University of Texas Health Science Centre have shown that mutations causing brain defects in humans also produce similar effects in budding yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae), a simpler eukaryotic organism. What was discovered? These mutations affect a cellular complex called the RNA exosome, which plays a critical role in RNA processing, surveillance, and degradation. This reveals the potential to use yeast as a model organism for studying human neurological disorders, particularly those related to RNA exosome dysfunction. What are RNA Exosomopathies? RNA exosomopathies are disorders caused by mutations in genes coding for RNA exosome components. These disorders primarily lead to brain maldevelopment, affecting structures like the pons and cerebellum. A key example is Pontocerebellar Hypoplasia Type 1 (PCH1), which results in severe motor, cognitive, and developmental impairments in infants. Role of the RNA Exosome The RNA exosome is a multi-protein complex discovered in yeast in 1997. It is responsible for: Processing, surveillance, and degradation of different types of RNA molecules. Maturation of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) – essential for building ribosomes. Elimination of faulty messenger RNA (mRNA) and regulation of non-coding RNAs (ncRNA). Experimental Findings (Study 1 – Journal RNA) Researchers introduced human disease mutations into corresponding yeast genes. Found defects in: RNA surveillance Ribosome production Protein synthesis Each mutation had a distinct molecular signature, explaining the varied clinical symptoms in patients. Creation of a Humanised Yeast Model (Study 2 – Journal G3) Scientists replaced segments of yeast RNA exosome with human or mouse genes. Of 9 core proteins, 6 were successfully replaced, with 3 supporting normal yeast growth. Introduced known brain-defect mutations into this model. Proved that mutations directly impair RNA exosome function and are not mediated through indirect processes. Why Yeast? Yeast is a simple eukaryote, easy to genetically modify and culture. Offers a cost-effective and fast method for testing hypotheses and potential drug interventions. Using yeast models allows rapid screening of RNA exosome mutations and their functional consequences. Hence both statements are correct. News: The curious case of the yeast modified to develop brain defects - The Hindu.

Answer 86

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Scientists have created the first-ever pangenome of Asian rice (Oryza sativa L.) by compiling genetic data from 144 varieties of both wild and cultivated rice strains. About Pangenome A pangenome includes not only the core genes shared by all varieties but also the unique genes found in individual strains, offering a comprehensive map of genetic diversity in Asian rice. This project is comparable to the Human Genome Project (2003) in its goal to map genome-wide variations, but it is focused on rice, which is a staple food for nearly two-thirds of the world population. India, a major rice producer, recorded a record production of 220 million tonnes in 2024-25 over 51,000 hectares, with an average yield of 4.2 tonnes/hectare. The new pangenome database enables the development of advanced rice cultivars with enhanced traits, such as disease tolerance and resilience to climate shocks. Key Findings Researchers used high-fidelity sequencing (PacBio HiFi) and advanced computational tools to assemble 3.87 billion base pairs of novel genetic sequences, which were absent from the earlier reference genome of Oryza sativa ssp. japonica. A total of 69,531 genes were identified, out of which: 28,907 are core genes common to all varieties, 13,728 are specific to wild rice, and About 20% of all genes were unique to wild rice species, offering potential for future improvements in rice breeding. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) recently developed two genome-edited rice varieties – Samba Mahsuri and MTU 1010 – that show promise for higher yield and drought resistance, though they are not yet released for cultivation. Threats Climate change is a significant threat to rice production in India. The country has seen an average temperature rise of 0.7°C since 1901, and 2024 was the hottest year recorded, with minimum temperatures 0.9°C above average. Rising temperatures also increase arsenic uptake in rice, posing risks to both health and crop yield stability Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-create-first-pangenome-of-asian-rice/article69550023.ece

Answer 87

Tamil Nadu Explanation : The pre-monsoon (summer) estimation of tigers and other animals started in the Pollachi and Tiruppur divisions of the Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) recently. About Anamalai Tiger Reserve: It is located at an altitude of 1400 m in the Anamalai Hills of Pollachi and Coimbatore District of Tamil Nadu. It is located on the southern side of the South Western Ghat landscape. It covers 1,479.87 sq. km., including 958.59 sq.km. of core area. It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side. The reserve is also surrounded by Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala. The Kariyan shola, Grass hills and Manjampatti of Anamalai Tiger Reserve has been identified as a world heritage site by UNESCO. It is home to several indigenous tribal communities such as the Kadars, Muduvars, Malasars, Malai malasars, Eravalars and Pulayars. Vegetation: It ranges from wild wet evergreen forests and semi-evergreen forests to moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests. Some part of the reserve boundary also includes the shola forests in the Anamalai Hills and rarer Montane Grasslands, Savannahs and Marshy Grasslands. Flora: Around 2500 species of angiosperms are found in the Anamalai Tiger Reserve, with several species of Balsam, Crotalaria, Orchids, and Kurinchi. The reserve is rich in wild relatives of cultivated species like mango, jackfruit, wild plantain, ginger (Zingiber officinale), turmeric, pepper (Piper longum), cardamom, etc. Fauna: The important wild animals of the reserve include: Tiger, Asiatic elephant, Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Jackal, Leopard, Jungle cat, etc. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/pre-monsoon-population-estimation-kicks-off-in-anamalai-tiger-reserve/article69563960.ece

Answer 88

1 only Explanation : Amid the ongoing escalating tensions between India and Pakistan, a fully intact Chinese-made PL-15 long-range air-to-air missile has been recovered in Punjab's Hoshiarpur. About PL-15 Missile: The PL-15, known as “Thunderbolt-15,” is a long-range, beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM). It was developed by China’s 607 Institute and manufactured by the China Aerospace Science and Industry Corporation (CASIC). It can engage enemy aircraft at distances well beyond visual range. Features: It features a dual-pulse solid-propellant rocket motor, allowing it to reach speeds exceeding Mach 5. The domestic Chinese version boasts a range of 200–300 km, while the export variant, the PL-15E, has a declared maximum range of 145 km, though operational factors may reduce this to 100–120 km depending on the launch platform. The missile is equipped with a high-explosive fragmentation warhead weighing 20–25 kg, optimized to destroy maneuvering aerial targets. The PL-15 employs a sophisticated guidance system, combining inertial navigation, Beidou satellite updates, a two-way datalink for mid-course corrections, and a terminal active radar seeker using advanced AESA (Active Electronically Scanned Array) technology. This suite provides high accuracy, resistance to electronic jamming, and the ability to engage targets in contested environments. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/news/india/chinese-made-pl-15-missile-recovered-in-punjab-suspected-to-be-fired-by-pakistan-s-jf-17-say-army-sources-operation-sindoor-2025-05-09-989455

Answer 89

1 only Explanation : The Andaman and Nicobar Administration recently invited financial bids to conduct a social impact assessment for land acquisition needed to build a new arterial road under the much-debated Great Nicobar Holistic Development Project. About Great Nicobar Island: It is the southernmost island of the Nicobar Islands archipelago. It is separated from the Andaman Islands by the Ten Degree Channel. It covers an area of 1044 sq.km. It remains sparsely populated, with dense tropical rainforests covering more than 85% of its area. Its coastline features over 100 kilometers of untouched beaches, renowned for their stunning coral reefs and crystal-clear waters. It is also home to Indira Point, India's southernmost point, located less than 150 km from Indonesia. Mount Thullier, which is about 2,105 ft high, is the highest peak. Galathea, Alexandra, and Dagmar are the major rivers. The major tribes in Great Nicobar Island are the Shompens and the Nicobarese. It is home to the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve, a UNESCO-designated site. Biodiversity: It houses 650 species of angiosperms, ferns, gymnosperms, bryophytes, and lichens, among others. The tract is rich in plant diversity and fosters a number of rare and endemic species, including Cyathea albosetacea (tree fern) and Phalaenopsis speciosa (orchid). The region also harbours a large number of endemic and endangered species of fauna. To date, 11 species of mammals, 32 species of birds, 7 species of reptiles and 4 species of amphibians have been found to be endemic. Of these, the well-known Crab-eating Macaque, Nicobar Tree Shrew, Dugong, Nicobar Megapode, Serpent Eagle, saltwater crocodile, marine turtles and Reticulated Python are endemic and/or endangered. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/nicobar-tribes-watch-as-key-road-project-gathers-pace-in-the-region-101746990898559.html

Answer 90

Himachal Pradesh Explanation : India reportedly opened multiple gates at the Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project Dam, built on the Chenab River in Ramban. About Chenab River: The Chenab River literally means "Moon" (Chan) and "River" (aab) is a river of the Indian subcontinent in northwestern India and northeastern and eastern Pakistan. It is a tributary of the Indus River. Course: Origin: It is formed by the confluence of two streams, Chandra and Bhaga, at Tandi in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti Districts of Himachal Pradesh. In its upper reaches, it is also known as the Chandrabhaga. It flows west through Jammu and Kashmir union territory, between the steep cliffs of the Siwalik Range (south) and the Lesser Himalayas (north). Turning southwest, it continues into Pakistan, descending from the uplands into the broad alluvial lowlands of Punjab province. After receiving the Jhelum River near Trimmu, the Chenab empties into the Sutlej River, a tributary of the Indus River. Its total length is about 605 miles (974 km), and it feeds several irrigation canals. It is the largest river of Himachal Pradesh in terms of volume of waters. Tributaries: The tributaries of the Chenab River include Miyar Nalla, Sohal, Thirot, Bhut Nalla, Marusudar, and Lidrari. The waters of the Chenab are shared by India and Pakistan as per the terms of the Indus Water Treaty. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-opens-one-gate-at-baglihar-dam-built-on-the-chenab-river-in-ramban-to-regulate-rising-water-levels/articleshow/121073842.cms?from=mdr

Answer 91

None of the above Explanation : A former employee of Elon Musk’s SpaceX is suing the company for allegedly firing him over frequent bathroom use caused by a chronic medical condition. About Crohn's Disease: It is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes swelling and irritation of the tissues, called inflammation, in the digestive tract. Inflammation caused by Crohn's disease can affect different areas of the digestive tract in different people. It most commonly affects the end of the small intestine and the beginning of the large intestine. The inflammation often spreads into the deeper layers of the bowel. Crohn's disease can be both painful and debilitating. Sometimes, it may lead to serious or life-threatening complications. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease vary from person to person and may include diarrhea, cramping, and pain in your abdomen, and weight loss. Treatment: There's no known cure for Crohn's disease, but therapies can greatly reduce its symptoms and even bring about long-term remission and healing of inflammation. With treatment, many people with Crohn's disease can function well. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/former-spacex-employee-with-crohns-disease-sues-elon-musk-for-being-fired-over-using-bathroom-frequently/articleshow/121066698.cms

Answer 92

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Indian grey wolves, apex predators and ecological regulators of grasslands, are facing rapid population decline due to rising threats from feral (free-ranging) dogs. About Indian Grey Wolf The Indian Grey Wolf is a subspecies of the Grey Wolf found in the Indian subcontinent and Southwest Asia. Habitat: Prefers scrublands, semi-arid grasslands, and pastoral agro-ecosystems. Behavior: Generally nocturnal, hunts in small packs, and is less vocal than other wolf subspecies. Appearance: Intermediate in size between the Tibetan and Arabian wolves, but lacks a thick winter coat due to adaptation to warmer climates. Distribution: From Israel in the west to the Indian subcontinent in the east. Legal Protection and Forest Rules The Indian grey wolf is protected under: IUCN Red List: Least Concern, but considered locally endangered in India due to sharp population decline. CITES: Appendix I, indicating species threatened with extinction. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Listed in Schedule I, providing the highest degree of protection in India. Maharashtra Forest Rules, 2014 allow the removal or elimination of trespassing animals (dogs) from reserve forests if they threaten wildlife. However, Forest officials hesitate to cull dogs due to animal rights concerns, considering vaccination as an alternative, though logistically difficult. The case highlights the complex human-animal-domestic dog interface, a rising concern in India’s open and agro-ecosystem habitats. It is a key example of emerging zoonotic threats (e.g., canine distemper virus) and genetic dilution through hybridisation. Kadbanwadi Grassland, Maharashtra Located in Indapur tehsil, Pune, the Kadbanwadi grassland spans over 2,000 hectares and supports species such as the Bengal fox, striped hyena, Brahminy kite, and Indian grey wolf. The shepherd community has traditionally shared a symbiotic relationship with wolves for generations. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/maharashtr

Answer 93

Both Article 19(1)(a) and Article 21 Explanation : Recently, the Supreme Court of India quashed a Delhi High Court order that had directed the Wikimedia Foundation (which hosts Wikipedia) to remove a user-created page and associated discussion. Supreme Court’s Observations The ruling reaffirmed that the “Right to Know” is a basic right under Article 19(1)(a) (Freedom of Speech and Expression) and Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). Significance of the “Right to Know” The Right to Know is essential to enable citizens to: Participate in public discourse and democratic processes, Access justice effectively, and Hold public authorities accountable. The judgment reinforced that public discussion and criticism of courts is a legitimate aspect of democracy and must not be equated with contempt without careful consideration. Constitutional Significance of the Right to Know Under Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of Speech and Expression: This article ensures the right to express opinions through speech, writing, and other media. As per the Supreme Court, this includes the Right to Know about: Government activities Public decision-making Court proceedings The Court reiterated that freedom of expression covers the right to receive information, which is vital for democracy. Under Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty: The Right to Know is also implicit in Article 21, as it enables citizens to: Access justice Participate in governance Live with dignity through informed decision-making The Supreme Court in the Menaka Gandhi Case (1978) expanded Article 21 to include a broad range of rights, now including access to truthful public information: Right to live with dignity, Right to livelihood, Right to privacy, Right to shelter, Right to a clean environment, Right to information (including Right to Know). Hence option c is the correct answer. News:Right to know: On the Wikimedia case, key rights - The Hindu

Answer 94

Near-Earth Asteroid (NEA) Explanation : On April 2, 2025, NASA announced that asteroid 2024 YR4 has a 3.8% probability of colliding with the Moon on December 22, 2032. What is Asteroid YR4? YR4 is a Near-Earth Asteroid (NEA) discovered in December 2024 using the ATLAS telescope in Chile. Its orbit brings it within 1.3 times the Earth-Sun distance, making it a Near-Earth Object (NEO). Initially, YR4 triggered the highest-ever NASA asteroid impact alert in February 2025. New infrared data from the James Webb Space Telescope estimates its size at ~65 metres, comparable to a 10-storey building, which is below the 140-meter threshold for classification as a "Potentially Hazardous Asteroid". Earlier, YR4 had a 3.1% chance of hitting Earth, but the latest trajectory analysis shows a negligible risk to Earth. What are Asteroids? Asteroids, also known as minor planets, are rocky remnants from the early solar system, dating back 4.6 billion years. They exhibit irregular shapes, though a few are nearly spherical, and some host small companion moons or even exist as binary or triple systems. Classification of Asteroids Main Asteroid Belt: Located between Mars and Jupiter, this is where the majority of known asteroids are found. Trojans: These share an orbit with a planet and remain stable due to the Lagrange Points (L4 and L5), where gravitational forces from the Sun and the planet balance. Near-Earth Asteroids (NEAs): These are asteroids whose orbits pass close to Earth’s orbit. Those that cross Earth’s orbital path are known as Earth-crossers. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: Asteroid YR4 might miss the earth. Will it miss the moon, too? - The Hindu

Answer 95

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : In 2022, scientists converted magnetic signals from 32 global locations into a soundtrack to depict the fluctuations in the magnetic field over the past 100,000 years, unveiled in Copenhagen. What is Earth's Magnetic Field? The Earth’s magnetic field acts as an invisible shield that protects the planet from harmful cosmic and solar radiation. It is generated 2,900 km below the surface in the liquid outer core through electric currents arising from the movement of molten iron, powered by heat from the inner core and Earth’s rotation. This field forms a protective bubble that extends into space, shielding the atmosphere and biosphere. Magnetic Reversals vs. Excursions A magnetic reversal occurs when the magnetic north and south poles swap places and retain that position for over 100,000 years (e.g., Brunhes-Matuyama reversal 780,000 years ago). A geomagnetic excursion is a temporary flip in polarity lasting a shorter time and is 10 times more frequent than reversals (e.g., Laschamps excursion 41,000 years ago, where strength dropped to 5%). Over the last 83 million years, Earth has witnessed 183 magnetic reversals. Causes of Magnetic Fluctuations: Driven by turbulent fluid dynamics in the outer core, influenced by Earth’s rotation and heat from the inner core. Clockwise flow maintains normal polarity; anticlockwise shifts trigger reversals. Current Trends and Observations: 10% Weakening of magnetic field strength over the past 200 years; at current rates, it could vanish in 1,500–1,600 years. The North Magnetic Pole drifts 35 km/year toward Siberia, while the South Pole shifts 5 km/year, reflecting core turbulence. Research Methodologies Satellites and Observatories: Provide real-time data (e.g., ESA’s soundtracks converting magnetic signals into audio). Historical data: Ship logs (since 1590) and archaeological artifacts (e.g., ancient pottery) preserve geomagnetic signatures. Geological samples: Lava rocks, lake/ocean sediments (e.g., Bagwalipokar excursions in Uttarakhand) reveal past field behavior. Cosmogenic isotopes: Beryllium-10 and carbon-14 in ice cores spike during weak fields (e.g., doubled during Laschamps). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/science-technology/magnetic-flip-flop

Answer 96

Rajasthan Explanation : The Raika’s knowledge of pasture cycles, animal health and biodiversity has long supported the health of Rajasthan’s arid ecology. About Raika tribe The Raika tribe is an indigenous pastoralist community primarily inhabiting the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, notably around Kumbhalgarh in Rajsamand district. Also known as Rabaris, they have a distinct socio-cultural relationship with camels. The Raikas have historically been the principal breeders of Rajasthan’s indigenous camel breeds, especially the Marwari camel, known for its strength, endurance, and desert adaptability. For the Raikas, camel herding is not just a livelihood but a cultural identity, woven into rituals, oral traditions, and seasonal migrations. The Raikas possess traditional knowledge of pasture cycles, animal health, and biodiversity, which has historically sustained the fragile ecology of Rajasthan’s arid landscapes. Their age-old migratory grazing routes allowed camels to feed on medicinal desert shrubs, enhancing both animal health and ecosystem balance. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Raika tribe and the vanishing craft of camel herding

Answer 97

1 only Explanation : The contestants of Miss World 2025 from 22 countries visited Buddhavanam, a Buddhist theme park, on the occasion of Buddha Purnima recently. About Buddhavanam: It is a Buddhist theme park located on the northern bank of Krishna River in Telangana. The Government of India has sanctioned the project as part of developing an integrated Buddhist Circuit with a vision to attract a large number of domestic and international tourists, particularly from southeast Asia. It has an extent of 279 acres. It is developed to showcase the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha. It features the Entrance plaza, Buddhacharitha Vanam (Life of Buddha), Jataka Park (which highlights stories from Buddha’s previous lives), Dhyana Vanam for meditation, the Stupa Vanam (home to the imposing Maha Stupa), and an in-house Buddhist Heritage Museum. There are intricate carvings on the drum and dome portions of the Mahastupa and a virtual hanging sky with lotus petals under the sky inside the Mahastupa. Located just beside Nagarjuna Sagar, a reservoir formed due to the construction of the dam across the river Krishna, Nagarjunakonda or Sriparvata - Vijayapuri, served as capital city of the Ikshvaku dynasty, which ruled Andhradesa during the 3rd and 4th centuries A.D. Nagarjunakonda was named after the famous Buddhist scholar and Madhyamika philosopher Acharya Nagarjuna. Nagarjunakonda was a centre of Mahayana Buddhism, where many Buddhist sects had their monasteries, shrines, and stupas built to propagate the Dhamma. Excavations conducted at Nagarjunakonda between 1954 and 1960 have revealed the existence of a Maha Stupa, Votive Stupas, Chaityas, Silamandapas and a good number of Buddhist sculptural panels and antiquities. The structures exposed also included a palace complex and a few Brahmanical temples built of bricks. The sculptural panels were depicted with the major events of the life of the Buddha and Jataka stories. Most of the structures were reconstructed on the Nagarjunakonda Island and at Anupu, a ferry point on the right bank of the river Krishna. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/miss-world-2025-contestants-visit-buddhavanam-on-buddha-purnima-101747063787084.html

Answer 98

Chhattisgarh Explanation : In a latest instance of man-animal conflict, four persons were injured in a bear attack in the Kawardha range of Bhoramdev wildlife sanctuary where the victims had gone to collect tendu leaves. About Bhoramdev Wildlife Sanctuary: Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary, is located in the Kawardha district of Chhattisgarh. The sanctuary is part of the larger Maikal range of the Satpura hills, which is known for its unique ecosystem. Named after the famous Bhoramdeo Temple situated nearby, the sanctuary covers an area of approximately 352 sq.km. Bhoramdeo Temple, more than a thousand years old, is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is also known as the "Khajuraho of Chhattisgarh". It is part of the Kanha-Achanakmar Corridor, which connects Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh with Achanakmar Wildlife Sanctuary in Chhattisgarh. The sanctuary’s terrain is characterized by undulating hills, dense forests, and numerous streams. Rivers: This wildlife sanctuary is the origin of the Fen and Sankari rivers. Vegetation: The sanctuary’s diverse ecosystem includes tropical moist and dry deciduous forests. Flora: Lush forests of Saaj, Sal, Tendu, and Nilgiri trees. Fauna: It is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, sloth bears, and various species of deer and birds. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/bear-attack-in-chhattisgarh-enn25051204153

Answer 99

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India is engaging with the Chinese government to navigate export restrictions on germanium, a critical mineral that is used in manufacturing of semiconductors, fiber optic cables and solar panels. About Germanium: It is a chemical element between silicon and tin in Group 14 (IVa) of the periodic table. It has the chemical symbol Ge and the atomic number 32. It is a silvery-gray metalloid, intermediate in properties between the metals and the nonmetals. It has a diamondlike crystalline structure, and it is similar in chemical and physical properties to silicon. Germanium is stable in air and water and is unaffected by alkalis and acids, except nitric acid. Although germanium was not discovered until 1886 by Clemens Winkler, a German chemist, its existence, properties, and position in the periodic system had been predicted in 1871 by the Russian chemist Dmitry Ivanovich Mendeleyev, who called the hypothetical element ekasilicon. Germanium did not become economically significant until after 1945, when its properties as a semiconductor were recognized as being of value in electronics. It remains of primary importance in the manufacture of transistors and of components for devices such as rectifiers and photocells. It is widely distributed in nature but is too reactive to occur free. Germanium ores are rare. They are found in small quantities as the minerals germanite and argyrodite. Today, germanium is extracted as a by-product of zinc production and from coal fly ash. It is estimated that 75% of worldwide production of germanium is sourced from zinc ores, mainly the zinc sulfide mineral sphalerite, and 25% from coal. Major Producers: The major worldwide producer of germanium is China, responsible for around 60% of total production. The remaining production of germanium comes from Canada, Finland, Russia, and the United States. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-engaged-with-china-on-germanium-export-restrictions-embassy-says/article69567999.ece

Answer 100

United States Explanation : The military of Taiwan recently conducted its first live-firing of the American-supplied high mobility artillery rocket system (HIMARS). About High Mobility Artillery Rocket System (HIMARS): It is a lightweight, multiple rocket launcher. It allows for the launching of multiple, precision-guided rockets. It is manufactured by Lockheed Martin Corporation, a United States-based security and aerospace company. HIMARS is intended to engage and defeat artillery, air defence concentrations, trucks, light armour, and personnel carriers, as well as support troop and supply concentrations. Features: It is an air-transportable wheeled launcher mounted on a 5-ton Family of Medium Tactical Vehicles (FMTV). It can carry either a launcher pod of six rockets (range of approximately 43 miles) or one MGM-140 Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS), which can hit targets up to 200 miles away. The HIMARS requires less than 20 seconds to be prepared for firing, and a full launcher load of six rockets can be fired within 45 seconds. The system launches its weapons and moves away from the area at high speed before enemy forces locate the launch site. The HIMARS is equipped with the Increased Crew Protection cabin, which is designed to protect the three-man operating crew against plume gases, rocket launch debris, and small arms. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/world/taiwan-test-fires-us-supplied-himars-rocket-system/

Answer 101

1 only Explanation : The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) recently sought for an Action Taken Report from Odisha Chief Secretary on the precarious living condition, lack of basic amenities and necessities of life of more than 10,000 families from “Dongria Kondh”, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) Community. About Dongria Kondh Community: It is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) Community. Dongria Kondhs are ancient occupants of Niyamgiri hills spread across Kalahandi and Rayagada districts of Odisha. In the polytheistic animist worldview of the Kondh, the hilltops and their associated forests are regarded as supreme deities. They derive their name from dongar, meaning ‘hill’ and the name for themselves is Jharnia: protector of streams. They trace their ancestry to Niyam Raja, a mythical god-king, who they believe is a creator of the Niyamgiri hills and whose stewardship has been left to them. The forest slopes of Niyamgiri hills and streams that flow from the hilltop are the means of survival for the Dongria Kondh community. Even their art reflects the mountains, in the triangular designs found on village shrines to the many gods of the village, farm and forests and their leader, Niyam Raja. The Dongria have distinctive jewellery, tattoos and hairstyles. Women wear many rings through their ears and three through their noses, while boys wear two nose rings. They have no overarching political or religious leader, Clans and villages have their own leaders and individuals with specific ceremonial functions, including the beju and bejuni, male and female priests. The kondh tribe speak two languages namely “kuyi” and “kuvi”, vocabulary which is completely unrelated to odiya, the state’s official language. The economy and livelihood of Dongria kondh is dependent on collection of Non-timber forest products (NTFPs) and podu cultivation. They are traditionally horticulturists. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.thestatesman.com/india/nhrc-seeks-atr-on-plight-of-odishas-primitive-tribal-group-1503431388.html

Answer 102

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The 83rd session of the Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC-83) under the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) adopted a landmark decision on shipping emissions. About the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN), responsible for the safety and security of international shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships. It contributes directly to UN Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 14, which focuses on the conservation and sustainable use of oceans and marine resources. The IMO formulates regulations on shipping safety, maritime security, and environmental protection, but does not enforce them. Once a member state adopts a regulation, it becomes part of that country’s domestic law. The organisation also deals with legal matters such as liability, compensation, and facilitation of maritime traffic. It was initially established as the Inter-Governmental Maritime Consultative Organization (IMCO) in 1948, became a UN specialised agency in 1959, and was renamed IMO in 1982. The IMO has 174 member states and is headquartered in London. Organisational Structure of IMO The Assembly is the supreme governing body, comprising all member states. It meets every two years to approve the work programme, budget, and elect members to the Council. The Council acts as the Executive Organ, overseeing IMO’s work in between Assembly sessions. The IMO has five major Committees, which are responsible for policy development and regulation formulation, including the Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC). Funding is sourced through mandatory contributions by member states, and also from voluntary donations and commercial revenue. MARPOL Convention (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) The MARPOL Convention is the primary international treaty to prevent pollution of the marine environment from ships due to operational or accidental causes. It was adopted in 1973 under the IMO and supplemented by the Protocol of 1978, which was introduced following major tanker accidents in the mid-1970s. MARPOL currently consists of six technical Annexes, targeting various sources of ship-related pollution: Annex I: Oil pollution (e.g., spills and bilge water discharge), Annex II: Noxious liquid substances in bulk (e.g., chemical tankers), Annex III: Harmful substances in packaged form (e.g., dangerous goods), Annex IV: Sewage discharge from ships, Annex V: Garbage disposal at sea, Annex VI: Air pollution from ships (e.g., sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides). India is a signatory to MARPOL and adheres to its annexes through domestic regulations. Hence both statements are correct. News: How is the shipping industry tackling emissions? | Explained - The Hindu

Answer 103

All three Explanation : The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) dismissed an insolvency petition filed by SNJ Synthetics against PepsiCo India Holdings, asserting that the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) cannot be used as a tool for debt recovery where only disputed interest claims are involved. About the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) The NCLAT is a quasi-judicial body constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013. It was established to hear appeals against the decisions of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), functioning since 1st June 2016. Its main objective is to promote timely corporate dispute resolution, ensure transparency, and improve efficiency in insolvency and corporate governance matters. Functions of NCLAT include: Hearing appeals against orders of NCLT under Section 61 of IBC. Hearing appeals against orders of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211 of IBC. Hearing appeals against orders of the Competition Commission of India (CCI). Hearing appeals related to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA). Giving advisory opinions when legal issues are referred by the President of India. Headquarters: Located in New Delhi. Composition: It includes a chairperson, along with Judicial and Technical Members, all appointed by the Central Government based on expertise in law, finance, accountancy, and administration. Powers and Procedure: NCLAT can regulate its own procedure and possesses powers equivalent to a civil court under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908. It can summon witnesses, receive affidavits, enforce production of documents, and issue commissions. Orders passed by NCLAT are enforceable like civil court decrees. Appeals against NCLAT orders can be filed in the Supreme Court of India. Civil courts have no jurisdiction over matters within the purview of NCLAT. No court or authority can grant injunctions against any action taken by NCLAT under its legal authority. Timely disposal: NCLAT is required to dispose of appeals within six months from the date of receipt to ensure swift resolution. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/nclat-dismisses-insolvency-plea-against-pepsico-india/article69568929.ece

Answer 104

HAYSTAC Explanation : The HAYSTAC results, published in Physical Review Letters, marked a technological advance, even though no axions were detected. The experiment significantly expanded the parameter space of axion mass and coupling strength. What are Axions? Axions are hypothetical subatomic particles originally proposed in the late 1970s to explain the strong CP problem in quantum chromodynamics (QCD). They later emerged as one of the most promising candidates for dark matter. The axion’s role was to suppress CP-violating terms in QCD by dynamically adjusting the theta parameter (θ) to nearly zero. Axions as Dark Matter Candidates Over time, axions emerged as a leading dark matter candidate due to their unique properties: Electromagnetically neutral, Extremely light, Very weak interaction with ordinary matter and radiation. They are hypothesised to make up Cold Dark Matter (CDM)—the dominant form of dark matter thought to constitute ~85% of the universe's matter content. Pioneering work by Sikivie, Wilczek, Dine, Preskill, and others showed that cosmological production of axions in the early universe could match observed dark matter density. What is HAYSTAC? The HAYSTAC experiment (Haloscope At Yale Sensitive To Axion Cold dark matter) is a collaborative initiative between Yale, Berkeley, and Johns Hopkins, aimed at directly detecting axions by exploiting their potential to convert into photons within a strong magnetic field. The experiment uses a haloscope—a special type of detector designed by Pierre Sikivie—which incorporates a microwave cavity inside a powerful magnetic field. In its Phase II, HAYSTAC conducted the widest frequency search for dark matter axions to date. It introduced quantum squeezing techniques to reduce quantum noise, thereby enhancing the sensitivity of its haloscope detector. The HAYSTAC experiment and Advanced LIGO are currently the only two major physics experiments utilising quantum squeezing to improve precision in measurements. Quantum squeezing involves manipulating the uncertainty in quantum states to suppress random fluctuations, which improves the signal-to-noise ratio in weak signal detection, especially important for identifying rare particles like axions. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-results-haystac-phase-ii-dark.html

Answer 105

Microbes Explanation : A recent study published in Nature Geoscience examined the role of soil microbes in phosphorus cycling over 700,000 years in the Cooloola coastal dune system, located in Cooloola National Park, Queensland, Australia. Importance of Phosphorus in Ecosystems Phosphorus (P) is an essential macronutrient required by all life forms. It is crucial for: Energy metabolism (e.g., ATP production), Cell membrane synthesis (phospholipids), Photosynthesis and genetic functions (DNA/RNA). In ancient and weathered soils, such as those in Australia, phosphorus levels decline significantly over time due to mineral weathering, making it the primary limiting nutrient in many ecosystems. Microbial Phosphorus Gatekeeping Key Findings The study discovered that soil microbes—especially fungi and bacteria—act as ‘phosphorus gatekeepers’ by regulating how phosphorus is accessed and cycled in the soil. Microbes use several adaptive mechanisms to survive phosphorus scarcity: Replacing membrane phospholipids with non-phosphorus lipids, Accumulating microbial lipids (fats) that reduce the need for phosphorus, Optimising phosphorus use efficiency in their metabolism. This microbial gatekeeping strongly influences how phosphorus becomes available to plants, creating a balance of competition and facilitation: Microbes and plants compete for phosphorus, But microbes aid plants by recycling phosphorus and making it more accessible in the long run. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-microbial-phosphorus-gatekeeping-center-exploring.html

Answer 106

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Researchers at Oak Ridge National Laboratory (ORNL) have developed a breakthrough technique to visualise the dynamics of domain walls with unprecedented detail. Fundamentals of Ferroelectricity Ferroelectricity is a property of certain non-conducting crystals or dielectrics that exhibit spontaneous electric polarisation, where the centres of positive and negative charges separate, making one side of the crystal positive and the other negative. This electric polarisation can be reversed by applying an appropriate external electric field. The term ferroelectric is derived from ferromagnetism, where magnetic domains align spontaneously; similarly, in ferroelectrics, electric dipoles align spontaneously in domains. Examples of ferroelectric materials include barium titanate (BaTiO₃) and Rochelle salt. Ferroelectric domains are clusters where dipoles are aligned. These domains can be reoriented by strong electric fields. The delay in response when domains reorient is termed ferroelectric hysteresis, analogous to ferromagnetic hysteresis. Ferroelectricity vanishes above a critical temperature called the Curie Temperature, where thermal agitation disrupts dipole alignment. Domain Walls in Ferroelectrics Domain walls are the boundaries between differently polarised regions in a ferroelectric material. These walls often exhibit electrical or magnetic properties different from the surrounding domains. Some domain walls may become electrically conductive even when the bulk of the material is non-conductive, or magnetically active even if the domain itself is nonmagnetic. These unique properties make domain walls potential candidates for nanoelectronic components for memory, sensing, and signal processing in low-power devices. New Visualisation Technique by ORNL This method, called Scanning Oscillator Piezoresponse Force Microscopy (SO-PFM), is capable of detecting both slow and abrupt movements of domain walls under rapidly fluctuating electric fields. Traditional methods offered only static snapshots, like a photo before and after a football play, missing the intermediate dynamics. The new method creates dynamic visualisations, helping researchers understand how domain walls evolve and how much energy is required to move them. It uses precision-timed control electronics with atomic force microscopy (AFM) to monitor real-time changes, a capability not previously possible. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-dynamic-visualizations-expose-domain-walls.html

Answer 107

Only two Explanation : India recently extended financial support to the Maldives by renewing a USD 50 million Treasury Bill for another year through the State Bank of India (SBI). About Treasury Bills (T-Bills): A T-Bill is a short-term debt instrument issued by the Indian government through the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Purpose: The primary objective of a T-Bill is to meet the short-term financial requirements of the central government. RBI also issues such treasury bills under its open market operations (OMO) strategy to regulate its inflation level and spending/borrowing habits of individuals. For investors, they present one of the safest investments with the highest liquidity among government securities. Features: T-Bills are zero coupon securities, meaning they don’t pay interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91-day Treasury bill of ₹100/- (face value) may be issued at say ₹ 98. The return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value and the issue price. Tenure: T-Bills are issued in India with tenures of 91 days, 182 days, 364 days. Minimum Investment: ₹25000 or multiples of this amount. Issue Process: T-bills are issued through an auction conducted by the RBI at regular intervals. The auctions are held at RBI’s electronic platform called E-Kuber. Who can buy T-Bills? T-bills can be purchased by any entity registered in India, such as banks, financial institutions, primary dealers, corporate bodies, institutions, mutual funds, state governments, trusts and even individuals in both primary as well as secondary markets. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-extends-financial-support-to-maldives-via-rollover-of-50-million-treasury-bill/articleshow/121104117.cms

Answer 108

1 only Explanation : Sand mining in the Chambal River region is a major environmental concern, particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. About Chambal River: The Chambal River, called Charmanvati in ancient times, is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India and thus forms part of the greater Gangetic drainage system. It is known for its clear and pristine waters, and it is also one of the cleanest rivers in India. Course: It rises in the Vindhya Range just south of Mhow, western Madhya Pradesh. The river flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, running for a time through Rajasthan, then forming the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh state. It flows through three Indian states: Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. It is the largest of the rivers flowing through Rajasthan. Total Length: 960 kilometres (600 mi) Drainage: To its south, east, and west, the basin is defined by the Vindhyan mountain ranges, while the north-western boundary is marked by the Aravalli range. The Chambal and its tributaries drain the Malwa region of northwestern Madhya Pradesh, while its tributary, the Banas, which rises in the Aravalli Range, drains southeastern Rajasthan. Tributaries: The main tributaries of Chambal include the Banas and Mej rivers on the left and the Parbati, Kali Sindh, and Shipra rivers on the right. Major Dams: Gandhi Sagar Dam, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam, and Jawahar Sagar Dam. Notable Landmark: Pachnada confluence in Uttar Pradesh, where it meets the Kwari, Yamuna, Sind, and Pahuj rivers. National Chambal Sanctuary: It is a protected area established in 1979 with the primary goal of conserving the gharial (a rare species of crocodile), river dolphins, and marsh crocodile. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/when-the-echoes-of-chambal-are-silenced-by-illegal-sand-mining

Answer 109

1 only Explanation : As part of empowering young men and women to play a crucial role in disaster management, Mera Yuva Bharat is selecting civil defence volunteers. About Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat): It is an autonomous body under the Department of Youth Affairs, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sport. MY Bharat, supported by a technology platform, would help to increase the youth outreach efforts of the Department of Youth Affairs. It has been set up to serve as an overarching enabling mechanism powered by technology for youth development and youth-led development and provide equitable access to youth to actualize their aspirations and build Viksit Bharat across the entire spectrum of the Government. MY Bharat will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. In the case of program components specifically meant for adolescents, the beneficiaries will be in the age group of 10-19 years. It will help set the focus of the Government on youth-led development and make the youth “active drivers” of development and not merely “passive recipients”. MY Bharat Portal: It is a 'Phygital Platform' (physical + digital) comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally. The fusion of physical activities and digital connectivity reflects the modern, dynamic nature of the platform. Youth across the country can register on the MY Bharat portal (https://www.mybharat.gov.in/) and sign up for various opportunities and events available on the portal. MY Bharat has rapidly emerged as a pivotal tool for youth development, offering a diverse array of opportunities, events and volunteering activities with Police, Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), and various Ministries. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/thiruvananthapuram/mera-yuva-bharat-to-recruit-volunteers-for-disaster-management-training/articleshow/121144210.cms

Answer 110

1 only Explanation : Two persons, including a chartered accountant, have been arrested for allegedly cheating the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) of over Rs 3 crore under the pretext of the government-run SAMRIDH scheme for startups. About SAMRIDH Scheme: The Startup Accelerator of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development, and Growth (SAMRIDH) is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY) for startup acceleration under the National Policy on Software Products–2019. Objective: It aims to support existing and upcoming Accelerators to select and accelerate potential IT-based startups to scale. Among others, the program focuses on accelerating the startups by providing customer connect, investors connect and connect to international markets. An investment of up to Rs 40 lakh to the start-up based on the current valuation and growth stage of the Start-Up will be provided through selected accelerators. It will also facilitate equal matching investment by the accelerator. Implemented by: The scheme is being implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH), Digital India Corporation (DIC). In the first round of the cohort, 22 Accelerators spread across 12 states are supporting 175 startups, selected through a multilevel screening process. List of accelerators comprises government supported organizations, academic institutions, the private sector, and early-stage start-up funding platforms. These accelerators then select 5-10 startups each in the focused areas of health-tech, ed-tech, agri-tech, consumer-tech, fin-tech, Software as a Service (SaaS), and sustainability through a multi-level screening process. The Accelerators have to provide services to the Start-Ups which include the following: Expert diagnostic for market research and product positioning. Mentoring startups through experts based on tech vertical Legal Assistance for all matters: IP, Incorporation, and other matters Connected learning and networking through shared platform Co-learning Weekly meets between founders of all startups Demo Day: Presentation with venture capitalists (VCs) and angel investors Assistance to startups in negotiating and closing investment deals with VCs and angel investors Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/delhi/2025/May/14/ca-among-two-held-for-duping-meity-of-rs-3-crore-under-the-pretext-of-samridh-scheme

Answer 111

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Explanation : Regulated entities (REs) will now be required to report details of their digital lending apps (DLAs) through the centralised information management system (CIMS) portal of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). About Centralised Information Management System (CIMS): It was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to handle the massive data flow, aggregation, analysis, public dissemination, and data governance. CIMS is a warehouse of data. This system uses state-of-the-art technology to manage Big data and will serve as a platform for power users to carry out data mining, text mining, visual analytics, and advanced statistical analysis, connecting data from multiple domains, such as, financial, external, fiscal, corporate, and real sectors, as well as prices. Advantages: It enhances the efficacy and efficiency of RBI’s regulatory reporting system. Banks and other regulated entities can submit their regulatory reports electronically using the cloud-based CIMS technology. Banks and other regulated firms will have less work to do as a result, and the RBI will benefit from improved timeliness and quality of its regulatory data. The RBI will be better able to keep an eye on the financial system and respond quickly to any new dangers. The RBI will benefit from improved communication with banks and other regulated companies due to CIMS. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.business-standard.com/amp/finance/news/rbi-asks-regulated-entities-to-report-digital-lending-apps-on-cims-125050901500_1.html

Answer 112

Brazil Explanation : Recently, a Brazilian surfer, known for surfing the world’s longest tidal waves, uses the Mearim’s pororoca to raise awareness about climate change and ecological degradation. Mearim River The Mearim River is a major river located in Maranhão state, in northern Brazil. It originates in southern Maranhão and drains northward into the Baía de São Marcos (São Marcos Bay), where it forms a common estuary with the Pindaré and Grajaú rivers. The river is ~800 km long, flowing through the Atlantic Coastal Plain marshlands and passing through dense tropical rainforests and mangrove ecosystems. The river's upper and middle courses are marked by rapids, making them non-navigable, while only the lower course is suitable for navigation. The Mearim River forms the southern boundary of the Tocantins–Araguaia–Maranhão moist forests ecoregion, an important biodiversity hotspot. Tidal Bore (Pororoca) Phenomenon The Mearim River is famous for its pororoca, a tidal bore that occurs when high tides from the ocean travel upstream into the river. The term "pororoca" is derived from the Tupi Indigenous language, meaning "great roar", referring to the thunderous sound generated by the collision of river and ocean waters. A tidal bore is a positive surge of water created when rising ocean tides push against river currents, typically occurring during spring tides and supermoons. The height of the bore is generally greater near the banks of the river than at the centre and can travel upstream for 30 minutes after the peak high tide. The Mearim pororoca is one of the last remaining tidal bores of significant strength in Brazil, attracting surfers and researchers. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.reuters.com/business/environment/amazons-waves-weaken-surfer-fights-protect-them-2025-05-12/

Answer 113

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Astronomers from the Russian Academy of Sciences, using the Spektr-RG (SRG) space observatory, have detected 11 new Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs) during their all-sky X-ray surveys. What are Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs)? Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs) are compact regions at the centers of galaxies that emit exceptionally high levels of electromagnetic radiation, often outshining the rest of the galaxy. This intense emission arises from either accretion of matter by a supermassive black hole or intense star formation activity. AGNs are among the most luminous and persistent energy sources in the universe and are critical to understanding galaxy formation and evolution. The newly detected AGNs were identified during an optical and X-ray inspection of sources listed in the ARTSS1-5 catalog, using SRG’s ART-XC telescope. The team has also previously identified more than 50 AGNs and several cataclysmic variable stars. Key Characteristics of the 11 Newly Detected AGNs All 11 AGNs are located at redshifts ranging from 0.028 to 0.258, indicating they are relatively nearby in cosmic terms. Their X-ray luminosities fall within the typical range of 2 to 300 × 10³⁹ erg/s, which is consistent with known AGN profiles. Classification into Seyfert Types All detected AGNs were classified as Seyfert galaxies, a type of AGN that is common and well-studied: 7 galaxies were classified as Seyfert Type 1 (Sy 1), characterized by broad optical emission lines. 3 galaxies were classified as Seyfert Type 1.9 (Sy 1.9), showing partially broadened lines. 1 galaxy was classified as Seyfert Type 2 (Sy 2), which exhibits narrow emission lines only. Seyfert galaxies appear like normal galaxies in visible light but show strong infrared and X-ray emissions due to activity at their cores. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-astronomers-eleven-galactic-nuclei.html

Answer 114

23rd September Explanation : The Government of India has declared that Ayurveda Day will now be observed annually on 23rd September, starting from 2025. Why 23rd September? The date 23rd September coincides with the autumnal equinox, when day and night are nearly equal. This event represents balance in nature, aligning with the Ayurvedic principle of equilibrium among body, mind, and spirit. The symbolism of cosmic balance supports the holistic philosophy of Ayurveda, making the equinox a powerful metaphor for natural harmony and health. What is Ayurveda? The term ‘Ayurveda’ is derived from ‘Ayu’ (life) and ‘Veda’ (knowledge), meaning the “science of life.” Ayurveda deals with all forms of life and is divided into: Nara Ayurveda – focused on human life and health, Satva Ayurveda – deals with animal health and diseases, Vriksha Ayurveda – focused on plant growth, health, and diseases. Ayurveda is not just a system of medicine but also a philosophy of living aimed at positive health and spiritual growth. Structure and Practice of Ayurveda Ayurveda has both preventive and curative elements, with therapies adapted to individual, climatic, and environmental needs. Preventive aspects include: Strict hygiene protocols, lifestyle discipline, and seasonal regimens. Curative aspects involve: Herbal remedies, dietary therapy, external applications, and physiotherapy. Ayurveda advocates for personalised treatment, customised to the prakriti (constitution) and imbalances (doshas) of each individual. The Indian Medical Council Act of 1971 provides formal recognition to Ayurveda, Unani, and Siddha systems, ensuring standardisation and regulation. Core Principles and Holistic Approach Ayurveda is based on the concept of the tridosha theory: Vata (air & space), Pitta (fire & water), and Kapha (water & earth). The seven body tissues (dhatus) are: Rasa, Rakta, Mamsa, Meda, Asthi, Majja, and Shukra. Waste products (malas) include: Mala (feces), Mutra (urine), and Sweda (sweat). Health is defined as the balanced state of these doshas, dhatus, and malas. Disease arises from imbalance, and Ayurveda treats the root causes, not just the symptoms. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2128442

Answer 115

Afrikaners Explanation : Recently, the U.S. Deputy Secretary of State welcomed the first group of Afrikaner refugees to the United States. Who Are the Afrikaners? Afrikaners are a white ethnic group native to South Africa, shaped through ethnogenesis on African soil, and are often referred to as “Africa’s White Tribe” due to their deep-rooted historical presence since the 17th century. Origin: The Afrikaner community originated in 1652, when Jan van Riebeeck, under the Dutch East India Company (VOC), established a resupply station at the Cape of Good Hope, initially settled by Dutch Protestants. Over time, the settlers included French Huguenots fleeing persecution after the Edict of Fontainebleau (1685), along with Germans and enslaved people from India, Indonesia, Madagascar, and East Africa, contributing to the ethnic mix. Formation of Afrikaner Identity A unique Afrikaner identity developed through interactions among Europeans, slaves, and the indigenous Khoikhoi, marked by paternalistic household systems, strict social hierarchies, and the development of Afrikaans as a distinct language. Afrikaners were influenced by Calvinist values, frontier living, and a militant, self-reliant culture, especially among the Trekboers who moved inland in the 18th century and often engaged in violent conflicts with indigenous communities. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/africas-white-tribe-who-are-the-afrikaners-trump-has-provided-asylum-to

Answer 116

East Antarctic Explanation : New data published in Earth and Planetary Science Letters reveals the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains (GSM) were formed over 500 million years ago, during the assembly of the Gondwana supercontinent. What are the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains (GSM)? The Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains are a completely buried mountain range beneath the East Antarctic Ice Sheet, located at its highest point. These mountains were first discovered in 1958 by a Soviet seismic expedition. Unlike the Transantarctic Mountains, which are partially visible above the ice, the Gamburtsev Mountains remain entirely buried, concealed under several kilometres of ice. Typically, mountains form at tectonic plate boundaries due to collision or subduction, but East Antarctica has remained tectonically stable for hundreds of millions of years. The existence of such a massive mountain range within a stable craton posed a major puzzle for geologists. Zircon “Time Capsules” and Dating Evidence Scientists analysed zircon grains from sandstones deposited by ancient rivers flowing from the mountains, collected from the Prince Charles Mountains. Zircons contain trace uranium, which decays at a known radioactive rate, enabling accurate age determination. Findings show: Uplift began ~650 million years ago Himalayan-scale peaks reached ~580 million years ago Crustal melting and flow ceased ~500 million years ago. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: Antarctica has a huge, completely hidden mountain range. New data reveals its birth over 500 million years ago

Answer 117

Chennai Explanation : A Rs 1,500-crore project to rejuvenate and restore a ‘dead' 44-km stretch of River Adyar is stuck since 2023 and lying choked in the city. About Adyar River: The Adyar, or Adayar, originating near the Chembarambakkam Lake in Kanchipuram district, is one of the three rivers which winds through Chennai, Tamil Nadu, and join the Bay of Bengal at the Adyar Estuary. The estuary, covering an area of about 300 acres, was made a protected wildlife reserve in 1987. The 42.5-kilometre (26.4 mi) long river contributes to the estuarine ecosystem of Chennai. The river forms a backwater near the mouth, known as the Adyar Creek, due to the formation of sandbars at the mouth. This creek is a natural channel which carries tidal water back into the sea. The river collects surplus water from about 200 tanks and lakes, small streams, and the rainwater drains in the Chennai city, with a combined catchment area of 860 sq.km. Most of the waste from the city is drained into this river. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/1500cr-plan-to-restore-adyar-river-runs-into-vote-bank-politics-as-encroachments-remain/articleshow/121169810.cms#:~:text=Chennai%3A%20A%20Rs%201%2C500%2Dcrore,lying%20choked%20in%20the%20city

Answer 118

A collection of scriptures of Hindu devotional schools. Explanation : The Supreme Court recently requested a committee formed by the Madras High Court to identify Agamic temples as against non-Agamic temples in Tamil Nadu in three months. About Agamas: The Agamas are a collection of scriptures of Hindu devotional schools. The term literally means tradition or "that which has come down", and the Agama texts describe cosmology, epistemology, philosophical doctrines, precepts on meditation and practices, four kinds of yoga, mantras, temple construction, deity worship, and ways to attain sixfold desires. The origin and chronology of Agamas is unclear. The 3 main branches of Agama texts are Shaivism (of Lord Shiva), Vaishnavism (of Lord Vishnu), and Shaktism (of Adi Shakti). The Agamic traditions are sometimes called Tantrism, although the term "Tantra" is usually used specifically to refer to Shakta Agamas. The Agamas do not derive their authority from the Vedas, but are not antagonistic to them. They are all Vedic in spirit and character. That is the reason why they are regarded as authoritative. Many South Indian temples, especially in Tamil Nadu, follow Agamic traditions for daily rituals and festivals. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/supreme-court-requests-panel-to-identify-agamic-temples-in-tamil-nadu/article69574604.ece

Answer 119

In Pakistani territory sticking out into India. Explanation : The Shakargarh Bulge was one of the places where a major build-up of tanks and armoured vehicles by the Pakistan army was spotted recently. About Shakargarh Bulge: The Shakargarh Bulge is an important area in Pakistani territory that sticks out into India, bordered by the Ravi and Chenab rivers. Its geography consists of flat terrain and proximity to key road and rail networks, making it a strategic corridor for both sides. The area's flat terrain and its proximity to Indian cities such as Amritsar, Pathankot, Batala, and Gurdaspur, as well as road links to Jammu, makes it a high-priority area for the Indian Army. This area was the site of the notable Battle of Basantar during the 1971 Indo-Pakistani War. It was a 12-day engagement that shaped the outcome of the western front in the 1971 war. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/post-pahalgam-terror-attack-pakistan-amassed-troops-at-shakargarh-bulge-operation-sindoor/articleshow/121121519.cms

Answer 120

1 only Explanation : A study conducted by scientists and experts of the offshore breakwater system using geotube technology along the Poonthura coastal stretch in Kerala has found that they yielded remarkable transformations in the coastal landscape behind the offshore breakwater stretch. About Geotubing: Geotubes are large, permeable fabric tubes filled with dredged materials or other hydraulically filled materials. The geotextile fabric allows water to escape while retaining the solid particles, making them effective for dewatering purposes and retaining soil from erosions. These tubes are constructed from high-strength, permeable materials, typically polypropylene woven geotextile, ensuring durability and resistance to environmental factors. Geotubes for seawalls and coastal protection create a synthetic barrier to use along shorelines and beaches to help control erosion. Often referred to as breakwater tubes, these barriers act as the first line of defense against waves and tidal action. As waves crash onto the beaches and shorelines, they hit the seawall, limiting the exposure to beaches and dunes. Geotube seawalls provide coastal defense for canals, bays, and other areas, minimizing the eroding impact of waves and helping retain sand/shorelines. Geotubes can be installed in various sizes and shapes to fit specific project requirements. They are also adaptable to different site conditions, including contaminated sites, waterfronts, and inland waterways. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/study-finds-geotubing-at-poonthura-effective-in-controlling-coastal-erosion/article69564389.ece

Answer 121

Chhattisgarh Explanation : The Chhattisgarh High Court is actively monitoring the development initiatives at Madku Dweep, a place of significant local importance. About Madku Island: It is situated on the banks of the Shivnath River (longest tributary of the Mahanadi River), in the Bilaspur district of Chhattisgarh. The name Madku stems from the fact that the island is in the shape of a frog. It has an area of around 24 hectares. Madku Island is popularly known as Kedar Tirth and Harihar Kshetra Kedar Dweep. Archaeologists have discovered prehistoric stone tools, epigraphs, and coins on this island. Stone inscriptions have also been found, which are believed to date back to the 3rd century BC. One stone inscription was in Brahmi script and another in Shankha script. Madku Dweep is also home to several ancient and unique idols of Lord Shiva, Ganesha, Shiv-Parvati, Nandi, and various other Gods. Archaeologists have successfully excavated 19 temples on Madku Dweep. Eighteen of these temples face east, whereas the middle temple is the only one that faces west. The architectural style of these temples, along with the sculptures and idols, is believed to be similar to that of the Great Kalchuris. Madku Island is also the place where an annual and important Christian fair has been hosted since 1909. The fair is organized in February, it is attended by Christians all across the Chhattisgarh state and beyond, and is locally known as Masihi Mela. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/construction-work-at-madku-island-to-be-done-by-monsoon-hc-told/articleshow/121171118.cms

Answer 122

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Researchers from the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences (CeNS), an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), have developed a novel iron-doped catalyst aimed at improving oxygen-related electrocatalytic reactions. About Oxygen Electrocatalysis Oxygen electrocatalysis is a fundamental process in clean energy technologies such as: Water splitting for hydrogen production, Generation of clean fuels, Synthesis of hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂). These technologies face major challenges like slow reaction kinetics, high energy consumption, and high material costs due to reliance on precious metals like platinum (Pt) and ruthenium Ru). Catalyst Composition and Functionality After selenium (Se) incorporation, the researchers created two main catalyst variants: NixFe₁−xSe₂–NC Ni₃−xFexSe₄–NC The most efficient variant, NixFe₁−xSe₂–NC@400, showed outstanding bifunctional catalytic performance for: Oxygen Evolution Reaction (OER) – production of oxygen gas, Oxygen Reduction Reaction (ORR) – conversion of oxygen into useful chemicals like hydrogen peroxide. For OER, this catalyst exhibited lower overpotential and high durability over 70 hours, surpassing conventional ruthenium-based catalysts. For ORR, especially for H₂O₂ production, it outperformed platinum-based catalysts in terms of reaction speed, efficiency, and stability. Innovation in Catalyst Design The CeNS team developed a low-cost and efficient catalyst using nickel selenide enhanced with iron (Fe) doping, which significantly improves performance while reducing reliance on expensive precious metals. The catalyst was synthesised starting from a metal-organic framework (MOF), known for its high porosity and catalytic potential, but limited by poor electrical conductivity. Iron (Fe) doping was used to modify the MOF's electronic structure, enhancing its catalytic activity by creating more active sites and improving reaction intermediate binding. The MOF was further converted into a carbon-rich material using pyrolysis, a high-temperature process that enhanced the material's electrical conductivity. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2128622

Answer 123

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The first-ever chromosome-level genome of the Indian yak (Bos grunniens) has been successfully assembled by scientists from four ICAR institutes, marking a milestone in livestock genetics and Himalayan biodiversity research. About Indian yak The Indian yak, often referred to as the “ship of the Himalayas”, plays a crucial role in the livelihoods of high-altitude pastoral communities, especially in Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and other Himalayan states. Yaks are a source of meat, milk, fibre, dung fuel, and pack transport, making them essential to mountain economies. Yaks display exceptional cold tolerance, making them a biological model for studying adaptation to extreme climates. Domestic yak (Bos grunniens) is found at altitudes above 7,000 ft in: Ladakh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, and Jammu & Kashmir. Wild yak (Bos mutus) is found in Tibet, and the species extends to parts of Mongolia and Russia. Yaks belong to the genus Bos, making them close relatives of cattle (Bos primigenius). About ICAR-National Research Centre on Yak The ICAR-NRC on Yak was established in 1989 in Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh. It serves as the apex institution for research in yak husbandry, including health, nutrition, breeding, and genetic conservation. Technological Methodology The team employed long-read sequencing technology and advanced bioinformatics tools to achieve chromosome-level genome assembly, which provides precise mapping of genes on chromosomes. This enables a clearer understanding of genetic traits related to disease resistance, milk quality, fertility, and climate adaptation. Hence both statements are correct. News: Himalayan leap for yak genomic science - The Hindu

Answer 124

Cambodia and China Explanation : Recently, Cambodia and China have launched their largest-ever Golden Dragon joint military exercise involving land, sea and air operations. About Golden Dragon 2025 The Golden Dragon military exercise is a bilateral annual drill between China and Cambodia, first initiated in late 2016 to strengthen military cooperation and strategic ties. The official theme of Golden Dragon 2025 is joint counter-terrorism operations and humanitarian relief, portraying the exercise as a peace-building and capacity-building initiative. The 2025 edition is being held at the Ream Naval Base, located in Sihanoukville, on Cambodia’s southern coast. The base was officially inaugurated in April 2025 with the docking of Chinese warships, highlighting China’s expanding naval presence in the Gulf of Thailand. The exercise features advanced military technologies, including: Reconnaissance and attack drones Surgical robots Robot dogs, indicating a shift towards tech-driven warfare capabilities. The Golden Dragon drills coincide with the U.S. -Philippines-led ‘Balikatan’ exercise involving troops from the U.S, Philippines, Australia, and Japan. China’s access to dual-use ports in countries like Cambodia echoes similar concerns in places such as Sri Lanka (Hambantota) and Pakistan (Gwadar). The exercise reflects China’s growing ability to project military power beyond its immediate borders, consistent with its “String of Pearls” strategy. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://apnews.com/article/china-cambodia-golden-dragon-military-exercise-01090258ee039fa29db09aa59a5ba91b

Answer 125

Only five Explanation : Recently, Colombia formally joined China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) during a high-level meeting of Latin American leaders in Beijing. Geopolitical Features of Colombia Capital: Bogotá Colombia is known as the "Gateway of South America", strategically located in the northwest, connecting South America with Central and North America. It shares land boundaries with Venezuela, Brazil, Panama, Peru and Ecuador and maritime boundaries with the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean. Colombia is rich in natural resources like petroleum, natural gas, coal, and gold, which makes it a valuable partner for foreign investment and energy cooperation. The country consists of two main regions: the Andes Mountains and broad lowland plains. Its highest point is Pico Cristobal Colon, and major rivers include the Magdalena, Amazon, and Orinoco. The climate is tropical along the coasts and eastern plains, and cooler in the highlands, making Colombia ecologically diverse. Colombia joined the OECD in 2020, indicating its alignment with global standards in economic governance and development. India has signed an Audio-visual Co-production Agreement with Colombia, fostering cultural and creative sector collaboration. The growing China-Colombia nexus under BRI may call for India to deepen its strategic outreach in Latin America to balance regional influence and secure economic opportunities. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/colombia-joins-belt-and-road-initiative-as-china-courts-latin-america/article69575994.ece

Answer 126

Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) Explanation : The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an indigenous high-pressure nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane for seawater desalination. Purpose and Strategic Importance The project was executed by Defence Materials Stores Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur, under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative. The membrane was designed to meet the operational needs of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), particularly to withstand chloride ion-induced instability in saline water. The technology is intended for use in Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) of the Coast Guard, providing self-reliant onboard freshwater capability. About Desalination Technology Desalination is the removal of dissolved salts and minerals from saline or brackish water to make it fit for human use. Two primary technologies used globally: Reverse Osmosis (RO) – pressure-driven membrane-based filtration. Thermal Desalination – evaporation-condensation method using heat. A desalination plant converts seawater into freshwater by removing salts to meet drinking or industrial quality standards. Working of Reverse Osmosis (RO) Desalination Osmosis refers to the natural movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to high solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. In reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to push water from a high-solute (saline) side to a low-solute (freshwater) side, against the natural osmotic gradient. Microscopic pores in the RO membrane allow water molecules to pass while blocking salts and other impurities. Seawater typically has a TDS (Total Dissolved Solids) of ~35,000 ppm, while RO brings it down to 200–500 ppm, making it potable. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2128795

Answer 127

2 only Explanation : The Jute Corporation of India (JCI) recently increased the minimum selling price (MSP) of jute from ₹5,335 to ₹5,650 per quintal for crop year 2025-26 to discourage distress sales by farmers. About Jute Corporation of India (JCI): It is a central public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India. It was incorporated in 1971 as a price support agency with a clear mandate for the procurement of raw jute/mesta without any quantitative limit from the growers at the minimum support price (MSP) declared in each year by the Government of India based on the recommendations made by the Commission for Agricultural Cost & Prices (CACP). This protects the jute growers from exploitations at the hands of the middlemen. JCI provides stability in the raw jute prices. The JCI was first started as a small official agency at the beginning, but then slowly it expanded its networking and now spread in 7 states successfully for jute growing in India including West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Orissa, and Andhra Pradesh. Few activities of the JCI are as follows: Organizing leverage operations to secure the minimum support price (MSP) to the jute sector Obtain a stock of fiber that also might include the imported fibers Conducting commercialized operations in a prudent way Importing fiber in order to supplement endemic accessibility Exporting fiber Processing and exporting goods made of jute Undertaking measures for the promotion of jute goods while exporting Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/west-bengal/jute-corporation-of-india-increases-msp-to-stop-distress-sales/article69571847.ece

Answer 128

Japan Explanation : Japan's Sakurajima volcano erupted recently, sending a massive ash plume soaring 3,000 metres above the crater. About Sakurajima Volcano: It is one of Japan's most active volcanoes. It is on the southern end of the island of Kyushu, just 4 kilometers from Kagoshima City. It has an elevation of 1117 meters and a circumference of about 50 kilometers. As it is situated on a convergent plate margin, Sakurajima is a stratovolcano formed from layers of lava and ash. The volcano, which formed on the south rim of the Aira Caldera, consists of two peaks, the North Peak and the South Peak. Sakura-jima formed an island until 1914, when an explosive eruption produced enough material to join the island to the peninsula on the east. The volcano smokes constantly, and minor eruptions often take place multiple times per day. Eruptions are explosive, producing large volumes of ash, pyroclastic flows, volcanic bombs, and poisonous gases. The lava is andesitic, meaning it has a high gas content and is very viscous (thick). Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/watch-japans-sakurajima-volcano-erupts-sending-ash-plume-3-000-metres-into-the-sky-8423241

Answer 129

2 only Explanation : The Himachal Pradesh government recently notified the Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve. About Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve: It is located in the Lahaul-Spiti region of Himachal Pradesh. The total area of this conservation reserve is 1585 sq.km. It is India’s largest conservation reserve. It is bounded by the Union Territory of Ladakh to the north, the Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary extending up to Malang Nala and Lungar Lungpa to the east, Kabjima Nala to the south, and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuary to the west. It is also the location for the confluence of the Unam River and Charap Nala. It is the catchment area of the Charap Nallah and serves as a critical wildlife corridor, linking the Kibber and Chandra Taal wildlife sanctuaries. It will be managed through a Conservation Reserve Management Committee, which will also include representatives from local Panchayats. The committee will manage the area while balancing the needs of local communities and wildlife conservation priorities. Biodiversity: It falls among the high-density habitats of snow leopards within Himachal Pradesh. Tibetan wolf, bharal (blue sheep), Himalayan ibex, kiang (wild ass), and the Tibetan argali are also found in the region. Rare bird species such as Rose Finch, Tibetan Raven, and Yellow-billed Chough enrich the ecology of the region. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/indias-largest-protected-area-comes-up-in-spiti-valley

Answer 130

Swami Haridas Explanation : The Supreme Court recently granted the Uttar Pradesh government the go-ahead to implement its Rs 500 crore development plan for the Shri Banke Bihari Temple Corridor in Vrindavan. About Shri Banke Bihari Temple: It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Krishna in the holy city of Vrindavan in the Mathura district of Uttar Pradesh. The name “Banke” is derived because the idol of Lord Krishna is bent at three angles, and “Bihari” means the supreme enjoyer. It was established by Swami Haridas, a guru of the famous singer Tansen. The present temple complex housing ‘Banke Bihari’ was constructed in 1864 and is a unique example of Indian craftsmanship. In this temple, from the walls to the ceiling, the pictures of the deities have been painted through oil paintings. In the freedom struggle, this temple was the main center of revolutionary activities; from here, the revolutionary newspaper “Bundelkhand Kesari” was published secretly. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/law-news/story/supreme-court-allows-shri-banke-bihari-vrindavan-corridor-plan-temple-construction-2725416-2025-05-15

Answer 131

None of the above Explanation : The Telangana government recently decided to sanction 10,000 Indiramma houses to Chenchu tribal families. About Chenchu Tribe: The Chenchus are a food-gathering tribe primarily residing in the Nallamalai forests of Andhra Pradesh. They are one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in Andhra Pradesh. They are also found in Telangana, Karnataka, and Odisha. Language: Their native language (also called Chenchu) belongs to the Dravidian language family. Many also speak Telugu. A Chenchu village is known as "Penta". Each penta consists of a few huts that are spaced apart and are grouped together based on kinship patterns. The close relatives live nearby and the distant ones farther away. Their homes consist of few belongings and are generally sparse and spartan in appearance. Small conjugal families predominate, women taking equal rank with men and marrying only upon maturity. "Peddamanishi" or the village elder, is generally the authority to maintain social harmony in a family or a village. Their rituals are few and simple; religious and political specializations are slight. Livelihood: The Chenchu live life with exemplary simplicity. Most of them still gather food from the forest and roam in it to find things to meet their needs. The bow and arrow and a small knife are all the Chenchus possess to hunt and live. The Chenchus collect forest products like roots, fruits, tubers, beedi leaf, mohua flower, honey, gum, tamarind and green leaves and make a meagre income from it by selling these to traders and government cooperatives. Though at times they work as forest labourers, they mostly prefer to fall back on their native skills to hunt and gather food. Religion: Chenchus worship a number of deities. Chenchus have also adopted certain religious practices from Hindus. For ages, the Chenchus have been associated with the famous Srisailam temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva and Devi Brahmaramba) in Andhra Pradesh, situated at the heart of Chenchu land. The Chenchus enjoy special privileges at Srisailam temple. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/telangana-government-nod-for-10000-indiramma-houses-for-chenchu-tribal-families/articleshow/121145395.cms

Answer 132

South Africa Explanation : The Blyde Rondavel Flat Gecko, a flat-bodied lizard species, was rediscovered in April 2025 in the Blyde River Canyon, Mpumalanga Province, South Africa, after being unrecorded for 34 years. About Blyde Rondavel Flat Gecko The Blyde Rondavel Flat Gecko is 8–9 cm long when fully grown. It is likely rock-dwelling, with adaptations suited to cliffs and isolated habitats, explaining its elusiveness. It was originally discovered in 1991, but has not been sighted again, leading to speculation about its extinction or doubts regarding its distinct species status. The gecko was previously listed as a "Data Deficient" species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) due to a lack of sufficient sightings or information. The Endangered Wildlife Trust (EWT) confirmed the rediscovery through a research expedition to an inaccessible rocky outcrop of the canyon where the gecko was first found. This gecko is the fifth animal rediscovered in recent years by the Endangered Wildlife Trust, following: A dune mole (rediscovered after 80 years), A butterfly, a lizard, and a frog species, all previously thought to be lost. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-flat-bodied-south-african-gecko.html

Answer 133

All three Explanation : The Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy recently filed a PIL seeking mandatory inclusion of NOTA in all elections, including constituencies with only one candidate. About NOTA NOTA (None of the Above) is a voting option that allows voters to reject all contesting candidates in an election while still maintaining the secrecy of their choice. It was introduced as a result of the 2013 Supreme Court judgment in the PUCL vs Union of India case, establishing it as a symbol of voter discontent. First implemented in the 2013 Assembly elections in Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Madhya Pradesh, and later in the 2014 General Elections. Current Legal Status and Function of NOTA Votes cast under NOTA are counted, but they are treated as invalid votes. Even if NOTA receives the highest number of votes, the candidate with the second-highest valid votes is declared elected. Thus, NOTA does not impact the election outcome, but serves as a tool for democratic expression. Election Commission’s Position on NOTA The Election Commission (EC) opposed making NOTA mandatory in all elections. It cited that uncontested elections are infrequent: Only 6 such cases since 1971 in Lok Sabha elections. Only 9 cases since 1952 where candidates were elected unopposed. The EC argued that making NOTA compulsory would require legislative amendments to the: Representation of the People Act, 1951, and Conduct of Election Rules, 1961. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/podcast/is-a-candidate-winning-an-election-unopposed-unconstitutional-i

Answer 134

1 only Explanation : The Indian Defence Minister recently asserted that Pakistan’s nuclear weapons should be brought under the supervision of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) to ensure global nuclear security. About the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is the world’s leading intergovernmental organisation for scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field. It promotes the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear science and technology, especially in compliance with global non-proliferation norms. The IAEA Statute was approved on 23 October 1956 and came into force on 29 July 1957. The IAEA headquarters is located in Vienna, Austria. The agency currently has 178 member states, reflecting its wide international mandate and credibility. IAEA’s Legal Status and Global Role The IAEA is an autonomous organization within the United Nations system. It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and the UN Security Council. It is popularly referred to as the “Atoms for Peace and Development” organization within the UN framework. Its primary goal is to ensure that nuclear energy is not diverted for weapons purposes. Institutional Structure of the IAEA The General Conference, composed of all member states, meets annually to approve budgets and set general policy directions. The Board of Governors, comprising 35 members, meets about five times a year to: Approve safeguards agreements, Carry out statutory functions, and Appoint the Director General. The Secretariat, led by the Director General, handles the IAEA’s daily operations. Key Functions of the IAEA The IAEA works to ensure that nuclear technology is used solely for peaceful purposes. It applies comprehensive nuclear safeguards, including: Monitoring, On-site inspections, Information analysis, and Other techniques to verify peaceful use. These safeguards serve as a first line of defense under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). The IAEA helps enhance capacity at the national, regional, and international levels to respond to nuclear or radiological emergencies. It facilitates scientific cooperation and technical exchange among its member states. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rajnath-singh-pakistan-nuclear-weapons-operation-sindoor-action-iaea/article69578589.ece

Answer 135

Only two Explanation : Recently, Dr. Ajay Kumar, former Defence Secretary, has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) The UPSC is a constitutional body established under Articles 315 to 323 of the Indian Constitution. It was initially formed on October 1, 1926, and acquired constitutional status on January 26, 1950. Article 315 provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State. Composition and Appointment The UPSC comprises a chairman and other members, whose number is determined by the President of India. Members are appointed by the President, and at least half of them must have held office under the Government for at least 10 years. The Chairman and members hold office for a term of 6 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Resignation and Removal Provisions A UPSC member or Chairman may resign by writing to the President of India. They may be removed by the President on specific grounds mentioned in the Constitution. In case of ‘misbehavior’, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court for inquiry. If the Supreme Court upholds the charges, the President can remove the individual based on its advice. Post-Tenure Employment Restrictions The UPSC Chairman is not eligible for any further employment in the Government of India or any State. Members (excluding Chairman) may be appointed as: Chairman of the UPSC, or Chairman of a State Public Service Commission, But they are not eligible for any other office of profit under the Government. The Chairman or any member cannot be reappointed for a second term. Duties and Powers of UPSC The UPSC is India’s central recruitment agency, responsible for conducting: Civil Services Examination (CSE), Engineering Services Examination (ESE), Combined Medical Services (CMS), and others. It advises the President and Governors on matters related to: Appointments, transfers, disciplinary actions, and Framing recruitment rules and procedures. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/former-defence-secretary-ajay-kumar-takes-oath-as-upsc-chairman-101747302902974.html

Answer 136

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is preparing for its 101st mission with the launch of PSLV-C61 carrying the EOS-09 satellite on May 18 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. About EOS-09 EOS-09 is an Earth Observation Satellite (EOS), designed to enhance India’s surveillance and imaging capabilities, especially under all-weather and day-night conditions. Technical Features of EOS-09 EOS-09 is equipped with a C-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR). The SAR technology enables the satellite to capture high-resolution images of Earth’s surface, regardless of weather conditions or time of day. This makes the satellite crucial for disaster monitoring, flood mapping, agriculture assessment, border surveillance, and urban planning. The satellite adds to India’s remote sensing infrastructure, critical for environmental monitoring, national security, and climate resilience. Chandrayaan-5 / LUPEX Mission Collaboration ISRO and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) conducted the 3rd Technical Interface Meeting (TIM-3) on May 13–14 in Bengaluru, for the upcoming Chandrayaan-5 / LUPEX mission (Lunar Polar Exploration). Overview of Chandrayaan Series The Chandrayaan series represents India’s progressive lunar exploration: Chandrayaan-1: Orbital lunar mapping and discovery of water molecules. Chandrayaan-2: Orbiter and attempted lander-rover mission. Chandrayaan-3: Successful soft landing and rover deployment. Chandrayaan-4 (upcoming): Aimed at lunar sample return. Chandrayaan-5 / LUPEX: Joint India-Japan mission targeting lunar volatile analysis at the South Pole. Mission Details of Chandrayaan-5 / LUPEX The mission will focus on studying lunar volatile materials, especially lunar water ice in the Permanently Shadowed Regions (PSRs) near the lunar south pole. It will be launched by JAXA’s H3-24L launch vehicle. The lunar lander will be developed by ISRO, while the rover will be developed by MHI, Japan. Scientific payloads will be contributed by ISRO, JAXA, European Space Agency (ESA), and NASA. The instruments will focus on in-situ analysis of volatiles, enhancing our understanding of lunar resource potential and future human habitation feasibility. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/isro-to-launch-its-101st-satellite-on-sunday-chairman-v-narayanan/articleshow/121191588.cms?from=mdr

Answer 137

1 only Explanation : Union Home Minister Amit Shah recently inaugurated the revamped Multi Agency Centre (MAC). About Multi Agency Centre (MAC): MAC is a national intelligence-sharing fusion centre under the Intelligence Bureau (IB) where states and central agencies and police forces coordinate to share, store, collate, and analyse inputs on terrorism on a daily basis under four heads – J&K, Northeast, LWE, and Rest of India. It was created in December 2001 in the aftermath of the Kargil conflict but was strengthened in December 2008, following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. As many as 28 organisations, including the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), armed forces, and State police, are part of the platform, and various security agencies share real-time intelligence inputs on MAC. The new MAC network connects all police districts in the country through a secured network and has been built at a cost of ₹500 crore. It incorporates futuristic capabilities such as embedded artificial intelligence and machine learning techniques to harness the potential of the vast database with MAC and Geographic Information System (GIS) services The upgraded network will enhance trend analysis, hotspot mapping, and predictive operations, offering more accurate and actionable outcomes. The new MAC network spanning the length and breadth of the country has weaved-in country’s Island territories, insurgency-affected areas, and mountainous high-altitude terrain, ensuring last-mile connectivity down to the level of district SPs in the remotest areas with a fast and standalone secure network. It will strengthen the country’s efforts to tackle serious threats like terrorism, extremism, organised crime, and cyberattacks. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/amit-shah-inaugurates-new-multi-agency-centre-connected-up-to-the-districts/article69584731.ece

Answer 138

Delhi Explanation : The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India (WMFI) and the TCS Foundation, has successfully completed the conservation work of ‘Rajon ki Baoli’, a 16th-century stepwell. About Rajon ki Baoli: Rajon ki Baoli, also known as Rajon ki Bain, is a significant historical stepwell located in south Delhi’s Mehrauli Archaeological Park. It was built in 1506 CE by Daulat Khan during the reign of Sikander Lodi, of the Lodi dynasty, which was the last pre-Mughal dynasty in India. It stands as a testament to Lodi-era architecture and traditional water engineering. It was used in its time as a water reservoir and a retreat during summers. The stepwell’s name, Rajon ki Baoli, translates to ‘Baoli of the Masons,’ reflecting its historical use by masons for drinking and cooking purposes. Features: The stepwell is primarily subterranean, with only the topmost storey visible above ground. Its structure is built in four levels, each narrowing down as one approaches the well in the bottom. Spanning across an area of 1,610 square metres, this baoli descends to a depth of 13.4 metres, with the main tank measuring 23 by 10 metres at its base. It is a fine example of Indo-Islamic architecture, featuring intricate stone carvings, ornate arches, and a functional design that provided a natural respite from the heat. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/asi-completes-conservation-work-in-lodhi-era-stepwell/article69583687.ece

Answer 139

1 only Explanation : The National Commission for Women (NCW) recently launched the ‘Campus Calling’ programme. About ‘Campus Calling’ Programme: It is an initiative of the National Commission for Women (NCW) that aims to enhance gender sensitivity, raise awareness on the prevention of sexual harassment, and address cybercrimes impacting students. The programme has been launched in collaboration with ‘Yuvamanthan’, a youth development platform. The programme aims to reach over 1,000 universities and colleges across the country, making it one of the most extensive youth-centric initiatives undertaken by the NCW. It seeks to equip students with the knowledge and skills to combat gender-based discrimination, harassment, and cybercrimes effectively. It will identify and appoint two male and two female campus ambassadors from each participating institution. These ambassadors will play a pivotal role in spearheading gender sensitization initiatives in their campuses, fostering a culture of safety, equality, and respect among their peers. They will act as key representatives, driving positive change and encouraging youth involvement in building inclusive and secure educational spaces. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/ncw-launches-programme-to-enhance-gender-sensitivity-among-college-students/article69583665.ece

Answer 140

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The historic Tanot Mata Temple, a 1,200-year-old sacred site near the India-Pakistan border in Jaisalmer, is set to reopen for visitors as border tensions subside. About Tanot Mata Temple: It is an ancient Hindu temple situated in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. It is dedicated to Tanot Rai, a manifestation of the Hindu goddess Hinglaj Mata. According to local legends, the temple was established by a group of local tribes who worshipped the goddess Tanot Rai. Over time, the temple grew in popularity and became a significant religious site for devotees. In 1965 and 1971, during the Indo-Pakistan War, Tanot Mata Temple gained widespread recognition when it survived heavy bombardment unharmed, which further strengthened the belief in the protective powers of the deity among locals and soldiers. Despite the shelling of thousands of bombs from the Pakistan border, not one exploded in the vicinity of the temple. The unexploded bombs are, till date, treasured in the Tanot Museum within the temple premises. After the 1971 war, the temple was handed over to the Border Security Force of India, who continues to manage the Temple. The Indian army built a Vijay Sthamba within the temple premises, and every year on December 16, a celebration takes place to commemorate the victory of India over Pakistan. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/tanot-mata-temple-jaisalmer-fort-museum-reopen-as-border-tensions-ease/articleshow/121196270.cms

Answer 141

1 only Explanation : The Army recently conducted a comprehensive integrated field training exercise named 'Teesta Prahar' at the Teesta field firing range. About Exercise Teesta Prahar: It was a large-scale integrated field exercise conducted by the Indian Army. Venue: It was carried out at the Teesta field firing range in West Bengal, near the strategic Siliguri corridor, often referred to as “Chicken’s Neck”, the land that connects India's northeast region with the rest of the country. It showcased the Army’s operational readiness and coordination among combat and support arms in riverine terrain. The exercise witnessed active participation from key combat and support arms, including the Infantry, Artillery, Armoured Corps, Mechanised Infantry, Para Special Forces, Army Aviation, Engineers, and Signals. A key highlight of the drill was the deployment and validation of newly inducted next-generation weapon systems, military platforms, and advanced battlefield technologies, as a part of the Indian Army's emphasis on modernisation. In addition, the exercise emphasised jointness, synergy, and seamless coordination, reinforcing the Army's ability to operate swiftly and effectively across varied terrain and adverse weather conditions. It featured tactical drills, battle rehearsals, and adaptive manoeuvres aimed at refining responses to dynamic combat scenarios. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/watch-army-conducts-successful-teesta-prahar/articleshow/121184022.cms

Answer 142

1 only Explanation : A recent large-scale study from South Korea, published in the European Heart Journal, reveals that individuals vaccinated against shingles have a 23% lower risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attacks and strokes. About Shingles Disease Shingles, also known as herpes zoster, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later, especially when the immune system is weakened due to age, illness, or immunosuppressive medications. Shingles typically presents as a painful rash, often forming a stripe of blisters on one side of the torso, neck, or face. Other symptoms may include itching, tingling, burning, headache, fever, and sensitivity to light or touch. The most common complication is postherpetic neuralgia (PHN), a persistent nerve pain that can last for months after the rash clears. Shingles is not contagious, but the virus can be spread to someone who has never had chickenpox. It is most common in people over 50 or those with weakened immune systems. There is a vaccine called Shingrix available, which helps in preventing shingles and its complications. Antiviral medications can reduce the severity and duration of shingles, especially if started early. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/shingles-vaccine-lower-dementia-risk-what-new-study-says-10011405/

Answer 143

Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary Explanation : A protest has emerged in Goa following the publication of a scientific paper, “The water budget of the Mahadayi river and its implications for the inter-State dispute”, by scientists and researchers. About Mahadayi River The Mahadayi (Mhadei) River originates from Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Western Ghats in Karnataka and flows westward to join the Arabian Sea at Panaji, Goa. Its basin is crucial for Goa’s water needs, covering much of North Goa. It has several tributaries, namely Rogaro, Kushavati, Nanorem, Nanuz, Valvota, and Mapusa. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the island of Chorao in the Mandovi River. The river is central to a decades-long dispute between Karnataka and Goa, primarily over Karnataka’s plans to divert water from the Kalasa and Bhandura tributaries to the Malaprabha basin for drinking water needs. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) in 2018 allocated 13.42 tmc (380 Mcum) of water to Karnataka, including permissions for limited diversion from the Kalasa (1.72 tmc) and Bhandura (2.18 tmc) streams. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/goa/protests-in-goa-over-nio-hydrologists-report-claiming-mahadayi-river-diversion-will-have-limited-impact-on-the-coastal-state/article69579981.ece

Answer 144

Statutory forums for the settlement of disputes Explanation : The Rajasthan High Court has taken suo motu cognizance of the non-functioning of 16 permanent Lok Adalats across the state, following a news report highlighting this grave issue. About Lok Adalats Lok Adalats (“People’s Courts”) are statutory alternative dispute resolution (ADR) forums established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. They provide an accessible, informal, and expeditious mechanism to settle disputes either pending in courts or at the pre-litigation stage, through mutual compromise and conciliation. Statutory Status: Constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, they have legal backing and their awards are enforceable as civil court decrees. Lok Adalats can be organized at the district, state, and national levels. The State/District Legal Services Authority or the Supreme Court/High Court/Taluk Legal Services Committee may organise Lok Adalat at such intervals and places and for exercising such jurisdiction and in such areas as it thinks fit. Nature of Cases: Civil, compoundable criminal, family, property, and pre-litigation disputes. Non-compoundable criminal cases are excluded. No Court Fees: There is no fee for cases referred to Lok Adalats. If a case pending in court is settled, the court fee paid is refunded. Voluntary and Non-Coercive: Settlements are based on mutual agreement; no party is compelled to accept a decision. Binding Awards: Decisions are final, binding, and equivalent to civil court decrees, with very limited scope for challenge (mainly on grounds of fraud or coercion). If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate. Permanent Lok Adalats Establishment and Purpose: Permanent Lok Adalats were introduced under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (amended in 2002), to resolve disputes related to public utility services such as transport, postal, and telegraph. Composition and Jurisdiction: These are permanent bodies comprising a Chairman and two members, with jurisdiction to resolve disputes involving amounts up to ₹1 crore. However, they cannot adjudicate cases involving non-compoundable offences. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rajasthan/non-functioning-of-lok-adalats-in-16-districts

Answer 145

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : In May 2025, concerns over stagflation have intensified in the United States. Banks are now sitting on $482.4 billion in unrealized losses from securities investments, a 32.5% increase from the previous quarter, according to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC). About Stagflation Stagflation is an economic phenomenon where an economy experiences three adverse conditions simultaneously: High inflation (rising prices) Stagnant or slow economic growth High unemployment The term was first used in the 1960s and became prominent during the 1970s oil crisis. Stagflation is particularly challenging because the usual economic tools to fight inflation or unemployment often worsen the other problem. For example, raising interest rates may control inflation but further slow growth and increase joblessness. Causes of Stagflation: Supply Shocks: Sudden spikes in the cost of essential resources (like oil) increase production costs, leading to both inflation and reduced output. Policy Errors: Poorly coordinated fiscal and monetary policies, such as excessive government spending or delayed interest rate hikes, can fuel inflation while failing to stimulate growth. Tariff Increases: Recent U.S. tariffs have raised input costs, potentially triggering stagflation by increasing prices and reducing demand. Impact of Stagflation Diminished Purchasing Power: Inflation erodes household incomes, reducing consumption. Higher Unemployment: Companies facing higher costs and weaker demand cut jobs. Reduced Investment: Economic uncertainty discourages businesses from investing, further hampering growth. Financial Sector Stress: High interest rates, necessary to fight inflation, reduce the value of banks’ bond holdings. If depositors lose confidence, banks may face liquidity crises, as seen with SVB in 2023. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/u-s-banks-sitting-on-500-billion-in-unrealized-losses-as-stagflation-fears-raise-alarms-of-a-repeat-of-silicon-valley-bank-like-collapse/articleshow/121192873.cms?from=mdr

Answer 146

None of the above Explanation : The Global Report on Food Crises 2025, released in May 2025, reveals that acute hunger has reached a new record high globally. About Global Report on Food Crises The Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) is an annual, consensus-based technical report coordinated by the Food Security Information Network (FSIN) in support of the Global Network Against Food Crises (GNAFC). It is produced through a partnership of key UN agencies (including FAO, WFP, UNICEF), the European Union and other international organisations and NGOs. The GRFC provides in-depth analysis of acute food insecurity and malnutrition at global, regional, and country levels, identifying immediate and underlying drivers, and guiding humanitarian and development interventions. Key Findings of the 2025 GRFC Record High Acute Hunger: In 2024, 295.3 million people in 53 countries faced acute food insecurity, up from 281.6 million in 2023. This marks the sixth consecutive annual increase and the highest level since reporting began. Crisis Severity: Nearly a quarter of the population in the assessed countries suffered from acute hunger, with 1.9 million people facing famine conditions (IPC/CH Phase 5)-more than double the previous year. Humanitarian Funding Crisis: Humanitarian allocations to food sectors could fall by up to 45% in 2025, threatening life-saving nutrition services for at least 14 million children and disrupting aid in major crisis zones. Children and Women: Over 37 million children under five in 26 countries suffered from acute malnutrition in 2024, with more than 10.2 million experiencing severe acute malnutrition. Hence option d is the correct answer. Global Acute Hunger Hits New High, Outlook 'Bleak' For 2025: UN-Backed Report News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/global-acute-hunger-hits-record-high-un-warns-of-bleak-2025-outlook-8429925

Answer 147

None of the above Explanation : The CBSE has directed affiliated schools to establish “Sugar Boards” to monitor and reduce sugar consumption among students primarily to lower the risk of Type 2 diabetes and obesity in children. About Type 2 Diabetes (T2D): T2D, the most common type of diabetes, is a disease that occurs when your blood glucose, also called blood sugar, is too high. Blood glucose is your main source of energy and comes mainly from the food you eat. Insulin, a hormone made by the pancreas, helps glucose get into your cells to be used for energy. In T2D, your body doesn’t make enough insulin or doesn’t use insulin well. Too much glucose then stays in your blood, and not enough reaches your cells. Type 2 diabetes may be caused by a combination of factors: Being overweight or having obesity Not being physically active Genetics and family history How common is T2D? Researchers estimate that T2D affects about 6.3% of the world’s population. T2D most commonly affects adults over 45, but people younger than 45 can have it as well, including children. Symptoms: Many people with type 2 diabetes have no symptoms at all. If you do have them, the symptoms develop slowly over several years. They might be so mild that you do not notice them. The symptoms can include: Increased thirst and urination Increased hunger Feeling tired Blurred vision Numbness or tingling in the feet or hands Sores that do not heal Unexplained weight loss Treatment: Treatment for T2D involves managing your blood sugar levels. Many people are able to do this by living a healthy lifestyle. Some people may also need to take diabetes medicines, which may include pills or medicines you inject under your skin, such as insulin. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.financialexpress.com/jobs-career/education/cbse-schools-to-set-up-sugar-boards-to-fight-type-2-diabetes-obesity-among-students/3848098/

Answer 148

Biological seed and soil treatments Explanation : Brazilian scientist Mariangela Hungria recently won the 2025 World Food Prize for her pioneering work in reducing the use of chemical fertilisers and developing biological seed and soil treatments to boost crop yields and nutrition. About World Food Prize: It is an international award recognizing the achievements of individuals that have advanced human development by improving the quality, quantity, or availability of food in the world. It is also known as the Nobel Prize for Food and Agriculture. It recognizes contributions in any field involved in the world food supply, such as food and agriculture, science and technology, manufacturing, marketing, nutrition, economics, poverty alleviation, political leadership, and the social sciences. The Prize was founded in 1986 by Dr. Norman E. Borlaug, recipient of the 1970 Nobel Peace Prize. It is now administered by the World Food Prize Foundation with support from numerous sponsors. It is a $500,000 award formally presented at the Laureate Award Ceremony in mid-October, on or around World Food Day, in conjunction with the Borlaug Dialogue international symposium in Des Moines, Iowa, USA. M.S. Swaminathan was named the first World Food Prize Laureate, receiving the award in 1987 for developing and spearheading the introduction of high-yielding wheat and rice varieties into India during the 1960s. World Food Prize 2025: Brazilian microbiologist Mariangela Hungria is the winner of the 2025 World Food Prize for her work with biological seed and soil treatments. Hungria's research enables crops to utilize soil bacteria for nutrients, increasing yields and reducing the need for synthetic fertilizers. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/food/scientist-behind-brazils-micro-green-revolution-wins-2025-world-food-prize-for-reducing-fertiliser-use

Answer 149

2 only Explanation : NASA's GRAIL mission recently unveiled significant differences between the moon's nearside and farside, attributing them to tidal deformation and varied volcanic activity. About GRAIL Mission: Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory (GRAIL) is a NASA lunar mission launched in 2011. It consisted of two robotic spacecraft, Ebb and Flow, which orbited the moon to create the most detailed gravitational map of the lunar surface to date. The mission's primary goal was to measure variations in the moon’s gravitational field, providing critical insights into its internal structure and geological history. The GRAIL mission achieved this by precisely measuring the distance between the two spacecraft as they orbited the moon. Even tiny changes in this distance, caused by variations in the moon’s gravitational pull, provided data about the moon’s interior composition, crust thickness, and subsurface anomalies. This approach has proven crucial for understanding the forces that shaped the moon’s contrasting hemispheres. GRAIL discovered that the Moon’s crust was more porous and not as thick as previously supposed. It also discovered long linear features called “dikes” that were evidence of the Moon’s expansion by a few kilometres early in its history. Recent Findings: It unveiled significant differences between the moon's nearside and farside, attributing them to Tidal deformation and gravitational asymmetry: The lunar nearside flexes slightly more than the farside during its elliptical orbit around Earth, a phenomenon known as tidal deformation. This difference in flexibility is primarily driven by Earth’s gravitational pull, which exerts a greater influence on the side facing our planet. Volcanic activity and heat distribution: The moon’s nearside was once more volcanically active than the farside with vast plains of basaltic rock known as "mare." This volcanic activity concentrated heat-producing, radioactive elements like thorium and titanium in the nearside mantle, resulting in a significant temperature difference between the two hemispheres, creating a long-term thermal imbalance that has shaped the moon’s geology over billions of years. Crustal thickness and surface composition: The nearside crust is significantly thinner than the farside crust, allowing magma from the moon’s interior to more easily reach the surface in the past, leading to extensive lava flows. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/nasa-study-reveals-why-the-moon-look-so-different-on-each-side/articleshow/121218887.cms

Answer 150

United States of America Explanation : The recent approval by the United States to sell AIM-120C-8 Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missiles (AMRAAMs) to Turkey has triggered serious concerns in India. About AIM-120C-8 AMRAAM: AIM-120C-8 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) is a highly advanced beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM) with surface-to-air missile (SAM) capabilities. It was developed by Raytheon Technologies, one of the leading United States defense contractors. Developed to engage and destroy enemy aircraft at extended ranges, the AIM-120 has become a cornerstone of modern air combat. Features: Designed for deployment from fighter aircraft such as the F-16, F-15, F/A-18, and newer platforms like the F-35, the missile has a range exceeding 160 kilometers under optimal launch conditions. Measuring approximately 12 feet in length with a diameter of seven inches, the missile weighs around 356 pounds and is powered by a solid-fuel rocket motor capable of propelling it to speeds exceeding Mach 4, or roughly 3,000 miles per hour. The missile’s guidance system is a sophisticated blend of active radar, inertial navigation, and GPS correction, enabling it to operate independently after launch, a feature known as “fire-and-forget.” It also incorporates a two-way data link, which allows real-time updates to the missile’s trajectory, enhancing its accuracy against maneuvering targets. Its active radar seeker is designed to detect stealthy aircraft with low radar cross-sections, while advanced electronic countermeasures ensure resilience against jamming attempts. The missile carries an 18.1-kilogram high-explosive blast fragmentation warhead, optimized for destroying enemy aircraft and drones with a proximity fuse that triggers at the optimal moment. It has the ability to engage multiple targets beyond visual range, even in contested electronic environments. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.firstpost.com/explainers/us-amraam-missile-sale-turkey-pakistan-india-concerns-explained-13888951.html

Answer 151

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : As cross-border tensions flared along the western front amid escalations from Pakistan, the Border Security Force (BSF) emerged not just as India’s first line of defence—but also its sharpest, standing tall alongside the armed forces. About Border Security Force (BSF): Known as the First Line of Defence of Indian Territories, BSF is a primary border-guarding organisation of India. BSF is one of the seven Central Armed Police Forces (CSPFs) of the Union of India under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It was raised in the wake of the 1965 War on 1 December 1965, "for ensuring the security of the borders of India and for matters associated therewith. Role: The primary role of BSF is to protect the country's land borders during peacetime and prevent transnational crime. They help the Indian Army during wartime as they are familiar with local people and topography. Currently, BSF is deployed at the Indo-Pakistan International Border, the Indo-Bangladesh International Border, and Line of Control (LoC) along with the Indian Army, and in Anti-Naxal Operations. Logo: The Logo of BSF has two spikes of grains, embracing the National Emblem of India, and the typeface BSF. The motto of BSF, “DUTY UNTO DEATH” is placed at the bottom. BSF currently stands as the world's largest border guarding force with 186 battalions and 2.57 lakh personnel including an expanding air wing, marine wing, artillery regiments, and commando units. The BSF has a separate camel and dog wing that lets them expand their reach into varied terrain such as the India-Pakistan border in the Rann of Kutch. BSF is the only CAPF to have its own Air Wing, Marine Wing, and artillery regiments, which support the General Duty Battalions in their operations. The force also maintains a Tear Smoke Unit (TSU), which is unique in India. The TSU is responsible for producing tear gas munitions required for the Anti-Riot Forces. BSF has been given powers of arrest, search, and seizure under various Acts. “These Acts include Passport Act 1967, Passport Act (Entry into India) 1920, Customs Act, NDPS Act and Arms Act. The head of the BSF is known as the Director General (DG), and he should be an officer from Indian Police Services (IPS). Hence both statements are not correct. News:https://www.news18.com/india/india-pakistan-tensions-how-bsf-stood-firm-struck-hard-with-no-additional-deployment-ws-kl-9337089.html

Answer 152

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Scientists at the University of California San Diego developed SNAP-X, a bio-ink enhancing coral larvae settlement by 20x, offering a breakthrough for reef restoration amid climate threats. About Coral Reefs Coral reefs are marine ecosystems built by groups of coral polyps bound together by calcium carbonate. These vibrant habitats flourish in warm, clear and shallow waters of tropical regions. Notable examples include the Great Barrier Reef and India’s Gulf of Mannar and Lakshadweep. Coral reefs offer crucial benefits, such as providing food, shielding coastlines, and supporting local economies through tourism and fishing. Types of Coral Reefs Fringing Reefs: Found close to shorelines, separated from land by shallow lagoons. Most common type. Barrier Reefs: Located farther offshore, separated from land by deeper, wider lagoons. The Great Barrier Reef in Australia is the largest example. Atolls: Ring-shaped reefs that encircle a lagoon, often formed on sinking volcanic islands. Common in the Indian and Pacific Oceans. Conditions Required for Coral Reef Formation Stable, Warm Water: Temperatures typically around 20°C, found in tropical regions between 30°N and 30°S. Shallow Depths: Usually up to 55 meters deep, allowing sufficient sunlight for photosynthesis. Clear, Low-Nutrient Saltwater: Essential for light penetration and coral health. Minimal Pollution: Corals are highly sensitive to chemical and sediment pollution. Abundant Plankton: Provides food for coral polyps. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.eurasiareview.com/18052025-an-ink-that-boosts-coral-reef-settlement-by-20-times/

Answer 153

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Jammu & Kashmir Police have recently invoked the Public Safety Act against 23 individuals in Srinagar, citing their involvement in subversive activities and threats to national security and public order. About Jammu & Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 The Jammu & Kashmir Public Safety Act (PSA), 1978, is a preventive detention law originally enacted by the J&K State Legislature and now applicable to the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. Its primary objective is to empower authorities to detain individuals to prevent actions prejudicial to the security of the state or maintenance of public order. Public Safety Act Key Provisions Detention Without Trial: The PSA permits authorities to detain individuals without formal charges or a trial, even if they are already in custody or recently granted bail. No Right to File Bail Application: Detainees under the PSA cannot seek bail or appoint a lawyer to represent them, leaving them with limited legal representation options. Limited Legal Remedies: The only way to challenge a PSA detention is through a habeas corpus petition filed by the detained person’s relatives in higher courts. Re-Detention Possibility: Even if a PSA detention order is quashed by the High Court or Supreme Court, the government can issue a fresh detention order. Discretionary Powers: The District Magistrate who issues the detention order is legally protected, as the PSA considers such actions done “in good faith.” Section 8 of the PSA: It broadly defines grounds for detention, including promoting enmity, instigation, or any acts threatening public harmony, with final decisions left to district authorities. No Distinction Between Offences: The PSA allows detention for up to one year for disturbing public order and two years for activities harmful to state security. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/jk-police-public-safety-act-23-srinagar-sia-raids-continue-10012832/

Answer 154

2 only Explanation : The Prime Minister of India will launch the revamped National Manuscripts Mission-now restructured as the “Gyan Bharatam Mission”-on June 9, 2025. About Gyan Bharatam Mission The Gyan Bharatam Mission is a comprehensive national initiative under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, dedicated to the systematic survey, documentation, conservation, and digitisation of India’s vast manuscript heritage. The mission builds upon and revamps the earlier National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM), which was established in 2003 and functions under the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA). Objective of Gyan Bharatam Mission To survey, document, conserve, and digitize over one crore (10 million) manuscripts housed in academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collections across India. To create a National Digital Repository of Indian Knowledge Systems, making ancient wisdom accessible to researchers, students, and the public worldwide. Key Features of Gyan Bharatam Mission Massive Coverage: Targets more than one crore manuscripts, making it the largest manuscript preservation initiative in India’s history. Digital Repository: Establishment of a centralized, accessible digital platform for India’s traditional knowledge systems, enabling AI-driven archiving, metadata tagging, and translation tools. Collaboration: Active engagement with academic institutions, museums, libraries, private collectors, and international organizations for research, preservation, and dissemination. Modern Conservation: Adoption of advanced scientific techniques for restoration, preservation, and digitization, including AI and 3D imaging. Budgetary Support: Budget allocation for the mission increased from ₹3.5 crore to ₹60 crore, with a total outlay of ₹482.85 crore for 2024-31. Public Access: Manuscripts will be made accessible for academic research, education, and public knowledge, both nationally and globally. What are Manuscripts? A manuscript is a handwritten document crafted on materials like paper, bark, or palm leaves, which is at least 75 years old and holds notable scientific, historical, or artistic importance. For example, the Bakhshali manuscript, dating back to the third or fourth century BCE, is an ancient Indian text on mathematics written on birch bark. Research has revealed that the Bakhshali manuscript features the earliest known instance of the mathematical symbol 'zero'. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-to-launch-revamped-manuscripts-mission-on-june-9/article69587353.ece

Answer 155

three-eyed marine predator Explanation : Scientists have recently described Mosura fentoni, an ancient three-eyed predator that lived approximately 506 million years ago. About Mosura Fentoni Mosura fentoni is an extinct species of radiodont, a group of early arthropods, and was a marine predator during the Cambrian period. The species is named after "Mothra," the fictional moth kaiju, due to its resemblance to a hovering moth and its unique body structure. The fossils were primarily found in the Burgess Shale of the Canadian Rockies, a site renowned for the exceptional preservation of soft-bodied organisms. The discovery highlights the unexpected diversity and evolutionary experimentation among early arthropods, offering rare insights into their internal anatomy and evolutionary convergence with modern arthropods. Key Facts about Mosura fentoni Time Period: Lived around 506 million years ago, during the Cambrian period. Classification: Belongs to Radiodonta, an extinct lineage of early arthropods that also includes Anomalocaris. Size: Approximately the length of an adult human index finger. Eyes: Possessed three eyes-two lateral and one prominent central eye-providing advanced visual capabilities for its time. Trunk-Like Body: Elongated body with swimming flaps along the sides for propulsion, similar to the movement of modern rays. Abdomen-Like Region: Unique among radiodonts, Mosura fentoni had a segmented rear section comprising 16 tightly packed segments, each lined with gills. This structure likely enhanced its respiratory efficiency and is considered an example of evolutionary convergence with modern arthropods such as horseshoe crabs and insects. Respiration: Breathed through gills located at the posterior end of its body, a feature not previously seen in related species. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.livemint.com/science/news/scientists-discover-3-eyed-sea-predator-from-506-million-years-ago-it-used-to-fly-underwater-11747483057014.html

Answer 156

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India has joined over 120 nations in issuing biometric e-passports, offering enhanced security, faster immigration, and global compliance. About e-Passports An e-passport (electronic or biometric passport) is an upgraded version of the traditional passport. It combines a conventional booklet with an embedded Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) chip and antenna in the back cover. This chip securely stores the holder’s personal and biometric data, including: Name, date of birth, passport number, and other demographic details Biometric facial data and fingerprints Digital signature for secure authentication Security Features of E-Passports RFID Chip & Antenna: Stores encrypted personal and biometric data, making unauthorized access or tampering extremely difficult. Basic Access Control (BAC): Stops unauthenticated access to the chip by restricting scanning equipment to only authorized devices. Passive Authentication (PA): Authenticates stored information and identifies tampering. Extended Access Control (EAC): Introduces an additional layer of security to biometric data such as fingerprints. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI): Digitally signs the data, ensuring authenticity and preventing forgery or unauthorized data changes. Benefits of E-Passports Enhanced Security: Strong protection against forgery, duplication, and identity theft due to encrypted biometric data and digital signatures. Faster Immigration: Automated e-gates and digital verification reduce manual checks and waiting times at airports. Global Acceptance: Compliance with International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standards ensures smooth travel and easier visa processing worldwide. Privacy: New e-passports no longer print the residential address on the last page; it is stored digitally and accessible only to authorised officials. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/technology/tech-news/india-launches-e-passports-with-enhanced-security-features-all-you-need-to-know-about-their-benefits-security-and-how-to-apply-online/articleshow/121229680.cms

Answer 157

All three Explanation : The President of India conferred the 58th Jnanpith Award on Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji at a function held at Vigyan Bhavan in New Delhi recently. About Jnanpith Award: It is the highest literary honour of India, given to writers who have excelled in literature in different Indian languages. It is given every year to an author for his/her outstanding contribution towards Indian literature through creative writing in any of the Indian languages mentioned in Schedule VIII of the Indian Constitution and English. It was instituted in 1961. The prize carries a cash award, a citation, and a bronze replica of Vagdevi (Saraswati), the goddess of learning. It is sponsored by the cultural organization Bharatiya Jnanpith. Bharatiya Jnanpith is one of the premier literary organisations of India, which is nurturing literature and culture through its literary endeavors, which include awards, publication, fellowship, and research, for the last several decades. The organisation was established in 1944. The first recipient of the award was Malayalam poet G. Sankara Kurup, who received the award in 1965 for his collection of poems Odakkuzhal. Only those creative writers who are alive and are Indian citizens, can be proposed for the Award. A language which receives the Award in a particular year is not eligible for consideration for the next two years. A writer who receives the Award once will not be considered again. The Award may not be given in a particular year if the Jnanpith Award Selection Board feels that there is no suitable name which comes up to the expected standard of the Award. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2129148

Answer 158

1 only Explanation : A high-stakes attempt by the French Overseas Minister to broker a new political accord for New Caledonia collapsed recently, plunging the French Pacific territory into profound uncertainty. About New Caledonia: It is a French overseas territory located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean, approximately 1,500 km east of Australia. It comprises the main island of Grande Terre (where the capital, Nouméa, is situated), the four Loyalty Islands (Ouvéa, Lifou, Tiga, and Maré), the Belep archipelago, the Isle of Pines, and some remote islands. Just over 270,000 people live in New Caledonia (2019 census). Approximately 39 percent are indigenous ('Kanak'). The remainder are Caledonians of European, Polynesian and other (including Vietnamese, Indonesian and Algerian) origins. It is one of the European Union's Overseas Countries and Territories (OCTs), but is not part of the European Union, the Euro or Schengen zones. History of Island: New Caledonia, originally inhabited by the Kanaks, came under French control in 1853. Post-WWII, Kanaks gained French citizenship, but 1960s French migration made them a minority, sparking an independence movement. Tensions led to the Matignon Agreements (1988) and Nouméa Accord (1998), promising three independence referendums. The 2018 and 2020 referendums favoured France. Despite COVID-19 concerns, the 2021 referendum also favoured France, angering the Kanaks. Significance of New Caledonia for France: Strategic location: Situated in the South Pacific, New Caledonia provides France with a military and geopolitical presence in a region with growing global interest, particularly with increasing influence from China. Economic resources: The island is rich in natural resources, notably nickel, which is vital for various industries, including manufacturing and technology. It holds about 25% of the world’s nickel reserves. New Caledonia’s lagoons, with their diverse reefs and associated ecosystems, were designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2008. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/can-new-caledonia-gain-independence-from-france-explained/article69591463.ece

Answer 159

2 only Explanation : The Pimpri-Chinchwad Municipal Corporation (PCMC) recently demolished 36 illegal bungalows from the River Villa project, located within the blue flood line of the Indrayani River in Chikhali. About Indrayani River: It is a river located in the state of Maharashtra. It is a tributary of the Bhima River (a tributary of the Krishna River) Course: It is a rain-fed river that originates from the Western Ghats, near the hill station of Lonavala. It flows through the Pune district before merging into the Bhima River at Tulapur. It is 103.5 kilometres long. The river has great religious importance, and the two sacred towns, Alandi and Dehu, are situated on its banks. Dehu is known to be a sacred place for being the hometown of the poet Saint Tukaram, who was a popular saint of Maharashtra, and Alandi holds the samadhi of the poet Dnyaneshwar. The Indrayani also passes through the industrial town of Pimpri-Chinchwad and plays a role in irrigation and local agriculture. Valvan Dam at Kamshet, situated on the Indrayani River, is a hydroelectric generating station. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/pune-news/36-unauthorised-bungalows-razed-along-indrayani-river-bank-101747506751601.html

Answer 160

Spain Explanation : Thousands of people protested against mass tourism in Spain's Canary Islands recently. About Canary Islands: The Canary Islands are an archipelago located off the northwest coast of Africa in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean. Even though they're closer to Africa than Europe, the Canary Islands are part of Spain. It is approximately 100 km from Morocco and southwest of Spain. It is Macaronesia’s largest and most populated archipelago. Some of the largest islands in the archipelago are Lanzarote, Fuerteventura, Gran Canaria, and Tenerife. Capital: Santa Cruz de Tenerife Area: 7,447 sq.km. The Canary Islands were formed by volcanic eruptions millions of years ago. Teide Peak on Tenerife rises to 12,198 feet (3,718 metres), the highest point on Spanish soil. The Canary Islands have a subtropical climate. Temperatures are warm and show little seasonal variation. The islands’ location in the Atlantic Ocean and their proximity to four continents (Africa, Europe, and the Americas) make them a popular tourist destination. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/thousands-protest-against-overtourism-spains-canary-islands-2025-05-18/#:~:text=More%20than%201%20million%20foreign,even%20more%20visitors%20this%20year.

Answer 161

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Ukraine's military intelligence agency recently said Russia planned to conduct a "training and combat" launch of the RS-24 intercontinental ballistic missile from the Yars complex to intimidate Ukraine and the West. About RS-24 Yars: The Yars RS-24 (NATO designation SS-29) is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) system. It is believed to have entered into service in February 2010. It is designed to replace Russia’s SS-19 Stiletto and SS-18 Satan ICBMs. It is able to penetrate highly protected targets and also any current Ballistic Missile Defense (BMD) System. Features: It is a three-stage, solid propellant, MIRV-capable (Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles) ICBM. The RS-24 missile will be deployed both in silos and on mobile platforms. The missile is estimated to be 22.5 meters in length and 2 meters in diameter. The total launch weight of the RS-24 is assessed to be 49,000 kg and is expected to have a minimum range of 2,000 km and a maximum of 10,500 km. The missile uses an guidance upgraded system of the inertial and Glonass systems. The missile can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons. It has the capability to manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/russia-plans-launch-intercontinental-ballistic-missile-sunday-kyiv-says-2025-05-18/

Answer 162

Article 143 Explanation : President Droupadi Murmu recently referred 14 questions to the Supreme Court under Article 143. What is a Presidential Reference? A Presidential Reference is a constitutional mechanism under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution, wherein the President of India seeks the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on important questions of law or fact. This power enables the executive to seek judicial clarity on complex constitutional matters without initiating litigation. There are two components of Article 143: Article 143(1) allows the President to refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. Article 143(2) pertains to disputes involving pre-Constitutional treaties and agreements, permitting the President to refer such matters for legal clarification. Nature of Opinion: The Supreme Court’s opinion is not binding on the President. It does not carry precedential value but holds strong persuasive authority and is usually followed by the executive and judiciary. Historical origin: The provision originates from the Government of India Act, 1935, which empowered the Governor-General to refer legal matters to the Federal Court. Procedure for Reference: The President refers to the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. As per Article 145, a minimum 5-judge Bench of the Supreme Court must hear the matter. The court's discretion: The Supreme Court may choose whether or not to answer the reference. It can refuse to respond if the question is vague, hypothetical, or outside judicial purview. Global comparisons: Canada: Allows similar advisory references to the Supreme Court of Canada. United States: It does not permit advisory opinions, and it respects the strict separation of powers. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2025/May/19/presidential-references-to-supreme-court-on-state-bills-a-peep-into-the-past-75-yrs

Answer 163

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, over 20 people have died in the southern United States due to severe storms and tornado outbreaks affecting Missouri and Kentucky. What is a Tornado? A tornado is a vertical, land-based column of violently rotating air that forms from the base of a thunderstorm to the ground. It is characterised by a rapid cyclonic circulation and is often seen as a cloud-filled condensation funnel extending from the sky to the ground. In cases of low humidity, the tornado may not form a visible funnel and may appear only as a swirl of dust or debris near the ground. When such a rotating column of air forms over a water body, it is known as a waterspout. Wind Speeds and Movement Tornadoes typically exhibit wind speeds ranging from 105 to 322 km/h, but some extreme events can exceed this range. They can be stationary or move at high speeds, often advancing at around 97 km/h across the landscape. The sheer speed and intensity of the winds make tornadoes one of the most destructive natural phenomena on land. Mechanism of Formation Tornado formation is closely linked to interactions between contrasting air masses. A collision of warm, moist air (usually from tropical regions) with cool, dry air (typically from polar or upper regions), especially in the presence of a low-pressure system or trough, leads to the formation of thunderstorms and may trigger tornadoes. Cyclonic circulations and atmospheric instability further contribute to the rotational dynamics needed for tornado development. Geographical Distribution: Tornadoes occur most commonly in mid-latitude regions (between 20° and 60° latitude in both hemispheres) where cold polar air meets warm tropical air, producing frequent thunderstorm activity. The United States experiences the highest frequency of tornadoes globally, particularly in the region known as “Tornado Alley”. Other countries prone to tornado occurrences include Argentina and Bangladesh, which also lie in the tropical-midlatitude interaction zones. Measurement: The Enhanced Fujita Scale is used to classify the strength of tornadoes based on estimated wind speeds and associated damage levels. The scale ranges from EF0 (weakest) to EF5 (strongest), with EF5 tornadoes being catastrophically destructive, often flattening buildings and uprooting trees. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.dw.com/en/severe-weather-tornadoes-kill-over-20-people-in-us/a-72576919

Answer 164

1 only Explanation : ISRO launched the PSLV-C61 mission from Sriharikota to place the EOS-09 satellite into a Sun-synchronous polar orbit. The mission failed due to a third-stage issue. What is PSLV? PSLV stands for Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, a four-stage launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It is primarily designed to place satellites into Sun-synchronous polar orbits (SSPOs), which are ideal for Earth observation missions. Each stage of PSLV is powered by a different engine and propellant combination, enabling it to carry medium-weight payloads to a variety of orbits with high precision. Configuration and Design The PSLV has four stages, with alternate solid and liquid propulsion systems: First Stage: Uses HTPB-based solid propellant (Hydroxyl-Terminated Polybutadiene). In the XL configuration, it is supported by six strap-on boosters that enhance the initial thrust. Capable of generating a peak thrust of 4.8 MegaNewtons (MN). Second Stage: Powered by the Vikas engine, which uses a liquid fuel combination: Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) as fuel Nitrogen Tetroxide (N₂O₄) as oxidiser Generates a thrust of approximately 0.8 MN. Third Stage: Reverts to solid propulsion, again using HTPB-based fuel. Fourth Stage: Utilises two liquid engines burning Monomethylhydrazine (MMH) and Mixed Oxides of Nitrogen (MON). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-pslv/article69590053.ece

Answer 165

Inosine Explanation : Researchers from China recently reported that it’s hard to make sense of the widespread persistence of A-to-I mRNA editing in animals. Concept and Mechanism DNA acts like a recipe book for building proteins using 20 amino acids. Each recipe (i.e., gene) is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA). The mRNA is then read by ribosomes to assemble proteins. The mRNA is composed of four nucleotide bases: A (adenosine), U, G, and C. In A-to-I mRNA editing, the adenosine (A) in mRNA is enzymatically converted into inosine (I) by proteins called ADARs (Adenosine Deaminase Acting on RNA). The ribosome reads inosine as guanine (G), altering the protein’s amino acid sequence post-transcriptionally, without any change in the DNA. Functional Impact: A-to-I editing can change the codon identity, thereby producing a different amino acid in the resulting protein. This may lead to functional protein diversification and alteration in protein stability or activity. A major risk is misreading stop codons: A stop codon like UAG or UGA may be edited to UGG, coding for tryptophan. This allows the ribosome to continue protein synthesis, potentially creating abnormally long or malfunctioning proteins. Discovery of PSC Genes Researchers identified 71 genes in F. graminearum that contain premature stop codons (UAG) in their unedited mRNA. These were termed PSC (premature stop codon-containing) genes. Deleting these genes had: No impact during asexual growth. But significant disruption during sexual development, proving the essentiality of A-to-I editing in these stages. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/our-bodies-perform-a-kind-of-mrna-editing-and-we-dont-know-why/article69423396.ece

Answer 166

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Portugal is moving toward another minority government following its recent general election, reflecting growing public discontent with traditional political parties. Key facts about Portugal Portugal is the westernmost country of mainland Europe, located on the west coast of the Iberian Peninsula. It shares its only land border with Spain to the north and east, and is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the south and west. It is a unitary semi-presidential republic with a parliamentary democracy. Portugal also administers two autonomous regions: the Madeira and Azores archipelagos, located in the Atlantic Ocean. Lisbon, the capital of Portugal, is one of the oldest cities in Europe. It has historically served as a major seaport and center of global maritime exploration during the Age of Discovery, linking it closely to India's colonial past via the Portuguese Empire. Climate: The country experiences a maritime temperate climate—cool and rainy in the north, and warmer and drier in the south. Terrain: The Tagus River flows westward and divides Portugal into mountainous northern regions and rolling plains in the south. The highest point in Portugal is Ponta do Pico (Pico Alto), located in the Azores. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/portugal-is-headed-for-another-minority-government-after-general-election/article69592529.ece

Answer 167

Iraq Explanation : During recent excavations in the ancient metropolis of Nineveh, archaeologists came across large parts of a monumental relief, including King Assurbanipal (668 to 627 BC), the last ruler of the Assyrian Empire, accompanied by two important deities and other figures. About Nineveh: It was one of the most important sites in northern Mesopotamia and became the capital of the Assyrian Empire under King Sennacherib in the late 8th century BCE. It is situated on the east bank of the Tigris River within the modern city of Mosul, Iraq. It was the oldest and most populous city of the ancient Assyrian empire. The area was settled as early as 6000 BCE and, by 3000 BCE, had become an important religious centre for worship of the goddess Ishtar. It came directly under Assyrian rule during the reign of Shamashi Adad I (r. 1813-1791 BCE) but was most fully developed during the Neo-Assyrian Empire (912-612 BCE) by Sennacherib (r. 705-681 BCE). Prior to its fall, however, Nineveh was the largest urban center in the world, ornamented by gardens, statuary, parks, and a zoo, and was regarded as a great cultural center. The city was destroyed in 612 BCE by a coalition led by Babylonians and Medes, which toppled the Assyrian Empire. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.msn.com/en-in/money/markets/spectacular-find-monumental-images-of-gods-discovered-in-nineveh/ar-AA1EZxPr

Answer 168

Chhattisgarh Explanation : Recent camera trap images from Chhattisgarh's Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve (USTR) have captured a promising resurgence in wildlife activity, showing extensive use of the forest by carnivores, herbivores, and omnivores alike. About Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve: It is located in the Gariaband and Dhamtari Districts of Chhattisgarh. It was established by joining the regions represented by Sitanadi and Udanti wildlife sanctuaries. The drainage system of the reserve consists of Mahanadi as the main river, along with Udanti, Sitanadi, Indravan, and Pairi Rivers as tributaries. The location of the reserve is strategic since it also connects with the Kanker and North Kondagaon forest divisions, forming a contiguous forest corridor to Indravati Tiger Reserve in the Bastar region. Total Area: 1872 sq.km. There are 19 named mountains in the reserve. Deo Dongri is the highest point. The most prominent mountain is Atānga Dongar. Flora: The forest types of USTR are "Tropical Peninsular Sal Forest and Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Mixed Forest" (Champion & Seth, 1968). The ground is covered with a maze of grass, plants, bushes, and saplings. Fauna: Along with the Indravati Tiger Reserve, the Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve is an important refuge for the last few herds of the highly endangered Wild Buffalo. Apart from the tiger, other endangered and rare species are the Indian Wolf, Leopard, Sloth Bear, and Mouse Deer. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/camera-trap-images-show-flourishing-wildlife-ustr-amid-conservation-push/articleshow/121276158.cms

Answer 169

2 only Explanation : The Supreme Court recently directed Tamil Nadu and Kerala to resolve contentious issues related to the Mullaperiyar dam with expert intervention. About Mullaperiyar Dam: It is a masonry gravity dam situated on the Periyar River in Thekkady, Idukki district, in Kerala. It is located 881 m above sea level, in the Western Ghats mountains. The dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers. It is one of the oldest dams in India. Its construction began in 1887 and was completed in 1895. The construction was carried out by the British Corps of Royal Engineers under the leadership of Pennycuick. The dam was constructed with limestone and “Surkhi" (burnt brick powder and a mixture of sugar and calcium oxide). The dam has a height of 53.6 meters (176 feet), a length of 365.7 meters (1,200 feet), and a storage capacity of 443 million cubic meters (11.5 billion cubic feet). It created an artificial lake and reservoir that covers an area of 8.5 sq.km The dam is surrounded by the Periyar National Park, a renowned biodiversity hotspot that is home to numerous endangered species of animals and birds. The dam's primary function is to transfer water from the Periyar River to the Vaigai River basin in Tamil Nadu for irrigation and power generation purposes. Although the dam is located in Kerala, it is operated and maintained by the neighbouring state of Tamil Nadu. It was according to a 999-year lease agreement made during British rule, that the operational rights were handed over to Tamil Nadu. In recent years, there has been a long-standing dispute between Kerala and Tamil Nadu over the safety of the dam. Kerala has been demanding that the dam be strengthened or decommissioned, while Tamil Nadu has opposed any such move. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-sets-timelines-to-facilitate-repair-of-mullaperiyar-dam-tree-felling-near-site/article69595087.ece

Answer 170

All three Explanation : To further strengthen the governance mechanism at market infrastructure institutions (MIIs), regulator SEBI recently released comprehensive guidelines for internal audit mechanisms at such establishments, along with the prescribed composition of the audit committee. About Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs): A MII is a financial entity that provides essential infrastructure for running the daily operations in the Stock Market/Capital Markets. The MII primarily consists of the following 3 entities from the Stock Market: Stock Exchanges (including Commodity Exchanges) Clearing House/Clearing Corporation Depository Organization The MIIs help to efficiently trade the financial securities, which in turn helps in the economic growth of the country. These entities provide platforms and mechanisms for trading, clearing, settlement, record keeping, storage of securities, etc. Any disruption in the operations of these institutions can adversely impact the functioning of the entire financial system. The MIIs are separate corporate entities that are in the business to earn a profit for their services. But these are also the first-line regulators in the market and have to follow strong corporate governance standards. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the main regulatory body for the capital markets in India. So, every MII in the stock market has to be registered with SEBI. The regulatory guidelines primarily include responsibilities for safeguarding the interests of the investors. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/sebi-issues-guidelines-on-internal-audit-mechanisms-for-mkt-infra-institutions/articleshow/121272207.cms?from=mdr

Answer 171

Only two Explanation : The Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation launched the new Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Portal in New Delhi recently. About Overseas Citizen of India (OCI): The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme was introduced by amending the Citizenship Act, 1955, in August 2005. Who can be an OCI? The Central Government may, subject to such conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed, on an application made in this behalf, register as an OCI a foreign national who was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after, 26th January, 1950; who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26th January, 1950; who belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15th August, 1947; who is a child or a grandchild or a great grandchild of such a citizen; who is a minor child of such persons mentioned above; who is a minor child and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India - is eligible for registration as an OCI cardholder. Besides, a spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or a spouse of foreign origin of an OCI Cardholder and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application is also eligible for registration as an OCI cardholder. However, no person who or either of whose parents or grandparents or great-grandparents is or had been a citizen of Pakistan, Bangladesh, or such other country as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify, shall be eligible for registration as an OCI Cardholder. The foreigner has to be ordinarily resident of India to be eligible to apply for OCI registration in India. 'Ordinarily resident' will mean a person staying in a particular country or in India for a continuous period of 6 months. Benefits: Multi-purpose, multiple entries, and a lifelong visa for visiting India. Exemption from foreigner registration obligation for any length of stay in India. Equivalence to NRIs in respect of economic, financial, educational fields. An exception in the matter of acquisition of agricultural and plantation properties. Equality with NRIs for intercountry adoption. Offer similar domestic airfare charges to OCI cardholders as of a resident Indian national. Equality with an Indian national for entry fees to national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. The OCI cardholder professionals have the opportunity to pursue the profession in pursuance of the provisions contained in the relevant act, such as Doctors, Dentists, Nurses, Pharmacists, Advocates, Architects and Chartered Accountants. However, these professionals are required to appear for the All India Pre-Medical test or any such other relevant test for eligibility towards admission in fulfilment of the provisions contained in the applicable act. OCI cardholder is NOT entitled to:- OCI is not to be misconstrued as 'dual citizenship'. OCI does not confer political rights to vote; to be a member of a Legislative Assembly or of a Legislative Council or of the Parliament of India; to hold Indian constitutional posts such as that of the President, Vice President, Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court etc.; He/she cannot normally hold employment in the Government; to undertake any Missionary work, Mountaineering and Journalism work without prior permission of the Govt. of India; OCI card holders shall also require Protected Area Permit (PAP)/Restricted Area Permit (RAP) to visit any place which falls within the Protected/Restricted Area notified by the Government as in the case of any other foreigner. Renunciation of OCI: If any overseas citizen of India of full age and capacity makes in the prescribed manner a declaration renouncing his overseas citizenship of India, the declaration shall be registered by the Central Government, and; upon such registration, that person shall cease to be an OCI. Where a person ceases to be an overseas citizen of India under subsection (1), every minor child of that person registered as an OCI, shall thereupon cease to be an OCI. Cancellation of registration as OCI: The Central Government may, by order, cancel the registration granted under sub-section(1) of section 7A if it is satisfied that The registration as an OCI was obtained by means of fraud, false representation, or the concealment of any material fact. The OCI has shown disaffection towards the Constitution of India as by law established. The OCI has, during any war in which India may be engaged, unlawfully traded or communicated with an enemy or been engaged in, or associated with, any business or commercial activity that was to his knowledge carried on in such a manner as to assist an enemy in that war. The OCI has, within five years after registration, been sentenced to imprisonment for a term of not less than two years. It is necessary to do so in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of India, friendly relations of India with any foreign country, or in the interests of the general public. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2129691

Answer 172

1 only Explanation : The National Investigation Agency (NIA) has recently arrested two individuals, including one alleged militant, in connection with violence in Manipur. About the National Investigation Agency (NIA) The NIA was established under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. It is the primary counter-terrorism agency of India with powers to investigate and prosecute offences affecting India's sovereignty, security, and integrity. Key Features of the NIA Jurisdiction: It applies across India and to Indian citizens abroad. It also extends to offences committed on Indian ships and aircraft, and to crimes outside India that affect Indian citizens or interests. Powers and Mandate: Can investigate Scheduled Offences listed in the Act (e.g., Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, Arms Act, Explosives Act). Can initiate investigations on orders from the Central Government when a Scheduled Offence is suspected. Can prosecute cases in Special NIA Courts. Can coordinate with state police forces. Can conduct extraterritorial operations with international legal cooperation. Headquarters: Located in New Delhi, with zonal offices in Guwahati and Jammu. Leadership: Headed by a Director-General (DG), typically a senior Indian Police Service (IPS) officer. Hence option a is the correct answer. News:NIA arrests two persons, including one alleged militant, in Manipur violence cases - The Hindu.

Answer 173

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) has launched the e-Zero FIR initiative, which automatically converts financial cybercrime complaints over ₹10 lakh into First Information Reports (FIRs). What is the e-Zero FIR Initiative? The e-Zero FIR initiative is a new mechanism where financial cybercrime complaints involving fraud above ₹10 lakh are automatically converted into FIRs if reported via the 1930 helpline or the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP). This system has been launched on a pilot basis in Delhi by the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Objective: The initiative aims to speed up investigations into large-scale cyber frauds and ensure swift action against cybercriminals. Rationale: It addresses the longstanding grievance of victims who face delays in FIR registration and difficulty recovering stolen money. Legal framework: The system is aligned with the provisions of Sections 173(1) and 1(ii) of the newly enacted Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS). The e-Crime Police Station of Delhi has been officially notified for e-FIR registration and case transfer under these legal provisions. How Does the System Work? Complaints of financial cybercrime losses above ₹10 lakh, once filed through 1930 or NCRP, will automatically trigger a Zero FIR at the e-Crime Police Station, Delhi. This Zero FIR is immediately routed to the relevant territorial cybercrime police station, based on the complainant's location. Victims are required to visit the cybercrime police station within 3 days to get the Zero FIR converted into a regular FIR. Integration of Key Platforms The process involves integration of: I4C’s National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP), Delhi Police’s e-FIR System, and National Crime Records Bureau’s (NCRB) Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS). This interlinking of databases facilitates real-time processing, auto-routing, and nationwide interoperability for cybercrime cases. About Zero FIR A Zero FIR can be registered at any police station, regardless of the place of the crime. It ensures that jurisdictional issues do not delay investigation and provides legal urgency for prompt action. Introduced following the Justice Verma Committee recommendations post the Nirbhaya case (2012), it reinforces victim-centric policing and quick redressal. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Cyber fraud complaints of over ₹10 lakh, lodged via helpline or portal, to automatically convert into FIRs - The Hindu

Answer 174

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released revised draft directions regarding investments made by Regulated Entities (REs) in Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). About Regulated Entities (REs) Regulated Entities (REs) are institutions that operate under the supervision of financial regulators like RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, etc. They are responsible for: Maintaining financial stability, Ensuring compliance with regulations, Preventing financial crimes such as fraud and money laundering. Examples include Scheduled Commercial Banks, NBFCs, Insurance Repositories, etc. What are Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)? AIFs are privately pooled investment vehicles established in India that collect capital from sophisticated Indian and foreign investors. These are regulated by SEBI under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. AIFs can be formed as LLPs, companies, trusts, or other permissible entities. They invest in a wide range of asset classes and are usually preferred by High Net-Worth Individuals (HNIs) and institutional investors

Answer 175

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : GS1, a global standards organisation, has announced that new generation QR codes will be globally implemented by 2027. What is GS1? GS1 (Global Standards One) is a non-profit international organisation that develops global data standards for efficient product identification, supply chain transparency, and consumer safety. GS1 introduced barcodes nearly 50 years ago and now operates in over 100 countries, including GS1 India. Features of the New QR Code System The next-gen QR codes will offer greater data capacity, supporting enhanced product traceability, real-time inventory management, consumer transparency, and product authentication and safety. Initially, dual codes (traditional 1D barcode + new QR code) will appear on packaging to ensure compatibility with older Point-of-Sale (POS) systems. Eventually, when retail infrastructure is fully upgraded, only the QR code will be used. What Is a Barcode? A barcode is a machine-readable visual representation of data, using a pattern of lines (1D) or dots/squares (2D). It allows quick identification of products, patients, shipments, and records. Originally developed in 1973 by George Laurer and Norman Joseph Woodland. Also known as Universal Product Code (UPC). What Is a QR Code? QR Code (Quick Response Code) is a 2D barcode that stores more data than traditional barcodes. Developed in 1994 by Masahiro Hara, QR codes store information both horizontally and vertically. Widely used in UPI payments, ticketing, supermarkets, and product authentication. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/new-generation-barcodes-to-go-live-from-2027-gs1/article69594762.ece#:~:text=The%20next%2Dgeneration%20QR%20Codes,and%20to%20protect%20consumer%20interest.

Answer 176

Ministry of Commerce and Industry Explanation : The Government of India has updated its import policy for gold and silver to align customs tariffs with trade regulations, as notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). About Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is responsible for the formulation and implementation of India’s Foreign Trade Policy (FTP). Headquartered in New Delhi, it operates through a network of 24 regional offices. Before 1991, DGFT was known as the Chief Controller of Imports & Exports (CCI&E). Post-liberalisation, it was restructured as DGFT to act as a trade facilitator. Key Functions of DGFT Implements India’s Foreign Trade Policy (Exim Policy) by issuing various schemes, licenses, and notifications. Issues the Importer Exporter Code (IEC)—a 10-digit unique code mandatory for all Indian importers and exporters. Regulates transit of goods across Indian borders as per bilateral treaties. Grants permissions for free export items listed in Schedule 2 of the export policy. Sets standard input-output norms to define the quantity of inputs allowed for the export of a specified quantity of output. Facilitates regional trade promotion, especially with neighbouring countries. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government-modifies-import-rules-on-certain-gold-silver-items/article69594175.ece#:~:text=According%20to%20the%20new%20restrictions,India%2DUAE%20free%20trade%20agreement.

Answer 177

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Countering the Supreme Court’s observation that a parliamentary statute enjoys a presumption of constitutionality, petitioners recently termed the new Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, a “creeping acquisition” of Waqf properties owned by the Muslim community. About Doctrine of Presumption of Constitutionality: It is a fundamental principle in Indian constitutional law, rooted in the respect for legislative authority and the democratic process. This doctrine posits that legislation enacted by the parliament or state legislatures is presumed to be constitutional, and the burden of proving otherwise lies on the challenger. This principle assumes that laws enacted by the legislature are inherently valid and constitutional until proven otherwise. The doctrine finds its roots in the broader jurisprudential tradition that respects the separation of powers, a foundational element of democratic governance, ensuring that each branch of government operates within its constitutionally prescribed limits. The Supreme Court of India, as the apex judicial body, has consistently underscored this doctrine in its rulings, emphasizing that courts should strive to uphold the constitutionality of statutes unless there is a clear and unequivocal breach of constitutional provisions. It serves multiple purposes in the legal system. It ensures that the legislative process is respected, recognizing that elected representatives, accountable to the public, are best positioned to understand and address societal needs through legislation. This presumption also fosters stability and predictability in the legal system, as laws remain effective and enforceable until they are conclusively declared unconstitutional by the judiciary. Moreover, it upholds the democratic ethos by preventing undue judicial interference in legislative matters, thereby maintaining a delicate balance between the powers of the legislature and the judiciary. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-asks-about-presumption-of-constitutionality-of-waqf-act-2025-petitioners-say-it-is-a-creeping-acquisition-of-waqf-assets/article69598336.ece#:~:text=Countering%20the%20Supreme%20Court's%20observation,religious%20minority%20group%20in%20India.

Answer 178

1 only Explanation : The Indian Coast Guard's (ICG) annual mission, 'Operation Olivia', helped protect a record of over 6.98 lakh Olive Ridley turtles nested at the Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha recently. About Operation Olivia: It is an important initiative of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) conducted annually from November to May. It is aimed at ensuring safe nesting grounds for Olive Ridley turtles, particularly at Gahirmatha Beach and surrounding coastal areas of Odisha. The operation involves round-the-clock patrolling, aerial surveillance, and close coordination with local stakeholders to protect the turtles during their breeding season. Since the inception of the operation, the ICG has conducted over 5,387 surface patrol sorties and 1,768 aerial surveillance missions. These measures have led to a significant decline in threats such as illegal fishing and habitat disruption. In addition to enforcement, the Coast Guard has actively collaborated with coastal communities, promoting the use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) in fishing nets and signing Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) with NGOs to support conservation education and sustainable fishing practices. This integrated approach has played a pivotal role in creating a safer and more sustainable environment for Olive Ridley turtles, whose conservation is key to maintaining marine biodiversity along India’s eastern coast. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/operation-olivia-helps-protect-6-98-lakh-olive-ridley-turtles-in-odisha-8452728

Answer 179

2 only Explanation : In Tamil Nadu’s Kunnapattu, Irula families who have lived on the land for generations face eviction and denial of rights, as nearly half remain without legal ownership or recognition. About Irula Tribe: The Irula, a Dravidian ethnic group, reside in the Nilgiri Mountains of the Western Ghats, spread across Tamil Nadu and Kerala. They are one of India’s oldest indigenous communities. They are Tamil Nadu’s second largest Adivasi community. They are classified under the “Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups” category in Tamil Nadu. They also call themselves Erlar or Poosari, while their neighbours refer to them as Eralollu, Irulas, Shikari and Pujari. Language: They speak Irula, which is related to Dravidian languages like Tamil and Kannada. Religious Beliefs: The Irula people don’t have a definite god for them. They are pantheists who make provision for the presence of spirits in humans and objects. Their main deity is a virgin goddess called Kanniamma, who is deeply associated with the cobra. Irula houses are built together in small settlements or villages called mottas. The mottas are usually situated on the edges of steep hills and are surrounded by a few dry fields, gardens, and forests or plantations. The Irula community is traditionally associated with healing, traditional medicine, and catching poisonous snakes. Cattle production is another source of income. In the forests they collect wild resources like honey, frankincense, firewood and the like. Irulas’ knowledge of snakes and snake venom is legendary. They can even locate snakes based on their tracks, smell, and droppings. They use traditional knowledge and skills to catch snakes, extract venom, and release the snakes back into the wild without harming them. The Irula Snake Catchers’ Industrial Cooperative Society is a major producer of anti-snake venom (ASV) in the country. It supplies almost 80 percent of the venom that goes into making anti-venom in India. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thenewsminute.com/tamil-nadu/no-land-papers-no-rights-irulas-in-tns-kunnapattu-struggle-for-electricity-and-shelter

Answer 180

infinite and has no beginning or end. Explanation : Eminent astrophysicist, science communicator, and Padma Vibhushan awardee Dr. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar passed away in Pune recently. Hoyle-Narlikar Theory of Gravity: Dr. Jayant Narlikar is best known for co-developing the Hoyle–Narlikar theory of gravity—an alternative to Einstein’s general relativity—and for championing the steady-state theory of the universe, a bold counterpoint to the widely accepted Big Bang model. The Hoyle–Narlikar theory offered a formulation of gravitation that synthesised Einstein’s general relativity with Mach’s principle, proposing that the inertial mass of a particle depends on the distribution of mass across the universe—an idea that challenged conventional big bang cosmology and continues to stimulate scientific debate. The theory produced evidence to support what is known as the steady-state theory of the universe. Unlike the Big Bang theory that suggests a definite beginning, and possibly an end, to the universe, the steady-state theory maintains that the universe has always been, and would continue to be, the way it is — infinite in extent, without a beginning or an end. It acknowledged an expanding universe, which was experimentally verifiable, but proposed that the universe was able to maintain a constant density by continuously creating new matter. The theory was first put forward in 1948 by British scientists Sir Hermann Bondi, Thomas Gold, and Sir Fred Hoyle. It was further developed by Hoyle to deal with problems that had arisen in connection with the alternative big-bang hypothesis. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/noted-astrophysicist-jayant-narlikar-passes-away-at-87/article69596360.ece

Answer 181

1 only Explanation : India, the world’s most populous country, suffers from widespread micronutrient deficiencies, with Vitamin D deficiency emerging as a silent epidemic. About Vitamin D: Vitamin D (also referred to as calciferol) is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in a few foods, added to others, and available as a dietary supplement. It is also produced endogenously when ultraviolet (UV) rays from sunlight strike the skin and trigger vitamin D synthesis. During periods of sunlight, vitamin D is stored in fat and then released when sunlight is not available. Very few foods have vitamin D naturally. The foods with the most are fatty fish (like salmon and tuna), liver, mushrooms, eggs, and fish oils. Kids don't eat these foods a lot. That's why food companies often "fortify" milk, yogurt, baby formula, juice, cereal, and other foods with added vitamin D. The amount of vitamin D you need each day depends on your age. Why is vitamin D so important? Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption and helps maintain adequate levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood, which is necessary for healthy bones and teeth. Without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen. Vitamin D has other roles in the body, including reduction of inflammation as well as modulation of such processes as cell growth, neuromuscular and immune function and glucose metabolism. Vitamin D Deficiency: A lack of vitamin D can lead to bone diseases such as osteoporosis or rickets. Osteoporosis is a disease in which your bones become weak and are likely to fracture (break). With chronic and/or severe vitamin D deficiency, a decline in calcium and phosphorus absorption by your intestines leads to hypocalcemia (low calcium levels in your blood). This leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism (overactive parathyroid glands attempting to keep blood calcium levels normal). Both hypocalcemia and hyperparathyroidism, if severe, can cause symptoms, including muscle weakness and cramps, fatigue, and depression. Anyone can have vitamin D deficiency, including infants, children and adults. Vitamin D deficiency may be more common in people with higher skin melanin content (darker skin) and who wear clothing with extensive skin coverage, particularly in Middle Eastern countries. Vitamin D supplements are commonly used to treat and prevent vitamin D deficiency. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/ht-insight/public-health/roadmap-to-address-vitamin-d-deficiency-in-india-101747577764035.html

Answer 182

Manipur Explanation : The 2025 edition of the festival was held after a two-year gap, caused by ethnic violence between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities in Manipur. About Shirui Lily Festival The Shirui Lily Festival is a five-day cultural and ecological festival held in the Ukhrul district of Manipur, which is dominated by the Tangkhul Naga tribe. The festival celebrates the endemic Shirui Lily (Lilium mackliniae), a rare, bluish-pink bell-shaped flower found only in the Shirui Hills, about 18 km from Ukhrul town. The flower was discovered in 1946 by English botanist Frank Kingdon-Ward and won a merit prize at the 1948 Royal Horticultural Society (RHS) show in London. In 1989, the Manipur government declared Shirui Lily as the State Flower, but it is now endangered due to tourism pressures and the invasion of an exotic bamboo species. The festival aims to raise awareness about the ecological importance of the flower and promote conservation efforts. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Manipur’s flower festival starts on thorny note - The Hindu.

Answer 183

Saturn Explanation : In November 2022 and July 2023, NASA scientists observed Saturn’s largest moon, Titan, using both the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) and the Keck Observatory. About Titan Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second-largest moon in the solar system, after Jupiter's Ganymede. It is the only known moon with a thick atmosphere and surface liquid bodies, including lakes and seas of methane and ethane. Titan exhibits Earth-like weather patterns, including clouds, rainfall, and seasonal variations. Key Findings These observations revealed the presence of clouds in the mid- and high northern latitudes of Titan that rose to higher altitudes over time, indicating convection-driven weather patterns. This marks the first-ever confirmed evidence of convective cloud activity in Titan’s northern hemisphere, where most of Titan’s hydrocarbon seas (like Kraken Mare and Ligeia Mare) are located. The findings offer fresh insights into Titan's active methane cycle, which is analogous in complexity to Earth’s hydrological cycle, but with methane and ethane instead of water. Understanding Titan's weather helps scientists better comprehend prebiotic chemistry and climate dynamics on icy moons with thick atmospheres. About Keck Observatory The W. M. Keck Observatory is located near the summit of Mauna Kea, a dormant volcano in Hawaii, at an altitude of 4,200 metres. This high elevation provides evident atmospheric conditions for astronomical observations. The observatory consists of two 10-metre telescopes, Keck I (operational since 1992) and Keck II (since 1996), making it the largest optical/infrared telescope system in the world. Each telescope has a 10-metre primary mirror composed of 36 hexagonal segments made of zero-expansion glass ceramic, which ensures thermal stability and precision imaging. These segments are adjusted in real-time by computer-controlled actuators to maintain the mirror's hyperboloid shape, enabling ultra-precise focus and light collection. A technique called stressed mirror polishing was used to shape the asymmetric off-axis segments, a breakthrough innovation in modern telescope engineering. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: James Webb Space Telescope captures ghostly images of clouds on Saturn's largest moon Titan

Answer 184

Potassium, Iron and Sulphate Explanation : A recent study by a team of researchers from India has explored jarosite samples from Kachchh, Gujarat, a region with terrain conditions similar to Mars. About Jarosite Jarosite is a yellow-brown mineral composed of potassium, iron and sulphate, commonly found in arid, saline environments. The study aimed to assess whether jarosite can act as a “natural clock” on Mars by tracking geological events through radiation-induced luminescence. Scientific Methodology and Luminescence Testing The researchers collected six jarosite vein samples from Kachchh and examined them in a lab using a process based on luminescence dating. Luminescence refers to the light emitted by minerals when they release energy stored from natural radiation over time. The process involved: Washing grains with weak acid to enhance brightness. Irradiating, heating, cooling, and repeating the cycle to analyze luminescent properties. The team observed four distinct luminescent emissions at 100°C, 150°C, 300°C, and 350°C, even after heating the samples up to 450°C, indicating thermal stability. Why Kachchh, Gujarat Was Chosen The Kachchh region in Gujarat was selected due to its extreme aridity and salinity, resembling Martian terrain conditions. This made it an ideal analog site to test the behavior of jarosite under extraterrestrial-like environments. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/jarosite-a-natural-clock-on-mars/article69596741.ece

Answer 185

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Kamalpur Nagar Panchayat in Tripura has introduced compostable bags made from PBAT as a sustainable alternative to single-use plastic (SUP). What is PBAT? PBAT (Polybutylene Adipate Terephthalate) is a biodegradable thermoplastic polymer used as an eco-friendly substitute for traditional plastics. It is a copolymer of adipic acid, 1,4-butanediol, and terephthalic acid and can be processed using conventional plastic manufacturing methods. PBAT is often blended with other biopolymers to enhance its mechanical and barrier properties. Properties of PBAT 100% compostable – breaks down into water, CO₂, and biomass under industrial composting conditions within 180 days. Flexible and tough, making it ideal for bags, films, and packaging. It is moisture-resistant, chemically inert, and offers good barrier properties.

Answer 186

Germany Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister held a telephonic conversation with Chancellor Friedrich Merz of Germany, congratulating him on assuming office. Germany's Electoral System – Key Features Germany follows a Mixed-Member Proportional Representation system, combining both majoritarian and proportional representation models. Every voter casts two votes: First vote (Erststimme): For an individual candidate under the first-past-the-post system in 299 constituencies. Second vote (Zweitstimme): For a political party list in each Länder (state) under proportional representation. Bundestag (Lower House) members are elected based on these two votes; 299 by first vote and the rest by second vote. Overhang seats arise when a party wins more seats through first votes than it deserves by proportional representation. To ensure fairness, balance seats are allocated to other parties so that the final distribution reflects proportional vote share nationally. Selection of the Chancellor in Germany German citizens do not directly elect the Chancellor; they vote for representatives who then form the Bundestag, which elects the Chancellor. Post-election, the Federal President nominates a candidate for the Chancellorship. The Bundestag votes in a secret ballot; an absolute majority is required to elect the Chancellor in the first round. If no candidate secures a majority in the first attempt: A second round is held. If still unresolved, a third round takes place, and the candidate with the highest number of votes is elected. Political Geography of Germany Germany is located in Central Europe, sharing borders with nine countries: Denmark (north), Poland and Czech Republic (east), Austria and Switzerland (south), and France, Luxembourg, Belgium, and the Netherlands (west). Bordering water bodies include the North Sea and the Baltic Sea in the north. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: Stand united in fight against terrorism: PM Modi in talks with new German Chancellor - The Hindu

Answer 187

1 only Explanation : The Prime Minister will chair a meeting with chief ministers of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha and Chhattisgarh to discuss the Polavaram project. About Polavaram Project: It is a multi-purpose irrigation project built on the Godavari River where the river emerges out of the last range of the Eastern Ghats and enters the plains. The dam will be located near Polavaram village in the West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh, an area bordering Chhattisgarh and Odisha. It was conceived in 1980 as a part of the recommendations of the Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (GWDT). It has been accorded national project status by the central government. It involves the construction of a dam to address water scarcity, boost agricultural productivity, and generate power. The span of the dam is about 1.2 km, having a pier height of 54 m and a total of 48 radial gates (16mx20m). Designed to withstand massive floods that could occur once in 1000 years, the Polavaram Spillway is set to have the highest discharge capacity in the world. At 50 lakh cusecs, it is set to surpass even the 3 Gorges Dam of China, one of the largest dams in the world. The project has set a world record by pouring 32,315.5 cubic metres of concrete into the spillway channel of the project. Objectives: It is intended for the development of a gross irrigation potential of 4,36,825 ha. The project also envisages the generation of 960 MW of hydropower and drinking water supply to a population of 28.50 lakh in 611 villages. The project also aims to transfer 80 TMC (Thousand Million Cubic Feet) of water from the Godavari to the Krishna river basin. The dam will help manage floodwaters from the Godavari River, reducing risks to nearby communities. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawada/pm-to-hold-meeting-with-cms-of-4-states-on-polavaram/articleshow/121239813.cms

Answer 188

International Mobile Equipment Identity Explanation : Telangana has emerged as the top-performing state in India for recovering stolen and lost mobile phones through the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) portal. About Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) Portal: It was developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications, to track lost or stolen mobile phones. It acts as a central database of all the mobile phones that are used and registered in India. It contains all the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) or Electronic Serial Number (ESN). IMEI is a 15-digit unique number attached to all the handsets. These numbers are attached to the registered service provider. The user can track the devices by providing the required information requested on the portal along with the IMEI and FIR copy. The CEIR shares a wide platform that supports all the network operators. It helps to receive information on the blacklisted mobile devices from the registered network to notify other networks. This helps to track the device even if the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) has changed. The following are the types of lists in the EIR database: White List: It contains all the authorised IMEI numbers that are allowed to access the network. Grey List: It contains all the authorised IMEI numbers that are kept for observation to track the number. Black List: It contains all the unauthorised IMEI numbers that are prohibited from registration in a cellular network. Objectives of CEIR: Discourage mobile theft, identify fraudulent mobile markets, and protect consumer interest. To centralise the database for identifying and blocking the lost, stolen, or illegal mobile phones/networks. To track the lost or stolen mobile phones through IMEI numbers even if the SIM cards are changed or disabled. Create an infrastructure to provide the services to track the mobile devices. Create an infrastructure to access GSMA's database to check the authentication of the mobile device. To identify duplicate IMEI numbers, cloned, reprogrammed, stolen or unauthorised devices. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.uniindia.com/news/south/telangana-mobile-recovery/3468651.html

Answer 189

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Spices Board recently announced the launch of the “Sustainability in Spice Sector through Progressive, Innovative and Collaborative Interventions for Export Development (SPICED)” scheme for the financial year 2025–26. About SPICED Scheme: Sustainability in Spice Sector through Progressive, Innovative, and Collaborative Interventions for Export Development (SPICED) is an initiative of the Spices Board, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The scheme offers financial assistance across various components, aiming to enhance sustainability, foster innovation, and promote export development in the Indian spices sector. The scheme aims to enhance the productivity of small and large cardamom, improve the quality of post-harvest processes, and encourage the production and export of value-added, GI-tagged, and organic spices. It is also focused on enabling compliance with global food safety and phytosanitary standards and boosting the capacity of stakeholders across the value chain. Features: The scheme offers support for activities such as replanting and rejuvenation of cardamom plantations, development of water resources, micro-irrigation, promotion of organic farming, and expansion of good agricultural practices (GAP). In addition, it supports the installation of improved post-harvest infrastructure, such as modern dryers, slicers, dehullers, and grading machines to ensure superior product quality. The scheme provides financial assistance to farmers and Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) to procure essential post-harvest machines such as spice polishers, turmeric boilers, mint distillation units, and threshing machines. The scheme further supports the creation of Spice Incubation Centres and promotes entrepreneurship and product development initiatives aimed at enhancing market access and branding for startups and micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). Through capacity-building efforts, including training and extension services, the scheme aims to empower spice farmers, SHGs, and FPOs with the latest technical know-how, best practices, and market intelligence. In export development and promotion, the scheme assists in participating in international trade fairs, buyer-seller meets, and other market linkage programs. While exporters with a valid Certificate of Registration as Exporter of Spices (CRES) are eligible for assistance under these programs, preference will be given to first-time applicants, Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs), etc. Scheme activities will be geo-tagged, and fund availability, status of applications under different components, list of beneficiaries, etc., will be published on the board's website for better transparency. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/india-unveils-spiced-scheme-to-promote-sustainable-value-added-spice-exports/article69601220.ece

Answer 190

Harmony with nature and sustainable development Explanation : To raise a reminder of the pressing need to take action and protect biodiversity, International Day for Biological Diversity is commemorated on May 22 every year. About International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB): Celebrated each year on May 22, IDB aims to increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity issues. IDB 2025 Theme: This year’s theme “Harmony with nature and sustainable development", highlights how this campaign for nature connects with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The IDB 2025 seeks to focus the world’s attention on the linkages between the 2030 Agenda and its SDGs and the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), as two universal agendas must advance together as they support the recently adopted Pact for the Future. History of IDB: The United Nations has proclaimed May 22 as the IDB to increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity issues. When first created by the Second Committee of the UN General Assembly in late 1993, 29 December (the date of entry into force of the Convention of Biological Diversity), was designated IDB. In December 2000, the UN General Assembly adopted 22 May as IDB, to commemorate the adoption of the text of the Convention on 22 May 1992 by the Nairobi Final Act of the Conference for the Adoption of the Agreed Text of the Convention on Biological Diversity. This was partly done because it was difficult for many countries to plan and carry out suitable celebrations for the date of 29 December, given the number of holidays that coincide around that time of year. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.news18.com/amp/lifestyle/international-day-for-biological-diversity-2025-theme-history-and-significance-ws-el-9336680.html

Answer 191

1 only Explanation : Banu Mushtaq, an Indian writer, lawyer, and activist, has become the first author writing in Kannada to win the prestigious International Booker Prize for her short story collection Heart Lamp. About International Booker Prize: The prize, which is awarded annually, celebrates the best works of long-form fiction or collections of short stories translated into English and published in the UK and/or Ireland. History: It was founded in 2005 as a biennial award recognising an author’s contribution to world literature. At the time there were no requirements that the book be published in a language other than English. The rules changed in 2015, and it is now awarded annually for a work of fiction that is originally written in another language and then translated into English. Any nationality is eligible, as long as the work is translated into English. It recognises the vital work of translators, with the £50,000 prize money divided equally between authors and translators. In addition, shortlisted authors and translators each receive £2,500. Administered By: The Booker Prize Foundation. International Booker Prize 2025: Heart Lamp by Banu Mushtaq, translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, is the winner of the 2025 prize. The winning book is the first collection of short stories to be awarded the prize, and the first winner originally written in Kannada. Spanning stories written between 1990 and 2023, Heart Lamp is a portrayal of the struggles faced by Muslim women in southern India. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/banu-mishtaq-heart-lamp-who-is-banu-mushtaq-kannada-writer-who-won-the-international-booker-prize-8469540

Answer 192

It is a replica of a 5th-century stitched ship based on depictions in Ajanta cave paintings Explanation : The Indian Navy has inducted the INSV Kaundinya, a reconstructed 5th-century stitched ship based on depictions found in the Ajanta Cave paintings. About INSV Kaundinya This initiative was launched in July 2023 under a tripartite agreement involving the Ministry of Culture, the Indian Navy and Hodi Innovations. The Ministry of Culture funded the ship as a symbol of India’s ancient shipbuilding tradition and to promote maritime heritage awareness. INSV Kaundinya is scheduled to sail along the ancient maritime trade route from Gujarat to Oman later in 2025. Traditional Shipbuilding Techniques The ship was constructed using ancient “stitched ship” techniques, where wooden planks are joined using coir ropes, coconut fibres, and natural resin, without metal nails. The design was based on a 5th-century maritime scene depicted in the Ajanta mural paintings. As there are no surviving blueprints, the design process involved interpreting 2D artistic representations through archaeological, naval architectural, and hydrodynamic analysis. Symbolism and Cultural Integration The sails feature motifs such as the ‘Gandabherunda’ (mythical two-headed eagle) and the Sun, symbolizing strength and vitality. The bow is adorned with a ‘Simha Yali’ (mythical lion-like figure), reflecting traditional South Indian maritime iconography. A Harappan-style stone anchor on the deck connects the ship to India’s Indus Valley maritime legacy. Named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian sailor who reached Southeast Asia, the ship highlights India’s role in ancient transoceanic trade and cultural exchange. About Ajanta Paintings The Ajanta Caves, located in Maharashtra, date from the 2nd century BCE to the 6th century CE, and are among the earliest surviving examples of Indian mural art. The paintings follow the tempera technique (painting on dry plaster with pigments), using vegetable and mineral dyes like red ochre, black, and brown. The murals focus on Buddhist themes, such as the Jataka Tales, life of the Buddha, and Avadanas, often interwoven with nature motifs and decorative patterns. Figures are depicted with heavy proportions, expressive gestures, and distinctive hairstyles, showcasing emotional depth and spiritual symbolism. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Navy recreates stitched ship based on 5th century Ajanta paintings - The Hindu.

Answer 193

1 only Explanation : A team of researchers from Justus Liebig University Giessen (Germany), New Zealand’s Department of Conservation, Kakapo Recovery, and the University of Otago have successfully implemented artificial insemination (AI) to help breed the critically endangered Kākāpō. About Kakapo (Strigops habroptilus) The Kakapo is the largest flightless parrot in the world, native to New Zealand. It is nocturnal, herbivorous, and the only lek-breeding parrot species, meaning males gather to perform mating displays at specific sites. It is named for its owl-like face, with moss-green plumage mottled with yellow and black, grey bill, and grey legs with pale soles. The Kakapo reproduces infrequently, only breeding in years when certain native fruits, such as rimu berries, are abundant. Lek-breeding behaviour includes the digging of bowl-shaped depressions in the ground, which help amplify mating calls across long distances. Threats to Survival The species faces multiple threats: Predation by invasive mammals (rats, stoats, weasels) introduced by European settlers. Infertility issues and high embryo mortality have severely restricted population growth. Susceptibility to diseases such as aspergillosis, a dangerous fungal infection. Due to these pressures, the Kakapo is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-artificial-insemination-endangered-parrot-zealand.html

Answer 194

It sublimates instead of melting at normal pressure Explanation : Scientists have for the first time observed the atomic structure of liquid carbon using the high-power DIPOLE 100-X laser and ultrashort X-ray pulses from the European XFEL (X-ray Free Electron Laser) in Germany. About Liquid Carbon Liquid carbon refers to carbon in a liquid state, which is not naturally stable under normal temperature and pressure conditions. Carbon typically exists in solid forms like graphite, diamond, or as gas (CO₂) when oxidised. Liquid carbon is a transient phase, and its study is important for understanding: Planetary core compositions (e.g., carbon-rich exoplanets), High-energy astrophysical processes, And high-temperature material behaviour in laser-material interactions and nuclear science. Why Liquid Carbon Is Hard to Study Carbon does not melt under normal pressure; it transitions directly from solid to gas (sublimation), making lab-based liquid-phase studies almost impossible. Liquid carbon only forms under extreme conditions: Temperatures ~4500°C, Very high pressures, Conditions that no conventional container can withstand. Thus, laser-driven compression was employed to briefly liquefy solid carbon for nanoseconds, enabling real-time measurement. Experimental Technique and Innovation The DIPOLE 100-X laser was used to generate compression waves through the carbon sample, converting it to the liquid state for a billionth of a second. During this fleeting moment, the European XFEL’s ultrashort X-ray pulse was used to irradiate the sample, causing the X-ray light to diffract off atoms. The resulting diffraction pattern revealed the atomic arrangement of liquid carbon. Multiple iterations of the experiment with varying delays and conditions were used to create a step-by-step "movie" of the solid-to-liquid transition. Major Findings of the Study Liquid carbon has a water-like structure, with four nearest atomic neighbours, resembling the structure of solid diamond. The experiment confirmed earlier theoretical simulations and helped to precisely determine the melting point of carbon under high pressure. These insights are important for: Planetary science, as liquid carbon exists in the interiors of planets. Nuclear fusion technology, where carbon-based materials are often involved under extreme conditions. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-liquid-carbon.html

Answer 195

CNES Explanation : In a scientific first, NASA and Virginia Tech researchers successfully measured the speed and height of flood waves on U.S. rivers using SWOT satellite data. About SWOT Satellite The Surface Water and Ocean Topography (SWOT) satellite, launched in 2022, is a joint mission of NASA and CNES (French Space Agency). It uses a specialised instrument called the Ka-band Radar Interferometer (KaRIn) to measure the height, width, and elevation of surface water bodies such as rivers, lakes, reservoirs, and oceans. SWOT offers high spatial resolution by bouncing microwaves off water surfaces and calculating return time, allowing dynamic water movement tracking. The satellite covers over 55% of large-scale global floods during their lifecycle through frequent Earth orbits. What Are River Waves and Why Do They Matter River waves, also referred to as flood or flow waves, are temporary surges in water flow typically caused by intense rainfall, snowmelt, ice jams, or dam breaches. Unlike ocean waves driven by wind and tides, river waves are transient, unsteady phenomena that can stretch for tens to hundreds of kilometers. These waves play a crucial ecological role by transporting nutrients and organisms, but also pose flood risks to downstream populations. Previously, such large-scale waves could only be detected locally by ground stream gauges, which are sparse in many global regions. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-swot-satellite-large-scale-river.html

Answer 196

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Researchers at Rutgers University–New Brunswick have discovered a new class of materials called intercrystals, which possess unique electronic properties that could drive future technologies. What are Intercrystals? Intercrystals are created by stacking two layers of twisted graphene atop hexagonal boron nitride (h-BN), resulting in moiré patterns that significantly alter electron behaviour. The material is based on the principle of “twistronics”, where ultrathin atomic layers are rotated at small angles to form moiré superlattices. The misalignment of layers causes new electronic phases, not found in regular crystals. This approach builds upon earlier work by the same team, who in 2009 first showed that twisted graphene displays unusual electronic properties. Structural Properties of Intercrystals Regular crystals possess repeating atomic arrangements and show symmetry under specific translations or rotations. Quasicrystals, discovered in 1982, are ordered but non-repeating, defying traditional crystallography. Intercrystals combine traits of both: They exhibit non-repeating atomic patterns (like quasicrystals), But retain certain crystalline symmetries. The structure creates geometric frustration, enabling new quantum phases. Unique Electronic Characteristics In intercrystals, electronic properties change dramatically with minor structural variations, unlike conventional materials. These materials exhibit novel quantum behaviours, including: Superconductivity (zero-resistance current), Magnetism, and other quantum electronic states. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-intercrystals-pave-greener-electronics-quantum.html

Answer 197

Pir Panjal and Zanskar Explanation : One soldier was killed in a major anti-terror operation by security forces against a group of terrorists hiding in the Chenab Valley’s Kishtwar district recently. About Chenab Valley: The Chenab Valley, otherwise called the Chenab Region, is the river valley of the Chenab River moving through the Kishtwar, Doda, and Ramban locale of Jammu Division in Jammu and Kashmir. It is the eastern region of Jammu and Kashmir. To the north lies the majestic Pir Panjal range and to the south, the Zanskar range. Deep gorges, lush meadows, and cascading rivers form a beautiful landscape that defines the Chenab Valley. It covers an area of 11,885 sq.km. The people of Chenab Valley are referred to as “Chenabis” or simply “Chenabi“. The region is a mosaic of ethnic groups, with multiple languages spoken, including Kashmiri, Gojri, Bhaderwahi, Sarazi, Kishtwari, and Padari. It is home to several tourist attractions, such as Bhaderwah, Jai Valley, Padri Pass, Sinthan Top, Lal Draman, and Jantroon Dhar. Its hydroelectric potential is harnessed by significant dams like Baglihar Dam, Dulhasti Dam, and Salal Dam. The region is traversed by National Highway 244. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/search-operation-underway-in-jks-kishtwar/article69604727.ece

Answer 198

Karnataka Explanation : Members of 52 Jenu Kuruba tribal families inside the Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (NTR) in Ponnampet taluk of Kodagu district recently put up a board in their haadi (hamlet) claiming land rights under the Forest Rights Act (FRA). About Nagarhole Tiger Reserve: It is situated in the districts of Mysore and Kodagu in Karnataka. It is located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Geographically, it is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats. The reserve is named after a small river, ‘Nagarahole’ (literally a snake stream in Kannada), which meanders within the habitat before joining the river Kabini. It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is flanked by the Bandipur Tiger Reserve on its southeastern side and the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary of Kerala on the southwest. Rivers: It is surrounded by the River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south. Vegetation: The dry eastern limits of the reserve has dry deciduous forests. Towards the west, with the increase in rainfall, the vegetation changes to tropical moist and semi-evergreen forests. The forests are interspersed with swampy fallows called ‘hadlu’, which are dominated by grasses and sedges, favoured by wild herbivores. Flora: It includes rosewood, Indian kino tree, sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo, giant clumping bamboo, etc. Fauna: It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia. It comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole, four-horned antelope, etc. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mysuru/jenu-kuruba-families-claim-land-rights-in-tiger-reserve/articleshow/121298813.cms

Answer 199

1 only Explanation : Chinese scientists have discovered a new species of bacteria named Niallia tiangongensis on board the Tiangong Space Station. About Tiangong Space Station: The Tiangong Space Station, translating to ‘Sky Palace’, is a Chinese-owned and operated permanently crewed space station in Low Earth Orbit (LEO). It represents the third and final step of China’s Manned Space Program. The first module of the space station was launched in April 2021, following two precursor missions, Tiangong-1 and Tiangong-2. The station consists of a core module known as Tianhe, which connects two science modules, Wentian and Mengtian, as well as a planned space telescope module, Xuntian. Tiangong is much smaller than the International Space Station (ISS), with only three modules compared with 16 modules on the ISS. Tiangong is also considerably lighter than the ISS, which weighs about 400 tons (450 metric tons); the Chinese station is about 20% as massive. It can accommodate up to three astronauts at a time for six-month stays. It can also support six astronauts at a time during crew handovers. The aims of the Tiangong Space Station are to: Build a long-term, reliable space station in orbit. Guarantee the long-term health and safety of stationed astronauts. Provide conditions for scientific and technological experiments in space. The station serves as an in-orbit laboratory with 23 enclosed experiment racks, each covering a different proposed experiment in the fields of: Space life sciences and biotechnology Microgravity fluid physics and combustion Material science in space Fundamental physics in microgravity The space station also features platforms for exposed and unpressurised external experiments. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/chinese-scientists-discover-mysterious-bacteria-on-tiangong-space-station-8476161

Answer 200

Indian Ocean Explanation : India recently welcomed the UK's decision to hand over the sovereignty of Chagos Islands including tropical atoll of Diego Garcia to Mauritius under a historic deal. About Chagos Islands: It is an island group located in the central Indian Ocean. It is about 1,000 miles (1,600 km) south of the southern tip of the Indian subcontinent. It is an overseas territory of the United Kingdom that was established on November 8, 1965. The principal islands in the archipelago include the Diego Garcia atoll, Danger Island, Egmont Islands, Eagle Islands, Nelsons Island, Peros Banhos atoll, Three Brothers Islands, and the Solomon Islands. Diego Garcia covers an area of about 30 sq.km. and is the largest and the most southerly island of the Chagos Archipelago. Diego Garcia houses a strategic US military base. The islands feature flat and low terrain, and most areas of the islands do not exceed more than 2 m in elevation. There are no rivers and lakes on the islands. Climate: It experiences a tropical marine climate with high temperatures and elevated humidity levels. The island’s climate is heavily moderated by the trade winds which blow over the islands. History: The archipelago’s first inhabitants, primarily enslaved people from Madagascar and Mozambique, were forcibly brought to the islands by French enslavers, to work on coconut plantations. Centuries later, they had unshackled themselves from slavery and became Chagossians, an indigenous people with a distinct language and culture. In 1965, the British convinced Mauritian nationalist politicians to give up their claim to the Chagos Islands in exchange for independence. In 1966, Chagos became the ’British Indian Ocean Territory‘ (BIOT) and was denied any claim to independence. This led to the removal of the peoples living there, most of whom relocated to Mauritius. The UK made an agreement with the United States to host a military base in the islands for Indian Ocean defenses. Mauritius, which gained independence from Britain in 1968, has consistently maintained its claim over the Chagos Islands. In 2019, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) dismissed the UK's right to govern the Chagos Islands and called on its government to withdraw from the archipelago. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/india-welcomes-uks-decision-to-hand-over-chagos-islands-to-mauritius-8483293

Answer 201

1 only Explanation : The Self Reliant India (SRI) Fund scheme, which supports MSMEs with equity infusion, has invested around Rs 10,979 crore in 577 MSMEs as of March 2025 since its launch. About Self Reliant India (SRI) Fund Scheme: The Self Reliant India (SRI) Fund has been set up to infuse Rs. 50,000 crore as equity funding in those MSMEs which have the potential and viability to grow and become large units. Under this fund of Rs. 50,000 crore, there is a provision of Rs. 10,000 Crore from the Government of India and Rs. 40,000 Crore through Private Equity/Venture Capital funds. SRI fund operates through a mother-fund and daughter-fund structure for equity or quasi-equity investments. The SRI Fund is being implemented by NSIC Venture Capital Fund Limited (NVCFL), which is an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) of Category II registered with SEBI. SRI fund is oriented to provide the funding support through NVCFL to the Daughter Funds for onward provision to MSMEs as growth capital, in the form of equity or quasi-equity, for the following: Enhancing equity/equity-like financing to MSMEs and listing of MSMEs on stock exchanges. Supporting faster growth of MSME businesses and thereby ignite the economy and create employment opportunities. Supporting enterprises which have the potential to graduate beyond the MASME bracket and become National/International Champions. Supporting MSSMEs, which help make India self-reliant by producing relevant technologies, goods, and services. The Daughter Funds shall invest at least 5 times the amount of capital contribution received from SRI Fund (net of fees and expenses) in MSMEs, covered under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/sme-govts-equity-infusion-scheme-for-msmes-crosses-rs-10000-crore-in-investments-msme-min-3853954/

Answer 202

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, under the PM E-Drive, ₹2,000 crore is allocated to set up 72,000 public EV charging stations across India. About PM E-DRIVE Scheme The PM E-DRIVE (Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement) scheme is a flagship initiative launched to accelerate electric mobility in India through demand incentives and charging infrastructure support. It aims to reduce transport-related carbon emissions, improve air quality, and enhance energy security by decreasing fossil fuel dependency. The scheme has a total financial outlay of ₹10,900 crore and will be implemented from 2024 to 2026. Key Objectives and Scope To promote the adoption of EVs by supporting the purchase of electric vehicles (e-2Ws, e-3Ws, e-buses, e-ambulances, and e-trucks). To deploy a robust national EV charging grid to reduce range anxiety and ensure seamless mobility across cities and highways. To provide direct demand incentives through Aadhaar-authenticated e-vouchers sent to the buyer’s mobile number after EV purchase. BHEL as Nodal Agency Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is being considered the nodal agency for: Demand aggregation for charging infrastructure. Development of a Unified EV Super App for users across India. The app will offer real-time charger availability, slot booking, payment integration, and deployment progress tracking, ensuring digital ease-of-use for all EV stakeholders. Hence both statements are correct. News: India Accelerates National EV Charging Grid under PM E-Drive

Answer 203

Ministry of Earth Sciences Explanation : Recently, the Union Earth Sciences Minister inaugurated "Sagar Bhavan" and "Polar Bhavan" at the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa. About National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) Established in 1998 as an autonomous R&D institute, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Formerly known as the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR). Location: Vasco da Gama, Goa. Mandate and Functions Nodal agency for Planning and executing polar expeditions in the Antarctic, Arctic, Southern Ocean, and Himalayas. Coordinating scientific research and logistics in polar and oceanic domains. Also works on strategically vital projects like: Mapping of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), Continental shelf surveys, and the Deep Ocean Mission. Maintains a Research Advisory Committee (RAC) for scientific guidance. About Polar Bhavan and Sagar Bhavan Polar Bhavan, the largest facility on the NCPOR campus, covers 11,378 sq. m and was built at a cost of ₹55 crore. It includes state-of-the-art laboratories, 55 rooms for scientists, conference halls, a library, and the new Science on Sphere (SOS) 3D earth systems visualisation platform. It will house India’s first Polar and Ocean Museum for public scientific outreach. Sagar Bhavan spans 1,772 sq. m and costs ₹13 crore. It includes two -30°C ice core laboratories, +4°C storage units for archiving sediment and biological samples, and a Class 1000 metal-free clean room for trace metal and isotope analysis. India’s Expanding Polar Footprint NCPOR maintains India’s research presence in: Antarctica (Stations: Maitri and Bharati), Arctic (Station: Himadri), and Himalayas (Station: Himansh). India’s Arctic Policy (2022) and Indian Antarctic Act (2022) were cited as key legislative frameworks for science-led and environmentally responsible polar engagement, aligned with international obligations. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2130549

Answer 204

Charaka Explanation : The Vice-President of India addressed a gathering during the unveiling of statues of Charaka and Sushruta at Raj Bhavan, Goa. About Charaka and Charaka Samhita Charaka, a court physician during the Kushan period, is considered the Father of Medicine in India. He revised the ancient Agnivesha Samhita into what became the Charaka Samhita, a foundational text of Ayurveda. Charaka Samhita covers topics such as physiology, diagnosis, prevention, and internal medicine. The text is part of the Bṛhat-Trayi (Great Trilogy) of Ayurveda, alongside the Sushruta Samhita and Ashtanga Hridaya. The Charaka Samhita was later expanded by Dṛḍhabala, making it an encyclopaedic treatise. Charaka emphasised ethics in medicine, highlighting the importance of physician conduct, diet, and preventive care. It remained authoritative for over two millennia, and was translated into Arabic, Latin, and other foreign languages, showing its global medical relevance. About Sushruta Sushruta, dating back to the 7th century BCE, is revered as the Father of Surgery and possibly the world’s first documented surgeon. He authored the Sushruta Samhita, which elaborates on over 300 surgical procedures, 120 surgical instruments, and various types of fractures and dislocations. Innovations include rhinoplasty (nasal reconstruction), skin grafting, cataract surgery, and caesarean sections. The Sushruta Samhita also integrates anatomical knowledge, surgical training, patient care, hygiene, and scientific observation. Sushruta’s teachings display principles of evidence-based medicine, centuries before modern systems emerged. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2130490

Answer 205

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : According to the CDC (USA), the prevalence of autism has risen from 1 in 36 children (2020) to 1 in 31 (2022). About Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition caused by differences in brain development, affecting communication, social interaction, behaviour, and learning patterns. Symptoms of ASD typically appear before the age of 3 years, though diagnosis is often delayed, particularly in low-awareness settings. People with ASD may display repetitive behaviours, narrow interests, and may have unusual learning styles or motor skills. Causes ASD is not caused by a single factor. It results from a complex interaction of genetic and environmental influences. Genetics plays a strong role, with studies showing heritability estimates of up to 91% (Tick et al., JAMA, 2016). Environmental contributors such as advanced parental age, prenatal exposure to air pollutants, and maternal health are being studied, but no single environmental toxin has been conclusively proven to cause autism. Vaccines do not cause autism. This claim stems from a discredited study, and continued misinformation can lead to dangerous vaccine hesitancy. Hence both statements are correct. News: On U.S. Health Secretary RFK Jr.’s autism research push: what is actually needed for autism care? - The Hindu.

Answer 206

Vaigai River Explanation : The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has asked Amarnath Ramakrishna, the archaeologist who led the Keezhadi excavations, to resubmit his excavation report after revisions. About Keezhadi Excavation The Keezhadi excavation site is located near Madurai in Tamil Nadu, along the Vaigai River. It is a major urban Sangam-era settlement, estimated to date between the 5th century BCE and the 3rd century CE. It represents one of the most significant archaeological findings in Tamil Nadu since the Adichanallur site. Excavations reveal an urban, literate, and craft-oriented society, suggesting early urbanisation in South India independent of North Indian influences. Sangam Period The term ‘Sangam’ is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Sangha’, meaning an assembly or association, and refers to Tamil literary academies under the Pandya kings. Sangam literature provides vital insights into ancient Tamil society, covering aspects like governance, economy, trade, war, social life, and agriculture. Key texts include: Tolkappiyam (oldest Tamil grammar), Pattupattu (Ten Idylls), Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies), Padinenkilkanakku (Eighteen Minor Works), The three great epics (Silappadikaram, Manimekalai, and Civaka Cintamani). Hence option b is the correct answer. News: ASI asks archaeologist Amarnath Ramakrishna to rewrite his report on Keezhadi excavations - The Hindu

Answer 207

Rajasthan Explanation : Known as the 'paradise of birds', Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan is also emerging as a sanctuary for turtles, offering shelter to eight out of 10 species found in the state. About Keoladeo National Park: Keoladeo National Park, popularly known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is located in Bharatpur in Rajasthan. It was founded in the late 19th century as a hunting preserve by Suraj Mal, the maharaja of the Bharatpur princely state, and became a bird sanctuary in 1956. Declared a national park in 1981, it was renamed Keoladeo for the ancient temple in the park dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva. It has an area of 29 sq.km. Woodlands, swamps, and wet grasslands cover a large part of the park. It is a Ramsar site and also a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway. It is home to more than 360 species of permanent and migratory birds. During the annual period of migratory visitors (about October to March), birds from throughout the world can be found in the park. Among those wintering in the park are waterfowl from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China, and Siberia, including species such as gadwalls, shovellers, common teals, tufted ducks, pintails, white spoonbills, Asian open-billed storks, Oriental ibises, and the rare Siberian crane. Vegetation: The vegetation here is of a dry deciduous type, with medium-sized trees and shrubs found inside its forest. Flora: Some of the trees which can be commonly spotted inside the park are kadam, jamun, babul, kandi, ber, kair, and piloo. Fauna: The park is also home to a range of mammals and reptiles—including pythons and other snakes, deer, sambars, blackbucks, jackals, monitor lizards, and fishing cat. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!offbeat/on-world-turtle-day-discover-keoladeo-national-park-rajasthans-turtle-paradise-enn25052303308

Answer 208

1 only Explanation : India has formally assumed the Chairmanship of the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) for the 2025-26 term during the ongoing 67th Session of the Governing Body Meeting of the organisation. About Asian Productivity Organisation (APO): It is a regional intergovernmental organization established in 1961 to increase productivity in the Asia-Pacific region through mutual cooperation. The APO contributes to the sustainable socioeconomic development of the region through policy advisory services, acting as a think tank, and undertaking smart initiatives in the industry, agriculture, service, and public sectors. The APO is shaping the future of the region by assisting member economies in formulating national strategies for enhanced productivity and through a range of institutional capacity-building efforts, including research and centers of excellence in members. It is nonpolitical, nonprofit, and nondiscriminatory. APO membership is open to countries in Asia and the Pacific that are members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP). The current membership is 21 economies, comprising Bangladesh, Cambodia, Republic of China, Fiji, Hong Kong, India, Indonesia, Islamic Republic of Iran, Japan, Republic of Korea, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Türkiye, and Vietnam. India is a founding member of APO. These countries/economies support each other in their productivity drives in a spirit of mutual cooperation by sharing knowledge, information, and experience and coordinate with the APO through the designated national productivity organizations (NPOs). Headquarters: Tokyo, Japan Organisational Structure: APO is composed of the governing body, the NPOs, and the secretariat, which is headed by a secretary-general. The Governing Body is the APO's highest decision-making authority and meets annually to set the organisation's strategic direction, approve major proposals, and review Secretariat performance. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-assumes-chairmanship-of-asian-productivity-organization-for-2025-26/

Answer 209

2 only Explanation : The Chamber of Commerce and Industry of India (CCI India) recently said Bharat Seva Kendra (BRK) is helping to bridge the urban-rural divide by bringing essential services at the doorstep of every citizen. About Bharat Seva Kendra (BSK): It is a nationwide initiative launched by the Chamber of Commerce and Industry (CCI) of India. It is aimed at providing various government services and benefits to villagers in India. These centers serve as a one-stop solution for accessing government schemes, services, and information in rural areas. Designed as a grassroots movement, BSK is backed by a network of 2.5 lakh sarpanches and 6.5 lakh BSK Sarthis. These individuals will act as on-ground facilitators, linking rural citizens directly with welfare schemes related to financial aid, healthcare, education, employment, digital empowerment, and agriculture. At the core of the initiative is the goal of cutting down bureaucratic delays by offering a single-window platform for government programs. A key feature of BSK is its emphasis on digital inclusion. Equipped with modern infrastructure, these centers offer digital literacy programs, enabling villagers to interact with technology and avail themselves of e-governance services seamlessly. By working closely with both central and state governments, BSK aims to streamline service delivery and eliminate the barriers that often prevent rural citizens from benefiting from welfare schemes. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/bharat-seva-kendra-bridging-urban-rural-divide-cci-india/article69612006.ece

Answer 210

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A large team of astronomers and astrophysicists affiliated with several institutions in China recently discovered a binary star system, where one of the stars is a millisecond pulsar and the other is made mostly of helium. About Binary Star System: A binary star is a system of two gravitationally bound stars that orbit a common center of mass called a barycenter. Stars in a binary system do not necessarily have the same mass, size, or brightness. The larger star of a binary couple is called the primary star, while the smaller one is known as the secondary star or the companion star. Binary stars are double stars, but not all double stars are binary stars. This is because some double stars comprise two stars close enough in the sky over Earth to appear as a single point of light, but they are actually vastly separated in space and not part of a gravitationally bound binary system–these are called optical doubles. Unlike the sun, the vast majority of stars have a binary partner. It is estimated that around 85% of stars exist in binary star systems or systems with three or more stars. Binary star systems can also include systems containing a normal star and a stellar remnant, an object that forms when a star runs out of the fuel for nuclear fusion and collapses under its own gravity. These dense and compact star "corpses" can include white dwarfs, neutron stars, and black holes. Especially ancient binary systems can contain two stellar remnants orbiting each other. In some binary systems, the stars are so close together that they exchange material. This mass transfer occurs when the radius of one star is not much smaller than the orbital separation between the stars. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-binary-star-millisecond-pulsar-helium.html

Answer 211

Only one Explanation : Infectious animal diseases are spreading to previously unaffected regions and species, with nearly half (47 percent) capable of zoonotic transmission according to the inaugural State of the World’s Animal Health report released by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) recently. About State of the World’s Animal Health Report: It is released by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH). It provides the first comprehensive review of animal disease trends, risks, and challenges, from the uptake and availability of vaccines to the use of antibiotics in animals. Highlights of the Report: Infectious animal diseases are spreading to previously unaffected regions and species, with nearly half (47 percent) capable of zoonotic transmission. Bird flu, or high pathogenicity avian influenza (HPAI), which has caused the culling or loss of more than 630 million birds in the last two decades, was one of several animal diseases to affect new areas last year. Peste des petits ruminants (PPR), which has traditionally affected sheep and goats in developing countries, has re-emerged in Europe while African swine fever (ASF) reached Sri Lanka, travelling more than 1,800 km from the nearest outbreaks. In 2024, there were a further 3,517 cases of Bluetongue, an insect-borne virus that spreads among livestock, in 23 countries, while Germany experienced its first outbreak of foot-and-mouth disease since 1988. In Mexico, vets reported the first case of New World screwworm, a parasitic fly whose larvae eat the flesh of warm-blooded animals. The disease has also re-emerged in Nicaragua. Almost half of the WOAH-listed diseases notified to WOAH between 2005 and 2023 were considered a threat to human health with zoonotic, or animal-to-human infection, potential. The report cited climate change and increased trade among the factors influencing the spread and prevalence of animal diseases. Many are preventable through a combination of vaccination, improved hygiene, and biosecurity measures, but the report noted that access to animal vaccines remains uneven around the world. The report also emphasised the importance of disease prevention for reducing the need for antibiotic treatment and limiting the development of drug-resistant diseases. By 2050, antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is projected to cause livestock losses that jeopardise the food security of two billion people and result in a US$ 100 trillion economic loss if urgent action is not taken. Antimicrobial use, including antibiotics, in animals fell five percent between 2020 and 2022, with use in Europe seeing the biggest decline of 23 percent, followed by Africa at 20 percent. However, one in five countries continues to use antimicrobials as growth promoters, which is discouraged by WOAH. Hence option a is the correct answer. News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/animal-diseases-spreading-to-new-regions-nearly-half-pose-threat-to-humans-woah-report

Answer 212

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A recent study published in Science Advances by Duke University has uncovered distinctive geochemical properties of lithium-rich brines found in salt pans (salars) in South America and Asia. About Lithium Lithium is a lightweight, silvery-white alkali metal with the lowest density among metals. It reacts vigorously with water and makes alloys with aluminium and magnesium, enhancing material strength and reducing weight—ideal for aerospace and battery technologies. Lithium, also known as “white gold”, is a critical mineral essential for the renewable energy sector, especially in the production of electric vehicle (EV) batteries and energy storage systems. Around 40% of global lithium supply is derived from evaporative brine mining in salt flats (salars) of the central Andes (Chile, Argentina, Bolivia—“Lithium Triangle”) and the Tibetan Plateau. Key Findings The study focused on Salar de Uyuni in Bolivia, the world’s largest lithium brine reserve, located in a high-altitude arid region. It was found that, unlike seawater, where carbonate molecules dominate pH regulation, the pH of these brines is controlled almost entirely by boron compounds. Boron, present in the form of boric acid and borates, was found to determine the pH and alkalinity of natural brines. During brine evaporation in mining ponds: The concentration of boron increases. Boric acid breaks down, releasing hydrogen ions, which lowers the pH and makes the brine highly acidic. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-unique-chemistry-critical-lithium-deposits.html

Answer 213

amphipod crustacean Explanation : New findings reveal that the rare giant shrimp gigantea is widespread, occurring in 59% of the world’s oceans. About Alicella gigantea Alicella gigantea is a giant amphipod crustacean that can grow up to 34 cm in length, making it one of the largest deep-sea amphipods ever recorded. It was long considered extremely rare, with few sightings since its discovery. A major early sighting involved a 28 cm specimen at 5,304 m depth in the North Pacific, but it remained unidentified for years. Taxonomy and Habitat Amphipods are shrimp-like crustaceans with over 10,000 known species, commonly found in a wide range of aquatic environments. A. gigantea thrives in deep-sea zones, including: Abyssal depths (3,000–6,000 m), and Hadal zones (>6,000 m). It was found at depths up to 6,746 m in areas such as the Murray Fracture Zone in the North Pacific. Global Distribution and Dataset The new research compiled 195 records of A. gigantea from 75 locations across the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans, covering 15 different seafloor features. This data establishes A. gigantea as a globally distributed species, not a localised rarity. The Pacific Ocean emerged as the species’ most significant habitat, with 75% of its seafloor area falling within the suitable depth range for the species. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-05-rare-giant-shrimp-widespread-previously.html#google_vignette

Answer 214

Department of Science and Technology Explanation : Research scholars across India have raised concerns over non-receipt of INSPIRE fellowships funded by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) for periods ranging from 8 to 13 months. About INSPIRE Scheme The INSPIRE Scheme (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research) is a flagship initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology. It was launched in 2008 with a vision to build a critical human resource base that can strengthen India’s Science & Technology and R&D ecosystem. Unlike competitive scholarship schemes, INSPIRE does not conduct any entrance examinations. It instead relies on merit-based identification through existing academic performance metrics. What is the INSPIRE Fellowship? The INSPIRE Fellowship is a component of the DST’s INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research) scheme, launched in 2008 to promote research careers in basic sciences. The scheme aims to nurture talent and attract top-performing students to scientific research rather than more lucrative careers in engineering, IT, or finance. Annually, about 1,000 scholars are selected for the fellowship based on academic merit and the quality of their research proposals. Eligibility for INSPIRE Fellowship Must be a first-rank holder in postgraduate courses in science, applied sciences, or engineering, OR An INSPIRE scholar with at least 70% aggregate marks through UG and PG and previously in the top 1% of Class XII board exams or top performers in national level exams like IIT-JEE. A screening committee evaluates the research proposal before awarding the fellowship. Key Features of the INSPIRE Scheme Implemented by DST with a total outlay of ₹1,979 crore in the 11th Plan and ₹2,200 crore in the 12th Plan. Aims to build a human resource base in basic and natural sciences. Comprises three components: SEATS (Scheme for Early Attraction of Talent) – For school students to foster interest in science. SHE (Scholarship for Higher Education) – For undergraduate and postgraduate science students. AORC (Assured Opportunity for Research Careers) – Includes INSPIRE Fellowships and Faculty Awards. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Research scholars upset over DST’s delay in release of stipends - The Hindu.

Answer 215

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A film underwent 16 cuts by the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) for Caste-related dialogues and politically resonant content before being approved for release. About Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India. It is commonly referred to as the Censor Board, though it functions more as a certification authority. CBFC operates under the Cinematograph Act, 1952, the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central Government. CBFC’s Role and Structure The CBFC is responsible for regulating the public exhibition of films in India. No film can be exhibited publicly in India without CBFC certification. The CBFC is headed by a chairperson, with 12–25 members appointed by the Central Government. The Board operates through nine regional offices located in Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack, and Guwahati. Film examination is aided by Advisory Panels, whose members are nominated by the Government from diverse backgrounds for two-year terms. Categories of Film Certification U (Universal): Suitable for all age groups. U/A: Universal with parental guidance for children below 12. A: Adults only. S: Restricted to special categories (e.g., doctors, farmers). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/cbfc-clears-dhadak-2-after-16-cuts-including-altered-anti-caste-references/article69610379.ece

Answer 216

Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 Explanation : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the transfer of a ₹2.69 lakh crore surplus to the Union Government as dividend for the financial year 2024-25. What is a Dividend in Public Finance? A dividend refers to a portion of profits returned by a corporation or institution to its shareholders; in the case of the RBI, the Government of India is the sole shareholder. Dividends are a non-tax revenue source for the government and help in bridging fiscal deficits. RBI dividends are governed by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and are subject to approval by the RBI Central Board. Dividend Yield measures the return from dividends relative to the stock price, calculated as: Dividend Yield = (Annual Dividend per Share) / (Current Market Price of Share) Although private dividends require shareholder approval, RBI’s transfer is a policy-based institutional mechanism. Why Did RBI Earn Higher Surplus in 2024-25? The higher surplus in 2024-25 is attributed to: Increased sale of foreign exchange reserves, especially in January 2025, when the RBI was the top seller among Asian central banks. Higher interest income from investments in government securities and foreign assets. Gains from forex transactions amid volatility in global markets. This is 27% higher than the ₹2.10 lakh crore dividend transferred in the previous year (2023-24), indicating a sharp rise in RBI’s earnings. The transferable surplus was calculated as per the Revised Economic Capital Framework (ECF), approved on May 15, 2025. The ECF determines how much surplus RBI can safely transfer while keeping enough capital to absorb financial shocks. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-to-transfer-269-lakh-crore-to-govt-as-dividend-raises-crb-to-75/article69611054.ece

Answer 217

1 only Explanation : The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will soon adopt the Bharat Forecast System (BFS), which offers the highest resolution among weather models. About Bharat Forecasting System (BFS): It is an indigenously built advanced weather forecasting system. It was developed by the Pune-based Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM). It will provide forecasts with a 6 km resolution — the highest in the world — that would allow forecasters to predict small-scale weather features more accurately. This resolution is advanced in comparison to the previous 12-km Global Forecast System (GFS) used in India so far. This finer resolution will help in more precise predictions of localised weather events like heavy rainfall and cyclones. It is powered by the Arka supercomputer. This supercomputer has 11.77 petaflops (a unit to measure computer processing speed) and 33 petabytes (a petabyte is 1,000 terabytes (TB)) of storage. The supercomputer is located at IITM, Pune, and will massively reduce forecasting time compared to the older Pratyush supercomputer. Data from a network of 40 Doppler Weather Radars from across the country will be used to run the BFS model that would enable the weather office to issue more localised forecasts as well as nowcasts — weather forecasts for the next two hours. Gradually, the number of Doppler radars will increase to 100, which would allow the weather office to issue nowcasts across the country. The BFS can provide 6 km resolution forecasts for the tropical region that falls between 30 degrees South and 30 degrees North Latitudes. The Indian mainland extends between 8.4 degrees north and 37.6 degrees north latitudes. BFS is primarily a numerical weather prediction (NWP) model, but recently integrated AI and machine learning (ML) to enhance its working. Unlike most of the global models, BFS data will remain accessible to researchers worldwide, fostering collaborative advancements in meteorological science. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/imd-to-receive-high-resolution-bharat-forecast-system-today-10028767/

Answer 218

2 only Explanation : The coastline paradox reveals more than a peculiar measurement challenge: it underscores how science evolves with better tools. About Coastline Paradox: The British mathematician and physicist Lewis Fry Richardson first identified the coastline paradox in the early 1950s. His Polish-French peer Benoît Mandelbrot examined the problem mathematically in 1967 and also popularised it. The coastline paradox is a problem that comes from how you measure a coastline and that the length actually gets longer the more carefully you measure it. Meaning that the coastline of a landmass actually does not have a well-defined length but more of a fractal dimension. At the center of the coastline paradox is the observation that as the scale of measurement becomes smaller and more detailed, the measured length of the coastline increases. This is because smaller scales can capture more of the coastline’s intricate contours and jagged edges, which are overlooked at larger scales. The coastline paradox occurs because coasts are not straight lines, and this makes them difficult, or impossible, to measure definitively. For example, measuring a coastline with a 200-km-long ruler would smooth over most inlets and bends — but a 50-km ruler would detect them. At 1 km, the measurement will capture every estuary, tidal flat, and creek. So the more one refines the scale of the ruler, the longer the total coast becomes. Hypothetically, using a measurement unit the size of a water molecule would result in a coastline length approaching infinity. This dependence on scale underscores the inherent paradox: a finite piece of geography yielding a seemingly infinite measurement in cartography. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/the-maths-of-how-indias-coastline-lengthened-without-gaining-new-land/article69617103.ece

Answer 219

A newly discovered species of damselfly. Explanation : Scientists have identified a new species of damselfly, Caliphaea Sinuofurcata, from Arunachal Pradesh. About Caliphaea sinuofurcata: It is a new species of damselfly. It was discovered during biodiversity surveys in the Upper Siang and Lower Dibang Valley districts of Arunachal Pradesh. Proposed to be called the “Bearded Bronzeback,” this stunning insect marks only the second species of the genus Caliphaea recorded in India. While the genus Caliphaea is known from parts of Southeast Asia and China, only one species — C. confusa — was previously recorded in India over 165 years ago. Features of C. sinuofurcata: The species is visually captivating with the presence of dense, black, beard-like bristles around the mouthparts of both males and females. These hair-like setae on the labium and labrum inspired the proposed English name — the Bearded Bronzeback. The name sinuofurcata — from the Latin words sinuosus (wavy or sinuous) and furcatus (forked) — refers to the twisted, bifurcated shape of the paraproct, a tail structure used for mating and species recognition. The damselfly gleams in metallic copper-green hues, with slender wings faintly tinted in brown, and a body adorned with subtle yellow and olive markings. It inhabits small, rocky seasonal streams in broadleaf evergreen forests at elevations around 1200 to 1300 meters above sea level. Individuals were observed flying low and perching on vegetation near the water, in dappled sunlight. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://northeasttoday.in/2025/05/24/new-damselfly-species-caliphaea-sinuofurcata-discovered-in-arunachal-pradesh/

Answer 220

United States Explanation : The United States Air Force (USAF) recently conducted a successful test launch of the nuclear-capable Minuteman III intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) which can deliver a nuclear warhead to anywhere on Earth. About Minuteman III Missile: The LGM-30G Minuteman III is an American-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM). "L" in LGM is the US Department of Defense designation for silo-launched; "G" means surface attack; and "M" stands for guided missile. Introduced in the early 1970s, the Minuteman III was the first missile in the US arsenal to feature multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs). It is the sole land-based component of the U.S. nuclear triad. It was developed for the United States by Douglas Aircraft Company, which later became part of McDonnell Douglas and then Boeing. Originally, it was only supposed to be kept in service for about ten years, but instead, it has been modernized as its replacement, the Ground-Based Strategic Deterrent (GBSD), is due to become available for use in 2029. The United States currently has an estimated 440 Minuteman III missiles in its arsenal. Features: The missile operates using a three-stage, solid-fuel rocket engine. It stands 18.2 metres tall, has a diameter of 1.85 metres, and weighs over 34,000 kilograms at launch. Speed: Approximately 15,000 mph (Mach 23 or 24,000 kph) at burnout (Hypersonic). Range: With a maximum range of approximately 13,000 kilometres, the Minuteman III is capable of reaching targets across continents. It is capable of carrying a payload of three re-entry vehicles. Originally capable of carrying three nuclear warheads, current configurations carry a single warhead, in compliance with arms control agreements. Each missile is housed in a hardened underground silo, connected to a launch control center via reinforced cables. Around-the-clock monitoring is conducted by dual-officer crews who maintain constant alert status. It has a fast launch time, nearly 100 percent testing reliability, and backup airborne launch controllers to preserve retaliatory capabilities. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/us-conducts-successful-test-launch-of-minuteman-iii-intercontinental-ballistic-missile/articleshow/121327710.cms

Answer 221

Chenab Explanation : The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recently filed a chargesheet against the former Jammu and Kashmir Governor and five others over alleged irregularities in the Rs 2,200-crore civil works contract for the Kiru hydropower project. About Kiru Hydropower Project: It is a 624 MW run-of-river scheme on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu & Kashmir. The project site lies approximately 1.5km downstream and 0.5km upstream at the convergence point of the Chenab River with the Singad and Bela streams. It is being constructed between the existing Kirthai II (upstream) and Kwar (downstream) hydel power projects, at an estimated cost of Rs 4,287 crore. It will include the construction of a concrete gravity dam with a height of 135 m and an underground powerhouse located on the left bank of the river that will comprise four vertical Francis turbines with a capacity of 156 MW each. The project is being developed by Chenab Valley Power Projects (CVPP), a joint venture between National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC, 49%), Jammu & Kashmir State Power Development Corporation (JKSPDC, 49%), and Power Trading Corporation (PTC, 2%). The project will provide much-needed power for the grid in northern India. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/cbi-charges-former-j-k-governor-satyapal-malik-in-kiru-hydropower-case-125052201398_1.html

Answer 222

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A new species of cave-dwelling loach, named Schistura densiclava, has been discovered from the Krem Mawjymbuin cave in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya. About Schistura densiclava Schistura densiclava belongs to the family Nemacheilidae, a group of bottom-dwelling freshwater fishes known for adapting to benthic stream habitats. It is classified as a troglophile species, meaning it is adapted to live in cave environments but can also survive in surface (epigean) waters. Unlike most cave-dwelling species that lose pigmentation and eyesight, S. densiclava retains both pigment and functional eyes, allowing it to adapt across environments. Habitat Characteristics The fish was found in a cool, fast-flowing stream about 60 meters inside the Krem Mawjymbuin cave, where the temperature was 18°C and oxygen levels were low. The cave’s total surveyed length is approximately 1.6 km, and it is located at an altitude of 206 meters. The fish’s habitat is subterranean, indicating specialized adaptations to low-light and low-oxygen environments. Morphological Features The body is pale yellow-green with 14–20 greyish black or faint black vertical bars. A thick dark stripe near the dorsal fin inspired the name "densiclava", which translates to "thick stripe" in Latin. Sexual dimorphism is noted: Males are slimmer, with irregular patterns and puffier cheeks. Females are sturdier, with more consistent markings. Endemism and Conservation Insight Genetic testing confirmed that Schistura densiclava is a distinct, previously unrecorded species. Its distribution is restricted to a single cave, indicating a high degree of endemism. It becomes Meghalaya's sixth known cave-dwelling fish species, highlighting the state’s rich subterranean biodiversity. Hence both statements are correct. News: Meghalaya’s new cave-dwelling fish adapts to streams overground - The Hindu.

Answer 223

an early marine predator from the Cambrian period Explanation : Scientists recently identified a new extinct species, Mosura fentoni, an early marine predator from around 506 million years ago during the Cambrian period. About Mosura fentoni Mosura fentoni is a newly discovered Cambrian marine organism found in the Burgess Shale, a globally significant fossil site in British Columbia, Canada. It belongs to the group Radiodonta, which are extinct stem-group arthropods, distant relatives of modern insects, spiders, and crustaceans. Despite being a small-sized species (ranging from 1.5 to 6 cm), M. fentoni displays highly specialised anatomical adaptations. Unique Morphological Features The body of Mosura fentoni is unusually elongated, with a division into three distinct zones comprising a total of 26 segments: A short neck region that supports the head, A mesotrunk consisting of six paddle-shaped flaps that function as propulsive organs for swimming, A posterotrunk containing up to 16 segments dominated by rows of fine gills. The posterotrunk is proposed to be a specialised breathing tagma, drawing parallels to the oxygen-collecting tails of modern horseshoe crabs, suggesting a highly evolved respiratory mechanism in this ancient organism. Geological and Paleontological Context The fossil belongs to the Cambrian period, which began around 540 million years ago, following the Precambrian-Cambrian boundary (600–540 Ma). This period witnessed the Cambrian Explosion, also known as the Cambrian Big Bang, marked by the sudden emergence of complex animal life with hard body parts. The transition from soft-bodied Ediacaran fauna to skeleton-bearing Cambrian organisms represents a major biotic shift in Earth’s history. Changes in the carbon (C) and strontium (Sr) isotopic composition of rocks during this period aid in the stratigraphic correlation of Proterozoic-Cambrian boundaries. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-mosura-fentoni/article69617148.ece

Answer 224

Eight Degree Channel Explanation : Maldivian Foreign Minister is on a three-day official visit to India, accompanied by a high-level delegation, marking his third visit to India in 2025. Key Facts about the Maldives Capital: Male Official language: Dhivehi (an Indo-European language); Arabic, Hindi, and English are also spoken. Religion: Islam is the state religion and plays a central role in national governance. Economy: Heavily dependent on tourism, along with fisheries and foreign aid. Constitution: The 2008 Constitution defines a presidential system with direct elections for a maximum of two five-year terms. The Maldives has a tropical hot and humid climate, influenced by: Northeast monsoon (dry season: November to March), and Southwest monsoon (rainy season: June to August). Geographical Features It is home to the 7th largest coral reef system in the world, contributing 3.14% of global reef area. The country has no rivers or streams and the average elevation is under 2 meters, making it highly vulnerable to sea-level rise. Barrier reefs provide natural protection against monsoon-related erosion and storm surges. The Maldives is an archipelagic state consisting of about 1,200 coral islands grouped in 26 atolls, located in the north-central Indian Ocean. It is strategically positioned astride major global sea lanes, making it vital for maritime trade and security in the IOR. The country lies south-southwest of India, separated from Lakshadweep by the Eight Degree Channel, a crucial sea route for India’s maritime movement. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/maldivian-foreign-minister-begins-3-day-india-visit-to-hold-talks-with-jaishankar-10028742/

Answer 225

1 only Explanation : The Tamil Nadu Cabinet recently approved a Space Industrial Policy, making it the third Indian state, after Karnataka and Gujarat, to promote growth in the space ecosystem and attract investments. About IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) IN-SPACe is a single-window, independent, autonomous agency under the Department of Space (DoS) created as part of India’s space sector reforms. It aims to enable, promote, authorise, and supervise the participation of Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) in various space activities. These include the development of launch vehicles and satellites, space-based services, and the utilisation or co-development of infrastructure controlled by ISRO and DoS. IN-SPACe functions as an interface between ISRO and private players, helping them access India’s space ecosystem and guiding their integration into national goals. It also assesses the requirements of private entities, educational institutions, and startups to facilitate research, design, and innovation in the space sector. The headquarters of IN-SPACe is located at Bopal, Ahmedabad. Tamil Nadu’s Strategic Space Capabilities Tamil Nadu already hosts major ISRO infrastructure, such as the ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) at Mahendragiri, Tirunelveli, where cryogenic and liquid propulsion systems are tested. ISRO is setting up India’s second spaceport at Kulasekarapattinam in Thoothukudi, which will significantly enhance satellite launch capabilities. The state is home to numerous space startups working in advanced areas like reusable launch vehicles, in-space manufacturing, in-orbit refuelling, and satellite data analytics. The Space Technology Incubation Centre (STIC) at NIT Trichy supports southern-region ISRO projects and innovation-led academic collaborations. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: Why has Tamil Nadu adopted a space sector policy? | Explained - The Hindu.

Answer 226

All three Explanation : Indonesia and China have reaffirmed their strategic partnership, with the Chinese Premier’s visit to Jakarta ahead of the ASEAN Summit reflecting growing diplomatic momentum. About the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) ASEAN is an inter-governmental regional organisation formed to promote political, economic, and security cooperation among Southeast Asian nations. Established in 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration, its founding members were Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. ASEAN currently has 10 member countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia. The headquarters of ASEAN is located in Jakarta, Indonesia, underscoring Indonesia’s central role in the bloc. Institutional Mechanisms of ASEAN The ASEAN Summit is held annually, where member states discuss regional developments and set strategic policy directions. It is chaired by a rotating presidency. The ASEAN Coordinating Council (ACC) monitors the implementation of agreements and decisions, ensuring alignment across the member states. The ASEAN Secretariat, located in Jakarta, acts as the administrative body supporting and facilitating ASEAN’s initiatives, coordination, and documentation. The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) is a key platform for dialogue on political and security issues involving both member countries and external partners. India joined the ARF in 1996, marking its formal inclusion in ASEAN-led security dialogue mechanisms. ASEAN follows a decision-making process based on consultation and consensus, promoting unity while respecting national sovereignty. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thejakartapost.com/world/2025/05/25/indonesia-china-agree-to-bolster-ties-ahead-of-asean-summit.html

Answer 227

2 only Explanation : The Kilauea volcano on Hawaii’s Big Island released lava fountains reaching over 1,000 feet into the air recently. About Kilauea Volcano: It is one of the world’s most active volcanoes. It is a shield-type volcano located in the southeastern part of the island of Hawaii, Hawaii state, United States. The volcano rises 4,190 feet (1,227 meters) above sea level. The summit caldera contains a lava lake known as Halema`uma`u that is said to be the home of the Hawaiian volcano goddess, Pele. Kilauea’s slopes merge with those of the nearby volcano Mauna Loa on the west and north. Kilauea has been erupting on a continuous basis since 1983. Kilauea’s frequent eruptions are usually nonexplosive and are contained within Halema‘uma‘u, which sometimes rises and overflows along the floor and flanks of the caldera proper. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/kilauea-volcano-erupts-on-hawaiis-big-island-lava-fountains-reach-1000-feet-into-the-air-10030650/

Answer 228

A newly discovered species of dinosaur. Explanation : A new genus and species of eusauropod dinosaur named Jinchuanloong niedu has been recently identified from a fossilized partial skeleton with a nearly complete skull found in the Chinese province of Gansu. About Jinchuanloong niedu: It is an early-diverging member of a group of long-necked, strictly herbivorous, quadrupedal dinosaurs called Eusauropoda. The fossilized remains of Jinchuanloong niedu were collected from the lower part of the Xinhe Formation near Jinchang city, Gansu province, northwestern China. Jinchuanloong niedu roamed our planet during the Middle Jurassic period, some 165 million years ago. Key Facts about Sauropod Dinosaurs: Sauropods are any member of the dinosaur subgroup Sauropoda, marked by large size, a long neck and tail, a four-legged stance, and a herbivorous diet. These were the largest of all dinosaurs and the largest land animals that ever lived. They lived from the Early Jurassic to Late Cretaceous, and have been found on all continents. Due to the global warming event in the late Early Jurassic, eusauropods were the only surviving sauropod lineage subsequently. In the Middle and Late Jurassic, the non-neosauropod, eusauropod became dominant, represented by Shunosaurus, Omeisaurus, and ‘core Mamenchisaurus-like taxa’. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.sci.news/paleontology/jinchuanloong-niedu-13939.html

Answer 229

Rajasthan Explanation : The Prime Minister recently visited the Karni Mata temple in Deshnok, a small town about 30 km from Bikaner, Rajasthan. About Karni Mata Temple: It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Karni Mata at Deshnoke, 30 km from Bikaner, in Rajasthan. Karni Mata was a Hindu warrior sage who lived in the fourteenth century. Living the life of an ascetic, Karni Mata was highly revered by the locals and earned many followers too. Having received requests from the Maharajas of Jodhpur and Bikaner, she even laid the foundation stones of the Mehrangarh and Bikaner Forts. Locals believe that she is an incarnation of Goddess Durga. Although there are many temples dedicated to her, this temple in the town of Deshnoke is the most widely recognized. It is also known as the Temple of Rats. The temple is famous for the approximately 25,000 rats that live and are revered in the temple. These holy rats are called kabbas, and many people travel great distances to pay their respects. Out of all the rats, white rats are held specifically sacred as they are believed to be the incarnations of Karni Mata and her sons. The Karni Mata temple, which is seen today, was built by Maharaja Ganga Singh in the early 20th century. Architecture: It has been built in a typical Rajputana style. There are a few shades of Mughal architecture with arched doorways. The temple facade is largely made of marble, while the main temple doors, which are a recent addition, are solid silver. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/rat-temple-bikaner-modi-10025966/

Answer 230

Only three Explanation : China’s Liaoning aircraft carrier recently entered the East China Sea near Japan’s Senkaku Islands for the first time, conducting aggressive military drills close to Japanese territory. About East China Sea: It is an arm of the Western Pacific Ocean, located in East Asia. It is a semi-closed sea bordered by the Yellow Sea to the north, the South China Sea and Taiwan to the south, Japan's Ryukyu and Kyushu islands to the east, and the Chinese mainland to the west. It connects with the Japan Sea via the Tsushima Strait and the South China Sea via the Taiwan Strait. The East China Sea and the South China Sea together form the China Sea. The countries which border the sea include South Korea, Japan, the Republic of China (Taiwan) and the People's Republic of China. The western edge of the sea is a continuation of the shelf that extends between the South China Sea and the Yellow Sea. The East China Sea has an area of about 290,000 square miles (750,000 sq.km.) and is largely shallow; almost three-fourths of the sea is less than 650 feet (200 metres). Rivers: The Yellow River (Huanghe) and the Yangtze River (Changjiang) discharge into the East China Sea, providing much fresh water and suspended particles. Weather in the East China Sea region is dominated by the monsoon winds. Islands: The sea contains several islands, with the most significant being the Ryukyu Islands, which are part of Japan, and the Diaoyu Islands (known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan), which are a source of territorial dispute between China and Japan. The East China Sea has a huge presence of submerged reefs in the northern region, such as Yajiao Rock, Hupijiao Rock, and Socotra Rock. Approximately 35% of global petroleum and petroleum product shipments traveled through the East China Sea in 2023. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/chinese-brinkmanship-challenges-japan-and-us-in-east-china-sea-liaoning-aircraft-carrier-sends-its-fighters-near-disputed-islands/articleshow/121406470.cms?from=mdr

Answer 231

A guided missile frigate. Explanation : The Indian Navy’s guided missile frigate INS Brahmaputra, which suffered extensive damage in a dockyard accident last year, is likely to regain seaworthiness by the end of 2025 and be fully combat-ready by mid-2026, senior officials said recently. About INS Brahmaputra: It is the first indigenously built Brahmaputra-class guided missile frigate. It was built by Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE). It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 14, 2000. It takes on various roles such as coastal and offshore patrolling, monitoring sea routes, conducting maritime diplomacy, and carrying out counter-terrorism and anti-piracy missions. Features: Its crest features a grey, one-horned Indian rhinoceros, which is native to the Brahmaputra valley, set against a brown background with white and blue sea waves. The ship has a displacement of 5,300 tonnes, is 125 meters long, and is 14.4 meters wide. It can reach speeds over 27 knots (about 50 km/h). It is equipped with medium- and close-range guns, anti-aircraft weapons, surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles, and torpedo launchers. It is equipped with a range of sensors for all aspects of maritime warfare and can operate Sea King and Chetak helicopters. It is crewed by 40 officers and 330 sailors. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/india/ins-brahmaputra-may-return-to-sea-by-year-end-fully-combat-ready-by-mid-2026-report-13045799.html

Answer 232

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj organised a two-day national write-shop on rolling out of Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Version 2.0 for the financial year 2023-24 in New Delhi. It is a multi-domain and multi-sectoral index that is intended to be used to assess the overall holistic development, performance & progress of Panchayats. It aims to assess and measure the progress made by grassroots-level institutions in achieving localized SDGs, thereby contributing to the attainment of SDG 2030. The index takes into account various socio-economic indicators and parameters to gauge the well-being and development status of the local communities within the jurisdiction of a Panchayat. One of the purposes of the PAI is to identify the development gaps of the Panchayats through the scores achieved across various LSDG themes and enable the Panchayat for evidence-based planning at grassroots level. It has been compiled based on 435 unique local Indicators (331 mandatory & 104 optional) consisting of 566 unique data points across 9 themes of LSDGs (Localization of Sustainable Development Goals) aligned with National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The PAI reflects India’s commitment to achieving the SDG 2030 Agenda through participatory, bottom-up development. Based on the PAI scores & thematic Scores achieved by different Gram Panchayats, these GPs are grouped into one of the categories of performance – Achiever: (90+), Front Runner: (75 to below 90); Performer: (60 to below 75); Aspirant: (40 to below 60) and Beginners (below 40). While PAI Version 1.0 served as the baseline and covered data from 2.16 lakh Gram Panchayats across 29 States/UTs, PAI Version 2.0 represents a major leap forward in functionality, efficiency, and usability. The transition from PAI 1.0 to 2.0 reflects a focused refinement of the framework, with a sharper and more practical set of indicators and data points to improve usability and reliability while retaining thematic comprehensiveness. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/panchayati-raj-ministry-launches-panchayat-advancement-index-2-0-portal-booklet-for-fy-2023-24/

Answer 233

Tamil Nadu Explanation : Recently, the Kumbakonamvetrilai or betel leaf or paan leaf was granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the Government of India. It is predominantly grown in Thanjavur’s fertile Cauvery river basin, giving it a unique taste and aroma. The dark to light green, oblong heart-shaped leaves with a pungent taste are cultivated. The betel leaf has been widely cultivated across Kumbakonam and adjacent villages of Ayyampettai, Swamimalai and Rajagiri in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. It is staple in South Asian households and is central to preparing paan, a popular South Asian post-meal chew. The Kumbakonam betel leaf is exported to some countries. Harvest process After 20–25 days of planting, kolundhuvetrilai – the first leaves – emerge. The first-year harvest happens from the seventh to 12th month. It is called maaruvethalai, produces larger leaves with a better shelf life of six to seven days, and fetches higher prices in the market. Second and third-year yields – kelavethalai and kattavethalai – are smaller compared to the first year’s yield. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/when-virat-kohli-recounted-pack-anushka-sharma-favourite-puffs-bengaluru-no-one-recognising-him-expert-10017508/

Answer 234

Only two Explanation : PKM1, a variety of Moringa oleifera, has had a global impact, especially in countries such as Senegal, Rwanda, and Madagascar on the African continent. It is known as the “tree of life” or “miracle tree,”and is classified as an important herbal plant. Its botanical name is Moringa oleifera, and it is native to India, which was introduced from India to Africa, Southeast Africaand the Philippines in ancient times. Required climatic conditions It requires tropical and subtropical regions and grows at a temperature of about 25–35 °C It is a deciduous type of tree typically grown in tropical and subtropical regions across the globe It grows best in indirect sunlight and without waterlogging, and the soil should be slightly acidic to alkaline. The tree begins to bear fruit at 6 to 8 months of age. Uses With its high nutritional values, every part of the tree is suitable for either nutritional or commercial purposes. The leaves are rich in minerals, vitamins and other essential phytochemicals. Extracts from the leaves are used to treat malnutrition, augment breast milk in lactating mothers. Distribution: It is widely distributed worldwide, but its indigenous origin is in India, Arabia and the East Indies. It is common in Asia, Africa, the Caribbean, Latin America, the Pacific Islands, Florida, Madagascar, Central America, Cuba, the Philippines, Ethiopia, and Nigeria. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/moringa-farmers-in-tamil-nadu-sitting-on-a-goldmine-waiting-for-a-quantum-leap/article69610676.ece

Answer 235

1 only Explanation : Recently, the 38th Meeting of the Central Apprenticeship Council (CAC), chaired by the Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), recommended a 36% increase in stipend provided under the National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) and the National Apprenticeship Training Scheme (NATS). The National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) was launched on19th August 2016 by the Government of India. The scheme entails financial support to establishments undertaking apprenticeship programs. It is an initiative by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship aimed at promoting apprenticeship training across India. NAPS registration is essential for candidates and establishments to benefit from this program. Objectives To develop skilled manpower for the industry by promotion of on-the-job experiential training. To encourage establishments to enrol apprentices by sharing partial stipend support to the apprentices. To provide up-skilling opportunities for candidates who have undergone short-term skill training. To encourage enrolment of apprentices in small establishments (MSMEs), and those located in under served areas like in aspirational districts and in North-East region. This scheme provides financial incentives to establishments engaging apprentices under the Apprentices Act, 1961. By offering partial stipend support and advocacy, the scheme encourages industries to train a skilled workforce andbridge the gap between education and employment. The scheme not only promotes skill development but also focuses on building a trained workforce that aligns with industry needs. Candidates who complete their training receive a NAPS certificate, which enhances their employability. About National Apprenticeship Training Scheme It is one of the flagship programmes of Government of India for Skilling Indian Youth in Trade disciplines. It is under the provisions of the Apprentices Act, 1961 amended in 1973. It offers Graduate, Diploma students and Vocational certificate holders; a practical, hands-on On-the-Job-Training (OJT) based skilling opportunities. Duration: Ranging from 6 months to 1 year. During the period of apprenticeship, the apprentices are paid a stipend amount, 50% of which is reimbursable to the employer from the Government of India. At the end of the training period the apprentices are issued a Certificate of Proficiency by the Government of India which can be registered at all employment exchanges across India as valid employment experience. There is no guarantee of employment after completion of training as an apprentice. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2131391

Answer 236

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the IIT Bombay researchers have developed a semi-transparent perovskite solar cell (PSC). It is layered over a traditional silicon-based solar cell, forming a 4-terminal (4T) tandem structure. Material used: The bottom sub-cell uses well-established silicon technology, while the top sub-cell features an indigenously developed halide perovskite semiconductor, enabling high light absorption and efficient energy conversion. This helps in power conversion efficiency of approximately 30 per cent compared with around 20 per cent now. Halide perovskite is among the most efficient light-absorbing materials known today. Apart from being highly efficient in converting light into electricity, it is affordable as electronic grade perovskite semiconductors can be produced locally with available chemical resources. Perovskite Solar CellS are a type of photovoltaic (PV) technology that uses crystal structures called perovskites for converting sunlight into electricity. These crystals share the structure of the mineral calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO₃) and can be engineered to possess a wide range of optical, electrical, and semiconducting properties. The general chemical formula of a perovskite compound is ABX₃, where 'A' and 'B' are cations, and 'X' is an anion. They offer high power conversion efficiencies at a lower cost than traditional silicon-based PVs, but they suffer from shorter lifespan and stability issues. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/new-solar-cell-tech-by-iit-bombay-to-sharply-cut-costs-enhance-efficiency-10028736/

Answer 237

2 only Explanation : Sikkim Chief Minister recently urged the Centre to ensure that Mt. Khangchendzonga, the world’s third-highest peak, regarded as sacred by the people of the State, is made out of bounds for mountaineers. About Mt. Khangchendzonga: Mt. Khangchendzonga (also known as Kanchenjunga) is the highest peak in India and the third-highest peak in the world after Mount Everest (Chomolongma) in Nepal and K2 in Pakistan. It is situated in the eastern Himalayas on the border between Sikkim state, northeastern India, and eastern Nepal, 74 km north-northwest of Darjeeling, Sikkim. It has an elevation of 28,169 feet (8,586 metres). It is part of the Great Himalaya Range. The name Khangchendzonga has been variously translated as “Five Treasuries (or Strongboxes) of the Great Snow” or “Great Five-Peaked Fortress of Snow.”, a reference to its five separate summits. Kanchenjunga has four ridges extending north, east, south, and west. Between them are four glaciers: the Zemu (northeast), the Talung (southeast), the Yalung (southwest), and the Kanchenjunga (northwest). The mountain and its glaciers receive heavy snow during the summer monsoon season and a lighter snowfall during the winter. To the east, Khangchendzonga National Park in Sikkim is a mountain wilderness with a wide variety of animal species. Charles Evans in 1955 led a British expedition up the southwest face in the first successful ascent of Kanchenjunga. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sikkim/mt-khangchendzonga-ascent-hurtful-to-indigenous-communities-sikkim-cm-to-amit-shah/article69625474.ece

Answer 238

An anti-tank guided missile (ATGM). Explanation : The Ministry of Defence is finalising a procurement order for 500 Invar anti-tank guided missiles (ATGMs) from state-run Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL), with the deal expected to be worth between Rs 2,000 crore and Rs 3,000 crore. About Invar Missile: It is an anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) designed to be launched from tank platforms. The Invar missile, capable of being fired from the barrel of T-90 tanks, has been in active deployment by Indian forces and is known for its long-range precision strike capability. The missile can neutralise adversaries tanks fitted with Explosive Reactive Armour Protection. The Invar missile is built by Rosoboronexport of Russia, and it is produced under license in India by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). Features: The missile is of semi-automatic control system, laser beam riding, and jamming immune. Equipped with a tandem warhead. Can destroy stationary and moving targets with speeds up to 70 kmph. Has a high hit and kill probability. Length : 695 mm (missile), 395 mm (throwing device) Caliber : 125 mm Range : 5 km Flight time : 17.6 sec Weight : 17.2kg (missile), 7.1kg (throwing device) Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.news18.com/amp/business/markets/govt-to-procure-rs-2000-3000-cr-invar-missile-order-form-bharat-dynamics-shares-up-2-9354541.html

Answer 239

All three Explanation : The Supreme Court recently clarified that when an arrest is made with a warrant, a separate communication of the arrest grounds isn't required, as the warrant itself serves this purpose. About Warrant of Arrest: This is a written order issued by a judge or magistrate, supported by a sworn affidavit, authorizing the arrest and custody of a person accused of committing a specific offense. A police officer who executes the warrant shall notify the substance thereof to the person to be arrested and if he demands, shall show him the warrant. The officer is also obligated to promptly bring the arrested individual before the court without unnecessary delays. Valid Warrant: A warrant of arrest should be in writing signed by the presiding officer of the Court and should bear the seal of the Court. It should also contain the name of the accused, his address, the offence with which he is charged. If any of these factors is absent, the warrant is not in order, and an arrest made in execution of such a warrant is illegal. Warrants are of two kinds: Bailable and Non-Bailable. A bailable warrant is a Court's order which contains a direction that if the person arrested executes a bail with sufficient sureties for his attendance before the Court, he may be released from custody. In that case it shall further state the number of sureties, the amount of the bond, and the time for attending the Court. In case of a non-bailable warrant, the direction for bail will not be endorsed on the warrant. Arrest Without Warrant: A police officer is empowered to arrest a person without a warrant if there is reasonable suspicion of their involvement in a cognizable offense. However, in cases of non-cognizable offenses, a police officer cannot effect an arrest without a warrant issued by a magistrate. Cognizable offenses include serious crimes such as murder, rape, robbery, theft, and offenses against the state. There are several other situations in which a person can be arrested without a warrant: Probable Cause: If a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that a crime has been committed and that the person to be arrested committed it, they can make an arrest without a warrant. In the Act of Committing a Crime: If an officer witnesses someone committing a crime, they can make an arrest without a warrant. Fleeing a Crime Scene: If a person is fleeing from a crime scene and the officer has probable cause to believe they committed the crime, they can be arrested without a warrant. Escaping from Custody: If a person has escaped or is attempting to escape from lawful custody, they can be arrested without a warrant. Violation of Probation or Parole: If a person is on probation or parole and violates the terms of their release, they can be arrested without a warrant. Court Order or Summons Violation: If a person fails to comply with a court order or a summons, they can be arrested without a warrant. Threat to Public Safety: If there is an immediate threat to public safety or if delaying the arrest to obtain a warrant would result in the destruction of evidence or the escape of the suspect, an arrest without a warrant may be justified. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/person-arrested-on-warrant-neednt-be-told-of-reason-supreme-court/articleshow/121421828.cms

Answer 240

Engineering Explanation : The 2025 Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics was jointly awarded to four experimental collaborations operating at CERN's Large Hadron Collider (LHC)—ATLAS, CMS, ALICE, and LHCb, with Indian scientists playing a key role in the success of the ALICE and CMS experiments. About Breakthrough Prizes: The Breakthrough Prizes honor important, primarily recent, achievements in the fields of Life Sciences (with a specific prize dedicated to work related to Parkinson’s Disease, and Neurodegenerative disorders), fundamental physics and mathematics. These prestigious awards were founded in 2013 by Mark Zuckerberg and his spouse Priscilla Chan, former Google CEO Sergey Brin, Anne Wojcicki, the founder of the genomics company 23&Me, and tech investors Yuri and Julia Milner. Often referred to as the “Oscars of Science”, the mission of the Breakthrough Prizes is to recognize individual accomplishments, celebrate scientists as societal heroes, inspire future generations of scientists, and advocate for "science for the benefit of all" as a global, non-political organization. Each Breakthrough Prize carries a monetary award of $3 million, significantly higher than the Nobel Prize. Committees of previous laureates choose the winners from candidates nominated in a process that’s online and open to the public. They attend a televised award ceremony designed to celebrate their achievements and inspire the next generation of scientists. As part of the ceremony schedule, they also engage in a program of lectures and discussions. Those who make fresh discoveries again remain eligible for future Breakthrough Prizes. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2131339

Answer 241

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : In a tragic turn of events, two teenagers lost their lives after drowning in the Ghaggar River near Panchkula. About Ghaggar River: The Ghaggar River is an intermittent river that flows in India and Pakistan. The river flows only during the monsoon season. Course: It rises from the Shivalik Range of northwestern Himachal Pradesh. After passing through the Ambala and Hissar districts of Haryana, it disappears into the Thar Desert in Rajasthan. This seasonal river feeds two irrigation canals that extend into Rajasthan. The Hakra, which flows in Pakistan, is the continuation of the Ghaggar River in India, and they are together called the Ghaggar-Hakra River. Historical Significance: Several historians identify Ghaggar with the Vedic Saraswati River. Along the banks of the Ghaggar River, many settlements of the Indus Valley Civilization have been excavated. Hence it is believed that the ancient settlements on its banks are the creation of ingenious Vedic Aryans. It is believed that the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna once flowed into the Ghaggar-Hakra riverbed. Tributaries: The main tributaries of the Ghaggar are the Kaushalya River, Markanda, Sarsuti, Tangri, and Chautang. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chandigarh/2-teenagers-drown-in-ghaggar-river-near-panchkula/articleshow/121430847.cms

Answer 242

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, a group of artists called on the President of India as part of the Artists in Residence programme in Rashtrapati Bhavan. It is a famous folk art of the Gond tribal community of central India. It originated among the Gond tribe in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. Themes: It features nature, forests, vibrant animals, sun, moon, and stars. Includes mythological stories of deities like Bhima and Parvati, along with mythical creatures like the Shachi bird. Artists use natural materials like charcoal, colored soil, and plant sap. Applied on mud walls, cloth, or paper using twigs and leaves. Each Gond artist uses his distinctive pattern and style to fill the images these style signatures are used in collage to make a complete picture such as Dots, fine Lines, Curved Lines, Dashes Fish Scales etc. About Madhubani Painting: It originated in the Mithila region of Bihar and was traditionally created by women. Themes: Depicts Hindu mythology, Ramayana, and daily life in India. Often depicts deities like Krishna, Durga and Saraswati. Includes festival scenes like Holi and Tussar. Carries symbolic messages related to fertility, good luck, and auspiciousness. It was historically done on mud walls and cloth; now found on paper and canvas. Artists often use natural pigments like turmeric, lamp black, and cow dung. Features precise linework, double outlining, and intricate geometric patterns. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2131288

Answer 243

Rajasthan Explanation : Recently, Rajasthan’s famous dish Ker Sangri has received a Geographical Indication tag. It is a Rajasthani delicacy made using sangri pods sourced from hardy khejri trees and Ker berries that grow on Ker trees. Both these ingredients are native to the arid regions of the Thar Desert. Preparation of Ker Sangri Preparing Ker Sangri is a careful and slow process. The Ker berries taste bitter when raw but become delicious after being soaked, boiled, and cooked with Sangri, curd, red chillies, and spices. The final dish is tangy, spicy and full of earthy flavour. Ker Sangri is not just tasty but also healthy. It is high in fibre, low in fat and rich in nutrients. People in Rajasthan usually eat it with bajra roti and ghee, making it a filling and balanced meal. The Sangri bean grows on the Khejri tree, which is sacred in Rajasthan. The Bishnoi community has protected this tree for hundreds of years and considers it a symbol of life. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/htcity/htcity-foodies/ker-sangri-is-now-gi-tagged-and-the-world-is-finally-noticing-101748332145942.html

Answer 244

Only two Explanation : Every year, May 28th is celebrated as World Dugong Day. Dugongs (Dugong dugon) are the only herbivorous mammals found in India’s marine ecosystems. Appearance: It is known as the sea cow, but resembles a cross between a seal and a whale, and is distributed through the Indo-Pacific region. Distribution: They are found along the Indian coastline, primarily inhabiting warm waters around the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, and the Gulf of Kutch. The dugong is a long-lived species, able to live up to 70 years. Habitat: Due to their dependence on seagrass beds for habitat and food, dugongs are restricted to shallow waters, where they spend the day feeding on seagrasses of the genera Cymodocea, Halophila, Thalassia, and Halodule. Reproduction: Individuals reach reproductive maturity after only nine or ten years and can give birth at intervals of around three to five years. Due to its slow reproductive cycle, extended time to maturity, and infrequent calving, a dugong population’s maximum potential growth rate is estimated to be just about 5% per year. Conservation status IUCN: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I Threats: The threats they face worldwide include rapidly declining populations and the ongoing degradation of their seagrass habitats. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/world-dugong-day-india-vulnerable-conservation-priority/article69624446.ece

Answer 245

1 only Explanation : The intense storms that hit Delhi recently looked like a crescent or an archer’s bow which in technical terms are called as “bow echoes.” A bow echo is essentially a line of storms, also called a squall line, on the radar that looks like a bow. Note that this squall line can sometimes be embedded in a larger squall line. A bow echo can extend from 20 km to 100 km, and last between three and six hours. The term was coined in the 1970s by Ted Fujita, a Japanese American meteorologist known for developing the scale to classify tornadoes. How does a bow echo form? When rain-cooled air comes down to the ground, and spreads out horizontally. As this happens, a boundary called the gust front is created between the rain-cooled air and warm-moist air on the surface. This front pushes up the warm-moist air into the atmosphere, which forms new thunderstorms. These new thunderstorms produce more rain, thereby creating more rain-cooled air, which helps the gust front to maintain its strength. As this process keeps repeating itself, there comes a point when there is an inflow of air on the trailing side of the line of storms and bends it like an archer’s bow. The cycle lasts as long as new thunderstorms keep forming at the front, helping the system grow and move forward with strong winds. Bow echoes are not a new phenomenon. In 2022, a bow echo was formed over Delhi and Noida. However, it was short-lived, lasting for an hour, and produced winds of up to 100 kmph. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/bow-echo-delhi-storm-10031354/

Answer 246

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Government of India has announced the restoration of benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme for exports made by Advance Authorization (AA) holders, Export-Oriented Units (EOUs), and units operating in Special Economic Zones (SEZs). It was introduced through an amendment to the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20, and it became effective for exports starting January 1, 2021. The primary aim of this scheme is to offset the taxes and duties incurred on exported goods that wouldn't otherwise be credited, reimbursed, or refunded in any way, and are integrated into the exported goods. It is designed to reimburse exporters for embedded duties, taxes, and levies that are not otherwise refunded under any other existing scheme. It is compliant with World Trade Organization (WTO) norms and is implemented via a comprehensive end-to-end digital platform to ensure transparency and efficiency. It was enforced to repeal and reduce taxes on exported products, thereby encouraging exports and increasing the number of exports in the country. The scheme will be administered by the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It replaced the Merchandise Export Incentive Scheme (MEIS), in response to the US challenging Indian export subsidies under the MEIS at the WTO. Tax reimbursement under RoDTEP Scheme: The Scheme provides a mechanism for reimbursement of taxes, duties, and levies, which are currently not being refunded under any other mechanism at the central, state, and local levels, but which are incurred by the export entities in the process of manufacture and distribution of exported products. This not only includes the direct cost incurred by the exporter but also the prior stage cumulative indirect taxes on goods. RoDTEP Scheme Eligibility Criteria: It applies to all the sectors involved in the export of goods, irrespective of their turnover, provided the country of manufacturing of the exported goods should be in India. Such an exporter may either be a merchant or a manufacturer exporter. However, such goods should have been directly exported by such a person. Labor-intensive sectors that enjoy benefits under the MEIS Scheme will be given a priority. Special Economic Zone Units and Export-Oriented Units are also eligible to claim the benefits under this scheme. Goods exported through e-commerce platforms are also eligible under this scheme. Re-exported products are not eligible under this scheme. Process of Refund: Rebate under the scheme is provided to eligible exporters as a percentage of the freight on board (FOB) value of exports. Remission is issued in the form of transferrable e-scrips (a type of certificate with some monetary value) maintained in an electronic credit ledger by the CBIC (Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs). e-scrips can be used for paying basic customs duty on the import of goods or may be transferred electronically to another party. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2131526

Answer 247

Himachal Pradesh Explanation : The forest department of Himachal Pradesh recently put on hold its order imposing user charge on visitors to the Churdhar Wildlife Sanctuary in Sirmaur district. About Churdhar Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the Sirmour district of Himachal Pradesh. It is situated in the Shivalik range of the Himalayas. Established in 1985, this sanctuary spans 56 sq.km. and encircles the majestic Churdhar Peak, also known as Choordhar. Churdhar peak is the highest peak in the outer Himalayas. From the top of the peak, visitors can relish the view of wild Gangetic plains and the Satluj River on its south and Badrinath (a well-known Hindu pilgrimage) towards its north. A small temple dedicated to Lord Shiva sits atop the peak, adding spiritual significance to the sanctuary. Flora: It is quite renowned for being a habitat of herbal medicine trees and plants. Wild Himalayan Cherry, Aloe Vera (Dhrit Kumari), and Amaranthus spinosus (Chulai) are some of the best aromatic plants which can be found here, and these herbs possess amazing medicinal properties. The main trees in the sanctuary are oak and deodar. Fauna: The sanctuary is home to various species, including musk deer, black bears, monals (Himalayan pheasants), and leopards. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://theprint.in/india/facing-flak-himachal-govt-puts-on-hold-order-imposing-user-charge-on-visitors-to-churdhar-sanctuary/2639254/

Answer 248

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : One of the critical gaps in cancer care in India is the lack of adequate diagnostic services, finds the latest report by the National Academy of Medical Sciences (NAMS). About National Academy of Medical Sciences (NAMS): It is a unique institution functioning as an apex body with the objective to foster and utilize academic excellence as its resource to meet medical and social goals. It was registered as the 'Indian Academy of Medical Sciences' on 21st April, 1961, under Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. It was renamed NAMS on 16th November, 1976. The academy has been recognised by the Government of India as a nodal agency for continuing education for medical and allied health professionals. It also advises the Government of India in matters of National Health Policy and Planning. NAMS encourages and sponsors nationwide Continuing Medical Education (CME) programmes, symposia, workshops, etc. It has made significant efforts to improve the reach of CME programmes by establishing tele-linkagesbetween medical colleges, and it is also connected with the National Knowledge Network. The academy serves as a very important tool for dissemination of recent medical advances via journals, monographs, etc. NAMS also bestows prestigious fellowships and awardsupon eminent biomedical scientists in recognition of their outstanding contributions. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/inadequate-diagnostic-services-still-a-critical-gap-in-cancer-care-in-india-nams-report/article69629259.ece

Answer 249

User-interface designs deliberately crafted to mislead or manipulate users into unintended actions. Explanation : The Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution recently instructed all e-commerce companies to conduct self-audits to analyse and eliminate dark patterns to comply with consumer protection regulations. About Dark Patterns: It refers to any user interface that has been deliberately crafted to mislead or manipulate users into actions they might not otherwise take. The term "dark pattern" was coined in 2010 by UK-based user experience designer Harry Brignull. Dark patterns exploit cognitive biases and psychological principles to influence user behavior. They can range from subtle and mildly misleading to overtly aggressive tactics. The practice is seen across a wide range of sectors, from retail to travel, health to social media. One frequent example is the "sneak into basket" design, where an additional item is quietly added to a user's online shopping cart without explicit consent. Another common tactic is presenting a large, brightly coloured "Accept" button for cookies or subscriptions, while hiding or minimising the "Reject" option. These interface choices are not accidental, they are calculated to guide userstowards choices that benefit the company, often at the consumer's expense. Dark patterns can also take the form of hidden costs that only appear at the final stage of checkout. Regulation: In many countries, including India, there is no dedicated law that explicitly outlaws the practice. For instance, under India's Consumer Protection Act, 2019, unfair trade practices are prohibited but enforcement depends on proving that a pattern is deceptive, intentional, and has caused harm. This is often difficult in digital contexts, where user interaction is rapid. In November 2023, the Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India, released guidelines for 13 dark patterns. According to these guidelines, the use of any of these prescribed dark patterns amounts to a misleading advertisement, an unfair trade practice, or a violation of consumer rights. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/May/29/plans-to-counter-dark-patterns-used-by-online-platforms-soon

Answer 250

Highest honour awarded to UN peacekeepers. Explanation : Two Indian peacekeepers who lost their lives while serving under the U.N. flag last year will be honoured posthumously with the Dag Hammarskjold Medal by the United Nations as it commemorates International Day of U.N. Peacekeepers on May 29. About Dag Hammarskjöld Medal: It is the highest honour awarded to UN peacekeepers. It was established in 1997 as a posthumous award given to members of peacekeeping operations who lost their lives during service with a peacekeeping operation under the operational control and authority of the United Nations. Each year on Peacekeeper's Day (May 29), this medal is awarded to any member state that has lost one or more military or police peacekeepers at a ceremony at United Nations headquarters. It is named after the second Secretary-General of the United Nations, Dag Hammarskjold. On 6 October 1998, the first Medal was presented to the family of Dag Hammarskjöld. Dag Hammarskjold was Secretary-General of the United Nations from April 10, 1953, until September 18, 1961, when he died in a plane crash while on a peace mission in the Congo. The second medal honoured Commandant René de Labarrière, Military Observer in the United Nations Truce Supervision Organization, who was the first peacekeeper to lose his life in a United Nations peacekeeping operation, in 1948. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/two-indian-peacekeepers-to-be-honoured-posthumously-on-international-peacekeepers-day/article69627819.ece

Answer 251

Only two Explanation : Hyderabad teenager Vishwanath Karthikey Padakanti recently became the youngest Indian and the second youngest person in the world to complete the legendary 7 Summits challenge. About Seven Summits Challenge: The ‘Seven Summits‘ is a challenge first proposed and then completed by Richard Bass in 1985. It consists of climbing to the highest point on each of the seven continents, including Kilimanjaro: Africa (5,892 m) Elbrus: Europe (5,642 m) Aconcagua: South America (6,962 m) Denali: North America (6,194 m) Kosciuszko: Australia (2,228 m) or Puncak Jaya/Carstensz Pyramid: Oceania (4,884 m) Mount Vinson: Antarctica (4,892 m) Mount Everest: Asia (8,848 m) The Seven Summits challenge has two options – the ‘Bass’ list or the ‘Messner’ list. The difference between the two lists is that one includes the highest peak in Australia (Kosciuszko), while the other includes the highest peak in Oceania/Australasia instead (Puncak Jaya in Indonesia), respectively. Most will attempt the Bass list, while others will then push on to complete the Messner list too. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/hyderabads-16-year-old-vishwanath-karthikey-padakanti-scales-the-globe-youngest-indian-to-complete-7-summits-challenge/article69625682.ece

Answer 252

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A new study has shown that stingless bees, which produce a high-value honey with a distinct flavour, can increase the yield and quality of crops. A stingless bee is a bee appears very similar to a honeybee, but is incapable of stinging. Approximately 550 species of stingless bees are found within several genera that are members of the Meliponini tribe. They are also related to bumblebees and carpenter bees. Common genera of stingless bees: Austroplebeia, Melipona and Tetragonula They do possess stingers, but they are too small to be useful in defense. Instead of stinging, stingless bees use their mandibles to bite their attackers. Benefits: Stingless bees can be used for pollination without fear of being stung. They are known for their popular medicinal honey and pollination potential, which paves the way formulation of crop pollination calendars to benefit all stakeholders. Distribution: Africa, Australia, Southeast Asia, and parts of the Americas are the main areas where the stingless bee is found. In India, these bees are reported primarily from the northeastern, eastern, and southern Indian States. In the northeast, these bees are reared traditionally in homestead apiaries. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/study-finds-stingless-bees-increase-crop-yield-quality/article69622246.ece

Answer 253

Plant Explanation : Recently, researchers have discovered a new plant species, Pedipularis rajeshiana, in the high-altitude regions of Rohtang Pass in the western Himalayas region. It belongs to a group of plants known as "Louseworts", which are hemiparasitic, meaning they derive some nutrients from other plants while still performing photosynthesis. The plant was found at an altitude of 4,390 metres (about 14,400 feet) in the Rohtang Pass, a rugged and ecologically rich area in Himachal Pradesh. Pedicularis rajeshiana was spotted growing in small, scattered patches in shaded rocky slopes. This discovery was made during a plant survey under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEF&CC) and the Botanical Survey of India, as part of the "Flora of India" project. Features It consists of unique floral characteristics and pollen structure. One of its most striking features is the deeply-cut lower lip (labium) of the flower and the unique positioning of its stamens — the parts that produce pollen—at three different levels inside the flower. It thrives in very specific microhabitats, making it rare and possibly endangered. India is home to 83 known species of Pedicularis, with 36 species found in the western Himalayas alone. Due to their parasitic nature and specific habitat requirements, many of these plants are endemic — found only in certain regions. The identification of Pedicularis rajeshiana adds to this rich biodiversity and highlights the ecological significance of high-altitude Himalayan ecosystems. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/allahabad/meet-pedicularis-rajeshiana-the-new-plant-species-from-himalayas/articleshow/121446608.cms

Answer 254

Only two Explanation : Recently, a large stromatolites — dating back to 600 million years unearthed in the pine-clad ridges of Chambaghat in Solan district of Himachal Pradesh. Stromatolites are organo-sedimentary structures formed from the entrapment of calcium carbonate precipitates by algae and cyanobacteria. They are biosedimentary structures produced in shallow marine seas. These structures are usually characterized by thin, alternating light and dark layers that may be flat, hummocky, or dome-shaped. Stromatolites were common in Precambrian time (i.e., more than 542 million years ago). Most stromatolites are marine, but some forms from Proterozoic strata more than 2 ½ billion years old are interpreted as inhabiting intertidal areas and freshwater ponds and lakes. Living stromatolites are found in only a few salty lagoons or bays on Earth. The stromatolites at Chambaghat lie within the Krol Group of sedimentary rocks, comprising limestone, shale, and sandstone, formed in a shallow marine environment of what was once the Tethys Sea. This region was once part of Gondwana, the southern supercontinent that included India, South America, Africa, and others. The Indian plate’s northward drift and collision with Eurasia lifted marine sediments, including stromatolites, thousands of meters skyward. Significance These ancient structures offer a window into a time when Earth’s atmosphere was dominated by greenhouse gases, and oxygen was nonexistent. Their presence in the Himalayas, far from any current coastline, reveals a story of tectonic shifts, lost oceans, and the microbial origins of life. Stromatolites in India Chitrakoot, Uttar Pradesh: Known for columnar stromatolites in Vindhyan limestones. Morni Hills, Haryana: Features well-preserved stromatolite beds in dolomite formations. Mussoorie and Nainital, Uttarakhand: Sites in the Krol Belt showcase Precambrian marine sedimentation. Jaisalmer Fossil Park, Rajasthan: A protected area highlighting a range of Mesozoic fossils, including marine life. Dharwar Supergroup, Karnataka: Neoarchean stromatolites in the Chitradurga schist belt, over 2.6 billion years old. Bhima Basin, Karnataka: Precambrian stromatolites preserved in shallow marine limestones. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/research/600-million-year-stromatolites-himalayas-tethys-chambaghat-10034228/

Answer 255

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the continuation of the Interest Subvention (IS) component under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS) for the financial year 2025-26. It is a Central Sector Scheme. It is aimed at ensuring the availability of short-term credit to farmers at an affordable interest rate through Kisan Credit card (KCC). Under the Scheme: Farmers received short-term loans of up to Rs.3 lakh through Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) at a subsidized interest rate of 7%, with 1.5% interest subvention provided to eligible lending institutions. Additionally, farmers repaying loans promptly are eligible for an incentive of up to 3% as Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) effectively reducing their interest rate on KCC loans to 4%. For loans taken exclusively for animal husbandry or fisheries, the interest benefit is applicable up to Rs.2 lakh. No changes have been proposed in the structure or other components of the scheme. The scheme is implemented and monitored by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Through Public Sector Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Cooperative Banks and Private Sector Banks operating in rural and semi urban areas, they ensure that the interest subvention benefits reach the farmers. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2131989#:~:text

Answer 256

1 only Explanation : Recently, tiny plastic pellets (nurdles) found on beaches in Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala following the sinking of the container vessel MSC ELSA3. These are small pre-formed masses of moulding material that have relatively uniform dimensions within a specific batch. These pellets are utilised as raw material in moulding and extrusion operations. When in the form of microplastics, these pellets are commonly referred to as ‘nurdles’ and serve as the foundational material for manufacturing a wide range of plastic products. They are classified as primary microplastics, these pellets and are between from 1 mm to 5 mm in diameter. They constitute a major component in the global plastic chain. Microplastic nurdles are mainly composed of polyethene, polypropylene, polystyrene, and polyvinyl chloride. These pellets are melted and moulded into various products, including packaging, water bottles, toys, and textiles. Impact on Environment These pellets remain a dangerous pollutant. Their short- and long-term impacts include habitat contamination and their breaking up into micro and nano plastics and entering the food chain. They could have serious implications for the marine and coastal ecosystems and humans. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/plastic-pellets-found-on-kerala-coast-after-shipwreck-pose-serious-environmental-impact-warn-experts/article69627808.ece

Answer 257

1 only Explanation : Chief of Defence Staff General Anil Chauhan will visit Singapore to attend the 22nd edition of the Shangri-La Dialogue, hosted annually by the International Institute for Strategic Studies. About Shangri-La Dialogue: It is Asia’s premier defence and security summit that brings together defence ministers, military chiefs, policymakers and strategic experts across the globe. Since its birth in 2002, it has developed into the most influential multilateral security exchange platform in the Asia-Pacific region. It is held in June every year in Singapore's Shangri-La Hotel. It is organized by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS) in London, UK, and co-organized by Singapore's Ministry of Defence. The agenda of the Shangri-La Dialogue is closely related to thesecurity situation and development trend in the Asia-Pacific region, covering traditional and non-traditional security and other fields. These include traditional security issues such as territorial disputes and military cooperation, as well as non-traditional security issues such as terrorism, cybersecurity, and climate change. Such agenda setting enables the dialogue to fully reflect the security challenges and cooperation needs of the Asia-Pacific region. Around the above issues, Shangri-La Dialogue is divided into two forms: open general assembly exchanges and closed-door group meetings. Open exchanges at the conference allow delegates to make speeches and discuss issues of common interest, enhancing mutual understanding and trust. Closed-door breakout sessions are more in-depth and specific, allowing participants to discuss and negotiate on a topic in depth and seek cooperation and solutions. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cds-gen-chauhan-to-engage-with-global-military-leadership-at-shangri-la-dialogue-2025-in-singapore/article69632260.ece

Answer 258

United States Explanation : A U.S. federal court recently blocked President Donald Trump’s broad tariffs, ruling that the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) doesn’t give him authority to impose sweeping import taxes. About International Emergency Economic Powers Act of 1977 (IEEPA): It is a United States act which was legislated on 28 October 1977. It gives the president broad powers to regulate various financial transactions upon declaring a national emergency. The IEEPA empowers the US president to proclaim an unusual and exceptional threat to the federal security, foreign policy, and economy of the United States that originates in whole or in considerable part outside the United States. It also empowers the president to restrict transactions and freeze assets in response to such a statement. In the case of an actual attack on the United States, the president has the authority to seize property associated with a nation, group, or individual that assisted in the attack. In addition, because the IEEPA is governed by the terms of the National Emergencies Act (NEA), an emergency proclaimed under the Act must be renewed annually in order to stay in existence. IEEPA is a treaty that extends executive power over crises during times of peace. The IEEPA empowers the president to respond to uncommon and extraordinary risks to national security by altering the United States' economic policy. The IEEPA serves as the governing authority for much of the US sanctions regime. The US Congress initially passed IEEPA in an attempt to restrict the emergency economic powers granted to the president under the Trading with the Enemy Act, a 1917 law that gave the president expansive authority to regulate international transactions during wartime. President Richard M. Nixon used the precursor statute to briefly impose a 10 percent universal tariff in 1971. No president has previously used IEEPA to put tariffs on imported goods. Instead, presidents have imposed tariffs in response to national security threats using Section 232 of a 1962 trade law. That legal provision differs from IEEPA in part because it requires an investigation and report that has to be issued within 270 days. The provision also focuses on certain imports that threaten to impair U.S. national security. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/global-trends/what-is-the-international-emergency-economic-powers-act-a-1977-law-trump-invoked-to-impose-global-tariffs/articleshow/121484385.cms?from=mdr

Answer 259

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Minister of State for Commerce and Industry recently inaugurated the new unified headquarters of the Quality Council of India (QCI) at the World Trade Centre in New Delhi. About Quality Council of India (QCI): It is a non-profit autonomous organisation registered under Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. It was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations, i.e., Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), with Mr. Ratan Tata as its first Chairman. It is under the administrative control of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. QCI works as the national accreditation body. QCI has been established to create a mechanism for independent third-party assessment of products, services, and processes. Besides the role of putting in place the accreditation structure, it also promotes the adoption of quality standards relating to Quality Management Systems (ISO 14001 Series), Food Safety Management Systems (ISO 22000 Series), and Product Certification and Inspection Bodies through the accreditation services provided by the National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB). It plays a pivotal role at the national level in propagating, adoption, and adherence to quality standards in all important spheres of activities that have significant bearing on improving the quality of life and well-being of the citizens of India. It leads a nationwide quality movement in the country through the National Quality Campaign. QCI functions through the governing body and other executive bodies (boards/committees) for implementing the strategy, policy, and operational guidelines as set out by its governing council. The council comprises 38 members, with equal representation from the Government, Industries and other stakeholders. Indian industry is represented in QCI by three premier industry associations, namely ASSOCHAM, CII, and FICCI. Boards/Divisions under QCI: National Accreditation Board for Testing & Calibration Laboratories (NABL) National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers (NABH) National Accreditation Board for Education & Training (NABET) National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB) National Board for Quality Promotion (NBQP). Every board is functionally independent and works within its area of expertise. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/new-unified-headquarters-of-quality-council-of-india-inaugurated-at-wtc/

Answer 260

1 only Explanation : Unlike in other countries where higher prices have deterred smoking, prices remain low in India; tobacco affordability undermines the World Health Organization’s MPOWER framework and weakens control, hindering efforts to reduce tobacco-related cancers. About MPOWER Framework: In line with the World Health Organization (WHO) Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC), WHO introduced the MPOWER measures in 2008. MPOWER are a set of six cost-effective and high-impact measures that help countries reduce demand for tobacco. These measures include: Monitoring tobacco use and prevention policies. Protecting people from tobacco smoke. Offering help to quit tobacco use. Warning about the dangers of tobacco. Enforcing bans on tobacco advertising, promotion, and sponsorship. Raising taxes on tobacco. The MPOWER measures have played a significant role in encouraging smokers to consider the most effective way to quit smoking. Each letter in MPOWER stands for a measure intended to assist governments in achieving the FCTC's objectives. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/133713/OPS/GQGEEGSTV.1+GV2EEGU6G.1.html

Answer 261

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : SEBI recently announced a sweeping overhaul of its equity F&O framework, introducing a new Future Equivalent (FutEq) method to assess open interest more accurately. About Open Interest: It is a term commonly used in Futures and Options (F&O) trading, where the number of open contracts changes on a daily basis. In simple terms, every trade has two sides: a buyer and a seller. Whenever an F&O contract is traded, it is considered open until one of the parties closes their position through offsetting. Open Interest is the total number of active options and futures contracts that have not yet been settled against an asset at a given time in the trading arena. It is primarily used as an indicator to identify market positions of securities that have not yet been closed for an unknown reason. To summarise, it is referred to as a measure of liquidity in conjunction with market activity. Like any other security traded in the market, it is subject to market changes. When new contracts are created or opened, it rises. A rise in the number of them indicates that there are more buyers and sellers for a specific security. It decreases when positions in existing contracts are closed out by buyers (or holders) and sellers. Investors might make conclusions about the day's market activity by monitoring changes in the open interest at the end of each trading day. Importance of Open Interest in Stock Market: Open interest plays a significant role in helping options traders understand the liquidity of an option. It is a measure of market activity. It indicates if a market will trendor be range-bound, often known as choppy. An increase in open interest indicates that the number of new positions is increasing. This suggests that the market is being traded actively and is more likely to trend, while decreasing open interest indicates money flowing out of the market. After a sustained price gain, a levelling off of Open Interest is usually an early indicator of the end of a bull market phase. To summarise, this type of indicator can be a significant piece of information when evaluating a possible investment. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.businesstoday.in/markets/story/sebi-equity-fo-rules-futeq-method-mwpl-risk-management-478321-2025-05-29

Answer 262

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Uttar Pradesh government, in consultation with the commerce ministry, plans to promote the export of Kalanamak rice to countries with majority or large Buddhist populations. Kalanamak is a traditional variety of paddy with black husk and strong fragrance. It is considered a gift from Lord Buddha to the people of Sravasti when he visited the region after enlightenment. It is traditional, non-basmati aromatic rice grown in eastern Uttar Pradesh, particularly in Siddharthnagar, where it has been designated as an ODOP (one district one product) item. It is also grown in 11 districts of the Terai region of north-eastern Uttar Pradesh and in Nepal, the traditional variety has been prone to ‘lodging’, a reason for its low yield. Lodging: Lodging is a condition in which the top of the plant becomes heavy because of grain formation, the stem becomes weak, and the plant falls on the ground. It is a nutritional powerhouse. It is rich in iron and antioxidants, has a low glycemic index, and is naturally gluten-free, making it a healthy dietary choice, especially for diabetics. It is protected under the Geographical Indication (GI) tag system. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.livemint.com/economy/kalanamak-buddha-rice-export-basmati-india-thailand-vietnam-singapore-up-11748420012713.html

Answer 263

Mongolia Explanation : Recently, the Indian Army contingent departed for 17th edition of India- Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT which is scheduled to be conducted in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia. It is an annual joint military exercise conducted alternatively in India and Mongolia. Last edition of the same exercise was conducted at Umroi, Meghalaya in July 2024. The Indian contingent comprising 45 personnel will be represented mainly by troops from a battalion of the ARUNACHAL SCOUTS. . Aim of the exercise is to enhance interoperability between the two forces while employing joint task force in semi conventional operations in semi urban/ mountainous terrain under United Nations mandate. The scope of this exercise involves Platoon level Field Training Exercise. During the exercise, Indian and Mongolian troops will engage in various training activities. In addition, to enhance complexity of exercise, aspects pertaining to Cyber Warfare are also being incorporated in this edition of the exercise. The exercise underscores the shared commitment of India and Mongolia towards regional security, peace and stability. The exercise reinforces the India-Mongolia relationship as a cornerstone of regional cooperation, fostering strong military ties and promotion of cultural understanding. A testament to the enduring bond of friendship, trust and cultural linkages between India and Mongolia, the exercise sets the stage for meaningful professional engagement, highlighting the unwavering commitment of both nations to broader defence cooperation. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2132473

Answer 264

Only twoExplanation : Recently, the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications launched two transformative digital platforms: ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’. The DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number) is an open-source, interoperable, geo-coded, grid-based digital address system developed by the Department of Posts in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad and NRSC, ISRO. Vision: To offer Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) — an array of services associated with address data management to support secure and efficient interactions between users, government entities, and private sector organisations. The ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ portal enables users to: Retrieve their DIGIPIN based on precise geolocation. Input latitude and longitude coordinates to fetch corresponding DIGIPINs and vice versa. Advantages: This initiative simplifies location mapping, enhances logistics and emergency response, and ensures last-mile delivery, especially in rural and underserved areas. Incorporating DIGIPIN as an additional address attribute enables the leveraging of GIS capabilities, laying the foundation for future GIS-based digitalisation of service delivery across various organisations in a cost-effective manner. DIGIPIN will enhance location accuracy across multiple sectors by providing precise geographic coordinates, ensuring accurate service delivery and reducing emergency response times. A complete repository of the DIGIPIN technical documentation and source code has been made available on GitHub, promoting open collaboration and nationwide adoption. It is now available to all Ministries, State Governments, institutions for integration into their workflows, and users for their own use. About Know Your PIN Code Web Application It is the six-digit PIN Code system, introduced in 1972. The Department undertook a national geofencing exercise across all postal jurisdictions to geo-reference all the pin code boundaries of the country. Features Identify the correct PIN Code based on the location. Submit feedback on PIN Code accuracy for continuous refinement of pin code dataset. The geo-fenced PIN Code boundaries dataset has also been uploaded on Open Government Data Platform under the title “All India PIN Code Boundary geo-json”. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2131707

Answer 265

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the‘Yashoda AI: Your AI SAKHI’ to advance women’s AI literacy and digital awareness was held at the Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Rohilkhand University, Bareilly. It is the initiative of the National Commission for Women (NCW) in collaboration with Future Shift Labs (FSL). It will empower women to contribute meaningfully to a Viksit Bharat driven by technology and inclusion. The Yashoda AI Abhiyan wants to stand as India's effort to empower women, especially from rural and semi-urban communities, with essential skills in Artificial Intelligence, Cybersecurity, and Digital Safety. The program aims to go beyond traditional learning by hosting in-depth discussions on critical issues such as AI-driven crimes, digital privacy, and practical safety strategies. It will actively engaging students, educators, and women from the police force, Yashoda AI Abhiyan wants to experiment in community-driven digital education, ensuring that women are not only participants but leaders in shaping India's tech-savvy future. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/ncw-introduces-yashoda-ai-aims-to-expand-womens-access-to-ai-and-cybersecurity-training/article69609602.ece

Answer 266

2 only Explanation : Recently, the Central government has officially designated an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around the Tral Wildlife Sanctuary. It is located in the Pulwama District of Jammu and Kashmir. It forms an important corridor for the movement of Hangul. It is among the few areas outside Dachigam National Park where a population of this critically endangered Hangul deer still survives. Vegetation: The vegetation of the Sanctuary is typically Himalayan moist temperate forest, sub-alpine forest, and alpine forest types. Flora: Aesculus indica, Fraxinus hookeri, Parrotiopsis jacquemontiana, and Juglans regia. The dominant shrubs include Indigofera heterantha, Lonicera species, Viburnum, Skimmia laurel, Jasminum species etc. Fauna: The area harbours Halgul population. Besides, 15 species of mammals, including some rare ones are also found in the limits of the sanctuary. It is also home to more than 200 species of birds. It functions as a protected wildlife corridor for the endangered Kashmir Stag, also called Hangul. It is home to various endemic species like Kashmir Red Deer (Cervus hanglu hanglu), Kashmir Musk Deer (Moschus cupreus) and Kashmir Gray Langur Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.news18.com/india/saving-kashmirs-iconic-hangul-deer-govt-notifies-eco-sensitive-zone-around-tral-wildlife-sanctuary-9357220.html

Answer 267

Telangana Explanation : Four men using feral dogs to hunt monitor lizards were caught by forest officials in the Achampet division of Amrabad Tiger Reserve recently. About Amrabad Tiger Reserve: It is located in the Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts in the southern part of Telangana. It covers a part of the Nallamala Forest, which is part of the Eastern Ghats chain. It covers a total area of 2,611.39 sq.km, with 2,166.37 sq.km designated as the core area. It is the second largest tiger reserve in the country in terms of core area. This expansive reserve was originally part of the larger Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve before the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in 2014. The reserve is renowned for its rugged terrain, deep valleys, and dense forests. Within the reserve lies the historic Nagalapuram fort. Major reservoirs like the Srishailam Dam and Nagarjunsagar Dam are fed by the river Krishna and its several perennial streams that originate in the ATR. The Chenchu tribe is one of the major tribal communities that live in the ATR. Flora: Amrabad is characterized by dry deciduous forests, primarily made up of sal, teak, bamboo, and acacia trees. The forest is rich in medicinal plants and shrubs, which have long been used by local tribes for traditional remedies. Fauna: Major wild animals found are Tiger, Leopard, Wild dog, Indian Wolf, Indian fox, Rusty-spotted cat, Small Indian civet, Sloth bear, Honeybadger, Wild boar, etc. Over 303 bird species have been identified in this region. Some important groups include Eagles, Pigeons, Doves, Cuckoos, Woodpeckers, Drongos, etc. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/4-held-poaching-monitor-lizards-with-dogs-in-amrabad-tiger-reserve/articleshow/121524245.cms

Answer 268

1 only Explanation : The Prime Minister will take part in a ‘Mahila Sashaktikaran Maha Sammelan’ event in Bhopal on the occasion of the 300th birth anniversary of legendary queen Ahilyabai Holkar. About Ahilyabai Holkar: Maharani Ahilyabai Holkar (31 May 1725 – 13 August 1795) was a ruler of the Malwa territory, a part of the Maratha Confederacy, from 1767 to 1795. She served first as regent and then as ruler of the Holkar dynasty with its seats at Maheshwar and Indore in central India, in a period considered the zenith of the Holkar dynasty. Under her rule Malwa enjoyed relative peace, prosperity, and stability, and her capital, Maheshwar, was turned into an oasis of literary, musical, artistic, and industrial pursuits. She passed away on August 13, 1795, at the age of seventy. Upon her death, Ahilyabai was succeeded by Tukoji Rao Holkar, who abdicated in his son Jaswant Rao’s favor two years later. Jaswant Rao was the last Holkar ruler to remain independent until his 1804 defeat by and subsequent peace with the British. Titles: She is known as Punyashlok(“One as Pure as the Sacred Chants”). John Keay, the British historian, gave the queen the title of ‘The Philosopher Queen’. Military Contribution: She was military-trained under her father-in-law, Malhar Rao Holkar, and personally led armiesinto battle. Ahilyabai appointed Malhar Rao’s adopted son, Tukoji Rao Holkar, the commander of the Holkar army. She engaged the Frenchman Chevelier Dudrenec in 1792 to help modernize her army by raising four battalions. Administration: She earned a reputation for administering justice fairly during her rule, without partiality or partisanship. Ex: She sentenced her only son, found guilty of a capital offense, to death by being crushed by an elephant. She established courts for justice and arbitration in citizens’ disputes. She also made some landmark decisions during her reign, including the removal of traditional law confiscating the property of childless widows. She was known for being accessible to all her subjects and held daily audiences where people could approach her. Breaking another norm of the time, Ahilyabai did not observe the custom of purdah (seclusion of women). Cultural Contribution: She welcomed stalwarts such as Marathi poet Moropant, Shahir Ananta Gandhi, and Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram into her capital. She made Maheshwar (literally, “abode of Lord Shiva”) her capital and offered employment to several craftsmen, artists, and sculptors. She was a great pioneer and builder of Hindu temples. She built hundreds of temples and Dharmashalas throughout India. Her most notable contribution was the renovation and repair of the famous Kashi Vishwanath Temple in 1780. Ahilyabai also helped construct multiple forts, roads, wells, and rest houses. Promotion of craft: She established a textile industry in Maheshwar, which today is very famous for its Maheshwari sarees. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/madhya-pradesh/pm-modi-to-take-part-in-bhopal-event-on-300th-birth-anniversary-of-ahilyabai-holkar-launch-projects-3564094

Answer 269

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Exporters may no longer be denied duty-free import benefits under the Advance Authorisation (AA) scheme simply because their goods were shipped before the licence was issued. About Advance Authorisation Scheme (AAS): Advance Authorisation is issued to allow duty-free import of input, which is physically incorporated in the export product (making normal allowance for wastage). The inputs imported are exempt from duties like Basic Customs Duty, Additional Customs Duty, Education Cess, Anti-dumping duty, Safeguard Duty and Transition Product-Specific Safeguard duty, Integrated tax, and Compensation Cess, wherever applicable, subject to certain conditions. An export obligation is usually set as a condition for issuing Advance Authorization. In addition to any inputs,packaging material, fuel, oil and catalysts which are consumed/utilized in the process of production of export products, are also allowed. The quantity of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product, which considers the wastage generated in the manufacturing process. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) provides a sector-wise list of Standard Input-Output Norms (SION) under which the exporters may choose to apply. Alternatively, exporters may apply for their own ad-hoc norms in cases where the SION does not suit the exporter. It is available to either a manufacturer exporter directly or a merchant exporter tied with a supporting manufacturer. The authorization is available for the following: Physical exports Intermediate supply Supplies made to specified categories of deemed exports Supply of ‘stores’ on board of a foreign-going vessel/aircraft, provided that there are specific Standard Input Output Norms (SION) in respect of items supplied. Advance Authorization is valid for 12 months from the date of issue of such Authorization. Export Obligation: Minimum value addition of 15% Period for fulfilment of export obligation: 18 months from the date of issue of authorisation or as notified by DGFT. Recent Changes: Even if goods have already been shipped or have arrived in India, they can still be cleared under an Advance Authorisation granted later by the DGFT, provided the importer files the Bill of Entry after the licence date. The relevant date for eligibility under the AA scheme is the date of filing the Bill of Entry. This is a legal Customs document submitted to Indian Customs to get the goods cleared, not the date of shipment from the foreign country. However, this relaxation won’t apply to restricted goods or products that can only be imported through designated government agencies, unless the DGFT gives special permission. Hence both statements are not correct. News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/govt-to-relax-advance-authorisation-scheme-for-exporters-125052901007_1.html

Answer 270

2 only Explanation : Union Minister of Jal Shakti recently launched Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) 2025, a nationwide rural sanitation survey by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS). About Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025 (SSG 2025): It is a nationwide rural sanitation survey by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti. It will measure the impact of India’s flagship cleanliness program, Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM). The survey will rigorously assess the current state of rural sanitation, focusing on sustaining the outcomes achieved under the Open Defecation Free (ODF) Plus Model, as established by the Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G). The assessment will include sampling village evaluations, surveying households and public places to gauge their status based on various cleanliness parameters. This includes the functionality of Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, GOBARdhan plants, citizen feedback, and Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR) sites. The main objective of the survey is to provide a national ranking for all States, Union Territories, and Districts of India based on the quantitative and qualitative sanitation parameters outlined under the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM-II). The survey will verify the status of ODF Plus Model villages, schools, public buildings, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and institutions. The Department of Drinking Water Supply has engaged an independent agency to conduct the survey. A structured approach shall be followed to evaluate the status of States/UTs and Districts on key performance outcomes of SBM Phase-II and they will be ranked across four key components: Service-Level Progress (SLP), based on data from district self-assessment reports and desktop verification of ODF Plus Model Verified villages. Direct Observation of Sanitation Status of Villages, through field-based observation in sampled villages, households, and public places, including schools, CSCs, etc. Direct Observation of Functionality of Sanitation Infrastructure, such as Plastic Waste Management Units, GOBARdhan plants, and Faecal Sludge Management systems. SSG 2025 Citizen Feedback, gathered via a mobile application and one-on-one interactions during the field survey. These elements shall be grouped into sub-components to derive a composite score, ensuring a transparent, technology-driven, and community-led assessment process. To uphold the data integrity, a geo-fencing feature has been introduced in the Survey and further, to promote public engagement, a dedicated mobile app has been created to gather citizen feedback. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2132486

Answer 271

2 only Explanation : Archaeologists recently unearthed the remains of a Maya city nearly 3,000 years old in northern Guatemala, with pyramids and monuments that point to its significance as an important ceremonial site. About Maya Civilization: The term "Maya" refers to both a modern-day group of people who live across the globe and their ancestors who built an ancient civilization that stretched across much of Central America. The Maya are probably the best-known of the classical civilizations of Mesoamerica. Before the Spanish conquest of Mexico and Central America, the Maya possessed one of the greatest civilizations of the Western Hemisphere. Originating in the Yucatán peninsula around 2600 B.C., they rose to prominence around A.D. 250 in present-day southern Mexico, Guatemala, northern Belize, and western Honduras. Building on the inherited inventions and ideas of earlier civilizations, the Maya developed astronomy, calendrical systems, and hieroglyphic writing (a system that employs characters in the form of pictures). The Mayans developed a precise and sophisticated calendar that followed the movement of the sun, moon, and stars. The Mayan calendar is so precise that it even includes a leap day adjustment to keep the calendar synchronized with the solar year. The Mayans created a system of hieroglyphic writing that includes more than 800 different glyphs. This writing was used to record the history, astronomy, mathematics, and religion of the Maya culture. The Maya were noted as well for elaborate and highly decorated ceremonial architecture, including temple-pyramids, palaces, and observatories, all built without metal tools. They were also skilled farmers, clearing large sections of tropical rain forest and, where groundwater was scarce, building sizable underground reservoirs for the storage of rainwater. The Maya were equally skilled as weavers and potters, and cleared routes through jungles and swamps to foster extensive trade networks with distant peoples. The Maya made paper from the inner bark of wild fig trees and wrote their hieroglyphs on books made from this paper. Those books are called codices. The Maya also developed an elaborate and beautiful tradition of sculpture and relief carving. Their society consisted of many independent states, each with a rural farming community and large urban sites built around ceremonial centers. At its height, Mayan civilization consisted of more than 40 cities, each with a population between 5,000 and 50,000. The peak Mayan population may have reached two million people,most of whom were settled in the lowlands of what is now Guatemala. After 900 CE, however, the Classic Maya civilization declined precipitously, leaving the great cities and ceremonial centres vacant and overgrown with jungle vegetation. The Maya peoplesnever disappeared, neither at the time of the Classic period decline nor with the arrival of the Spanish conquerors and the subsequent Spanish colonization of the Americas. The Maya remain in contemporary Mesoamerican societies, and maintain a distinctive set of traditions and beliefs, combined with more recent practices such as the almost total adoption of Roman Catholicism. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://edition.cnn.com/2025/05/30/science/mayan-complex-unearthed-guatemala-intl-hnk

Answer 272

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the President of India presented the National Florence Nightingale Awards for the year 2025 to the nurses at a function held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. It was instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India in the year 1973. It is a prestigious award given to outstanding nursing personnel employed in Central, State/UTs and Voluntary Organizations. It was awarded as a mark of recognition for the meritorious services rendered by the nurses and nursing professionals to the society. The nurse in her/his regular job in the hospital or community settings, educational or administrative setting is eligible for the national award. It consists of a Certificate of Merit, Cash Award of Rs.1,00,000/- and a medal. Who is Florence Nightingale? Florence Nightingale was an English social reformer, statistician and the founder of modern nursing. Nightingale came to prominence while serving as a manager and trainer of nurses during the Crimean War, in which she organised care for wounded soldiers at Constantinople. Her efforts to formalize nursing education led her to establish the first scientifically based nursing school—the Nightingale School of Nursing, at St. Thomas’ Hospital in London. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2132607

Answer 273

Lizard Explanation : Recently, Calotes zolaiking, a rare lizard species, was recorded for the first time in Meghalaya. It is a species of garden lizard, was first described in 2019 from Mizoram’s Aizawl district by a team of scientists. Appearance: These are about 5 inches long and their bodies are various shades of green with dark patches throughout. They are “strongly keeled,” meaning each of the lizard’s long scales has a ridge in the middle, giving it a sharper overall appearance. India is home to 14 species of Calotes, nine of which have been recorded in the Northeast. What are Calotes? These are arboreal (tree-dwelling) lizards of the family Agamidae and are remarkable for their extreme colour changes when excited. They are diurnal, run fast on ground and swims in water. Distribution: It is found in gardens and forests of India, Sri Lanka, Southeast Asia, and some Pacific islands. Diet: Their diet is made up of insects and other small invertebrates. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/rare-lizard-in-meghalaya-fuels-grassroots-conservation-efforts/article69638506.ece

Answer 274

Only Two Explanation : Recently, the central government notified 34 biostimulants to spur manufacturing. These are substances or microorganisms applied to plants or soil to stimulate natural processes and also work by enhancing the plant’s own physiological abilities. Biostimulants are products that reduce the need for fertilizers and increase plant growth, resistance to water and abiotic stresses. They improve overall plant health and productivity by targeting processes such as root development, nutrient efficiency, stress tolerance (drought, salinity, extreme temperatures), soil microbial activity. In addition, biostimulants applied to plants enhance nutrition efficiency, abiotic stress tolerance and/or plant quality traits, regardless of its nutrient contents. Common types of biostimulants include: Humic and fulvic acids, seaweed extracts, beneficial fungi and bacteria (e.g., mycorrhizae, rhizobacteria). In India Biostimulants are incorporated under the Fertilizer (Control) Order,1985. Advantages of Biostimulants Improving plant tolerance to abiotic stress on plants, including drought, extreme temperatures (cold, frost, and heat), and salinity Enhancing uptake and efficient use of nutrients, both applied and existing Improving soil health by enhancing beneficial soil microorganisms Enhancing crop quality through plant health and vigor Increasing harvestable yields Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/centres-notifiction-of-34-biostimulants-to-spur-manufacturing/article69634267.ece

Answer 275

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Ayush; and Union Minister of State, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India launched the Ayush Suraksha Portal at Ayush Bhawan, New Delhi. This portal represents a significant advancement in pharmacovigilance and regulatory convergence within the Ayush ecosystem. It is developed with the technical support of the Central Council for Research in Siddha (CCRS). It is aligned with the National Pharmacovigilance Program, allows consumers, healthcare professionals, and regulatory authorities to report and monitor misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions through a seamless digital process. The system integrates multiple authorities, including the Ayush vertical under CDSCO, MoI&B, CCPA, NCISM, NCH, PCI, FSSAI, and State Licensing Authorities, ensuring coordinated response and enforcement. Significance: The Ministry of Ayush now has a centralised and accessible dashboard of reported cases, enabling real-time tracking, swift regulatory action, and detailed data analysis. The system also ensures that citizens have a direct channel to voice their concerns, with transparent visibility into the action taken on their reports. By integrating data from State Licensing Authorities, national pharmacovigilance centres, and key regulatory stakeholders, the portal facilitates real-time monitoring, systematic analysis, and coordinated action on misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions. It reflects the Ministry’s unwavering commitment to responsible governance, evidence-based practices, and the safety of millions of citizens who trust and rely on India’s traditional systems of medicine. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2132705

Answer 276

1 only Explanation : Tata Elxsi, in collaboration with prominent consortium partners has showcased the innovative Battery Aadhaar concept at the Battery Summit 2025, organised by the World Resources Institute (WRI) India. It aims to provide batteries with secure, digital identities, facilitating traceability and improving lifecycle transparency. This system would assign a unique digital identity to each battery pack, enabling the tracking of manufacturing origin, battery chemistry, safety certifications and lifecycle performance The initiative seeks to prevent unsafe reuse and mitigate environmental risks. This approach ensures compliance with regulatory standards and promotes sustainable practices within the battery industry. It is supported by a UNEP-led programme named 'Electrifying Mobility in Cities', coordinated by NITI Aayog and the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India. Key features include Digital Product Passport creation, lifecycle mapping, public and private data access, role-based dashboards, and real-time battery analytics such as health prediction and residual life estimation. It is built on blockchain, MOBIUS+ ensures transparent data flows and tamper-proof audit trails. This support highlights the initiative's alignment with India's broader sustainable mobility goals and efforts to establish circular energy systems. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.businesstoday.in/amp/markets/stocks/story/tata-elxsi-presents-battery-aadhaar-concept-power

Answer 277

1 only Explanation : The Census Act, 1948 is the primary legislation that provides the legal framework for conducting the Census in India. It empowers the Central Government to conduct a population census at regular intervals (every 10 years). So, Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India, under Article 246 read with Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule, gives the Union Government the exclusive power to conduct the Census. It is not the State Governments that conduct it independently. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, oversees the exercise. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 278

1, 2 and 4 only Explanation : The NSAB is part of the National Security Council (NSC) system and acts as its advisory body on security and strategic issues. So, Statement 1 is correct. Members of the NSAB are usually eminent individuals from outside the government, such as retired civil servants, diplomats, military officers, academics, and strategic analysts. So, Statement 2 is correct. The NSAB does not have statutory status. It is a part of the executive setup under the National Security Council Secretariat and was established by executive order. It is not constituted under the National Security Act, 1980. So, Statement 3 is not correct. One of the main functions of the NSAB is to provide long-term strategic assessments and policy recommendations to the NSC on matters related to national security. So, Statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 279

1, 2 and 3 only Explanation : These platforms may incentivize people to follow news and developments closely, promoting greater civic engagement. So, Statement 1 is correct. There is a risk of manipulation, such as coordinated buying/selling to artificially boost certain outcomes, which can mislead the public and undermine democratic integrity. So, Statement 2 is correct. Aggregated market predictions can provide a real-time gauge of public expectations, which might be useful for policy feedback loops. So, Statement 3 is correct. While these platforms can supplement opinion polling, they cannot replace scientifically conducted polls, which use rigorous sampling methods and are essential for ensuring representation across demographics. So, Statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 280

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Ukraine is rich in critical raw materials, particularly lithium, titanium, rare earth elements, and other strategic minerals used in electric vehicles, batteries, semiconductors, and military equipment. It has some of the largest reserves in Europe. So, Statement 1 is correct. The European Union has increasingly viewed Ukraine as a strategic partner to help diversify its supply of critical minerals, thereby reducing dependence on China and Russia. The war has further highlighted Ukraine’s importance in the EU’s resource security strategy. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer 281

1 and 2 only Explanation : Easterlies, also called Trade Winds, are winds that blow from the east to the west in the tropics, especially between the equator and 30° latitude. They are a major component of the tropical circulation system. So, Statement 1 is correct. A trough is an elongated region of low pressure. It is associated with rising air, cloud formation, and unstable weather, often bringing rainfall or thunderstorms. So, Statement 2 is correct. Easterly troughs are not associated with anticyclonic conditions or clear skies. Instead, they are often linked with cyclonic circulation in the lower atmosphere and can lead to disturbed weather, especially during the monsoon season in the Indian subcontinent. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 282

1 and 2 only Explanation : Ranjit Sagar Dam (Thein Dam) is situated in Punjab, near village Thein, and is built on the Ravi River. It serves hydroelectric and multipurpose functions. So, Statement 1 is correct. Pong Dam, also known as Maharana Pratap Sagar, is located in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh and was constructed on the Beas River. So, Statement 2 is correct. While Pong Dam is in Himachal Pradesh, the Ranjit Sagar Dam is in Punjab. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 283

1 only Explanation : The Baglihar Dam is a hydroelectric power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir (now a Union Territory). So, Statement 1 is correct. The Kishanganga Dam is located in Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, not in Himachal Pradesh. It is built on the Kishanganga River, which is a tributary of the Jhelum River, not on the Jhelum itself. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 284

1 and 2 only Explanation : The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) offers free vaccination against several vaccine-preventable diseases such as measles, diphtheria, tetanus, polio, TB, etc., to children and pregnant women. So, Statement 1 is correct. Mission Indradhanush, launched in 2014, aims to increase immunization coverage in low-performing districts and reach unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children. So, Statement 2 is correct. The UIP is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), not the Ministry of Women and Child Development. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 285

1 and 2 only Explanation : De-oiled Cakes (DOCs) are the residue left after oil extraction from oilseeds such as soybean, mustard, groundnut, etc. They are rich in protein and commonly used as cattle feed and organic manure. So, Statement 1 is correct. India is a major exporter of soybean and groundnut DOC, especially to countries like Vietnam, Indonesia, and other parts of Southeast Asia. So, Statement 2 is correct. DOCs, particularly those from soybean, are also used in aquaculture feed because of their high protein content, and their use is not limited to agriculture. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 286

1 only Explanation : Genome editing is a method by which the DNA of a living organism can be modified—this includes adding, removing, or altering genetic material at particular locations. It is used in research, medicine, and agriculture. So, Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool, but it does not use protein-based sequencing to read or duplicate genomes. Instead, it uses a guide RNA and the Cas9 enzyme to make precise cuts in the DNA, enabling targeted modifications. It edits the genome; it doesn't read or duplicate it like sequencing technologies do. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 287

1 only Explanation : The Civil Defence Act, 1968 empowers the government to undertake necessary civil protection measures during war, external aggression, or emergency situations, including natural disasters. So, Statement 1 is correct. Civil Defence volunteers are increasingly used in peacetime, especially for disaster management, public awareness, and community assistance during natural and man-made emergencies. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence, is the nodal agency for Civil Defence in India. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 288

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Satellite communication systems operate in microwave frequency ranges, particularly C-band, Ku-band and Ka-band, due to their ability to penetrate the atmosphere and support long-distance communication. So, Statement 1 is correct. In India, satellite spectrum allocation is managed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), in coordination with the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), which assigns orbital slots and frequencies globally to avoid interference. So, Statement 2 is correct. Unlike terrestrial spectrum (used by mobile operators), satellite spectrum is generally shared and coordinated globally. In India, it is not auctioned but assigned administratively to prevent interference and ensure efficient global usage. So, Statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Answer 289

1 and 3 only Explanation : HAMMER (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) is an air-to-ground precision strike weapon developed by Safran Electronics & Defense (France). It can be launched from fighter aircraft such as the Rafale. So, Statement 1 is correct. SCALP (also known as Storm Shadow) is a long-range air-launched cruise missile, developed jointly by France and the UK (MBDA). It is not developed with India, and it is used primarily with aircraft, not naval platforms. So, Statement 2 is not correct. METEOR is a beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM) developed by MBDA, and is considered one of the most advanced in the world. It is integrated with Rafale and several other European fighter jets. So, Statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 290

Greenwashing Explanation : Greenwashing refers to the misleading marketing or branding by companies to appear more environmentally friendly than they actually are. In this case, the company markets the product as eco-friendly, but fails to meet actual sustainability standards, making it a clear instance of greenwashing. Ethical sourcing, carbon offsetting, and circular economy involve genuine sustainable practices—none apply here as accurately as greenwashing does. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 291

1 and 2 only Explanation : The S-400 Triumf is a Russian long-range surface-to-air defense system capable of targeting aircraft, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles at ranges up to 400 km. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Barak 8 MRSAM (Medium range surface-to-air missile system) is a joint Indo-Israeli development, used by the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force to intercept aerial threats at medium range. So, Statement 2 is correct. HAROP is not an anti-tank missile, but a loitering munition (suicide drone) developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI). It is used for targeting radar installations and high-value assets, not specifically armored vehicles. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 292

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The EFF provides financial assistance to countries facing prolonged balance of payments problems, typically due to deep-rooted structural issues. It supports structural reforms over an extended period (usually 3–4 years). So, Statement 1 is correct. The RSF, launched in 2022, is a newer instrument aimed at helping vulnerable low- and middle-income countries build resilience to external shocks, including climate-related risks and pandemic preparedness. So, Statement 2 is correct

Answer 293

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Turkey is indeed a transcontinental country, with a smaller portion (East Thrace) in Europe, and the majority (Anatolia) in Asia. So, Statement 1 is correct.Bosphorus Strait – IAS4Sure The Bosphorus Strait is a narrow passage that separates European Turkey from Asian Turkey, and it connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara—playing a major role in international maritime trade and geopolitics. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer 294

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism is an initiative by the European Union to impose a carbon price on certain imports to align them with the EU’s climate standards. So, Statement 1 is correct. The main aim of CBAM is to prevent carbon leakage, where businesses relocate production to countries with weaker emission norms, thereby undermining global climate goals. It aims to ensure that imported goods face the same carbon costs as goods produced within the EU. This means that imported goods will have to cover the embedded carbon emissions in their production, mirroring the carbon pricing system within the EU. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer 295

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : DBUs are physical branches aimed at enhancing digital financial inclusion, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas. So, statement 1 is correct. As per RBI guidelines, DBUs must provide self-service digital infrastructure (e.g., kiosks, ATMs) along with staff support to assist customers in using digital services effectively. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 296

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : India officially adopted a No First Use (NFU) policy, meaning it will not initiate a nuclear strike, but will respond with massive retaliation if attacked with nuclear weapons. So, statement 1 is correct. India reserves the right to respond with nuclear weapons to attacks by chemical or biological weapons, as per the doctrine announced in 2003. So, statement 2 is correct. The doctrine emphasizes maintaining a credible minimum deterrent — a nuclear arsenal sufficient to deter adversaries without engaging in an arms race. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 297

A synthetic opioid significantly more potent than morphine Explanation : Fentanyl is a powerful synthetic opioid used medically for pain relief, especially in cancer and post-surgery patients. It is estimated to be 50 to 100 times more potent than morphine. Illicitly manufactured fentanyl has been a major driver of the opioid overdose crisis, particularly in the United States.

Answer 298

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Integrated Air Command and Control System (IACCS) is developed by Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) for the Indian Air Force. It is an automated system that integrates the air defence assets of the Indian Armed Forces into a centralised network. This enhances coordinated responses to aerial threats. So, statement 1 is correct. IACCS combines inputs from various surveillance sources, including ground-based radars, satellites, and airborne early warning systems (like AWACS and AEW&C aircraft) and enables real-time tracking and interception of potential threats, ensuring a seamless and efficient air defence mechanism. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 299

1 and 2 only Explanation : Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for two classes of advocates: Senior Advocates and other Advocates. It also empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to designate Senior Advocates based on ability, standing at the Bar, or special knowledge or experience. So, statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court and High Courts have exclusive authority to confer the designation of Senior Advocate. The process involves scrutiny by a permanent committee as per guidelines issued in cases like Indira Jaising v. Supreme Court of India (2017). So, statement 2 is correct. Once designated as a Senior Advocate, certain restrictions apply: they cannot file vakalatnamas, cannot appear without an Advocate-on-Record in the Supreme Court and cannot directly deal with clients. They are expected to work through briefing lawyers to maintain a certain standard of professional conduct. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 300

2 only Explanation : The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. So, statement 1 is not correct. PLFS provides: Annual estimates of employment and unemployment for both rural and urban areas, using a July–June reference period. Quarterly estimates of key labour market indicators such as the unemployment rate(UR), worker population ratio(WPR), and labour force participation rate(LFPR) specifically for urban areas using the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 301

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : DEWs use focused energy—lasers, microwaves, or particle beams—rather than kinetic projectiles, to disable, damage, or destroy enemy targets. They are part of emerging advanced military technologies. So, statement 1 is correct. DEWs have several advantages: Speed of light engagement, meaning near-instant hit. Low per-shot cost compared to traditional missiles. Precision targeting, leading to minimal collateral damage. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 302

3 only Explanation : Article 143 (1): The President may refer any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise. Here, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the president. So, statements 1 & 2 are not correct. Article 143(2): It allows the President to refer disputes arising from out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, sanad or other similar instruments. The SC must tender its opinion to the President. In both cases, the opinion expressed by the SC is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 303

1, 2 and 4 only Explanation : The KMTTP connects Mizoram (India) with Sittwe Port (Myanmar), enhancing connectivity to India’s Northeast. So, statement 1 is correct. The project is called multi-modal because it includes sea (Kolkata to Sittwe), inland waterways (Sittwe to Paletwa) and road transport (Paletwa to Zorinpui in Mizoram). So, statement 2 is correct. It is a bilateral project between India and Myanmar, not involving Thailand. So, statement 3 is not correct. It provides an alternative route to the Northeast, bypassing the narrow and vulnerable Siliguri Corridor (Chicken's Neck). So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 304

1, 2 and 4 only Explanation : The Santals are one of the largest tribal groups in India, mainly inhabiting Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal, with some presence in Bihar and Assam. So, statement 1 is correct. The Santhal Rebellion also known as the Hul Rebellion (1855–56), was a major tribal uprising led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu against British rule and oppressive landlords. So, statement 2 is correct. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in the 20th century (specifically in 1925), not the 19th century. So, statement 3 is not correct. Sohrai is a popular harvest and cattle festival celebrated by tribal communities, including the Santals. So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 305

1 only Explanation : Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) are developed and managed by the Land Ports Authority of India (LPAI). They aim to streamline cross-border trade, immigration and security functions under one roof. So, statement 1 is correct. While several ICPs are located on the India-Nepal and India-Bangladesh borders, India has ICPs on other borders too, including India-Pakistan (Attari) and India-Myanmar (Moreh). So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 306

Doxxing Explanation : Doxxing refers to the act of publicly revealing previously private personal information (like addresses, phone numbers, etc.) about an individual without their consent, typically to harass, shame, or endanger them. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 307

2 only Explanation : The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) was established in 2006 under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, to strengthen tiger conservation. So, statement 1 is not correct. The NTCA has the statutory authority to notify Critical Tiger Habitats (CTHs) in protected areas and ensure they are kept inviolate, meaning free from human disturbances, to support viable tiger populations. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 308

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The e-Zero FIR enables a victim to lodge an FIR online from any location, even if the crime did not occur within the jurisdiction of that police station. So, statement 1 is correct. This feature is particularly beneficial in time-sensitive cases like sexual violence, cybercrimes, or missing persons, where immediate action is crucial regardless of jurisdiction. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 309

1 only Explanation : The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India is a statutory requirement under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and is regulated by the EIA Notification of 2006 issued under this Act. So, statement 1 is correct. Public consultation is not mandatory for all categories. For example, projects concerning national defense, strategic importance, or those located in notified industrial estates may be exempt from public consultation under certain conditions. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 310

1 only Explanation : The 6 GHz spectrum is seen as crucial for next-generation Wi-Fi (Wi-Fi 6E and Wi-Fi 7), offering faster speeds, lower latency and higher capacity—ideal for dense urban environments and smart applications. So, statement 1 is correct. In India, the 6 GHz band is under consideration for shared use, including unlicensed use for Wi-Fi. It has not been exclusively allocated for satellite communication. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) and the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) are still deliberating how to use this spectrum efficiently. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 311

1 and 2 only Explanation : The World Health Assembly (WHA) is indeed the decision-making body of the World Health Organization (WHO). It sets the policies and approves the budget of the organization. So, statement 1 is correct. In the WHA, each member state has one vote, regardless of its size, population, or financial contribution to the WHO. So, statement 2 is correct. WHA resolutions are not legally binding. They are recommendations or guidelines for member states, but implementation depends on the national governments' discretion. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 312

1 only Explanation : The GSP is a preferential trade arrangement in which developed countries grant tariff concessions to developing and least developed countries to promote their exports and economic growth. So, statement 1 is correct. While India was a beneficiary under the U.S. GSP, the U.S. terminated India’s GSP status in 2019. However, India is still a beneficiary under the EU GSP scheme. So, statement 2 is not correct. The GSP is not administered by the WTO. It is a unilateral arrangement by individual developed countries. While it aligns with GATT principles (specifically the "enabling clause"), it is not a WTO-administered program. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 313

1 only Explanation : The Asiatic Lions wild population is found in and around the Gir Forest National Park in Gujarat. So, Statement 1 is correct. Due to sustained conservation, the IUCN moved the Asiatic lion from “Endangered” (2008) to Vulnerable (2025) on its Red List. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Contrary to this, the population of Asiatic Lions has been gradually increasing due to sustained conservation efforts by the Gujarat Forest Department and other agencies. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 314

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The National Mission for Green India is one of the eight missions under India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), launched in 2010 to address climate change challenges. So, Statement 1 is correct. The mission aims to increase forest/tree cover on 5 million hectares of forest/non-forest lands and improve the quality of forest cover on another 5 million hectares, thereby enhancing ecosystem services like carbon sequestration and biodiversity. So, Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 315

Regulate stablecoins—cryptocurrencies pegged to stable assets like the U.S. dollar Explanation : The GENIUS Act is a U.S. legislative proposal that seeks to bring regulatory clarity to the stablecoin market, ensuring consumer protection, financial stability, and transparency in the use of crypto-assets that are pegged to stable asset like the U.S. dollar. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 316

U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) Explanation : The Student and Exchange Visitor Program (SEVP) is operated under the U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE). It manages foreign students and exchange visitors in the United States through the SEVIS system (Student and Exchange Visitor Information System), ensuring compliance with visa regulations. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 317

1 only Explanation : The Land Ports Authority of India (LPAI) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Home Affairs, responsible for the development, management, and operation of Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) or land ports along India’s land borders. The Land Ports Authority of India is established under the Land Ports Authority of India Act, 2010. So, Statement 1 is correct. Land Ports facilitate both goods and passenger movement. ICPs at land ports are designed to streamline cross-border trade and people-to-people movement, with customs, immigration, and security services integrated under one roof. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 318

Dividend from public sector undertakings (PSUs) Explanation : The RBI's revenue comes mainly from: Interest earned on foreign assets (like U.S. Treasury bonds). Interest on domestic government securities. Gains from open market operations (OMO). Seigniorage, which is the profit made by issuing currency. Dividends from PSUs are not a source of RBI's revenue. These are sources of revenue for the Government of India, not the RBI. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 319

A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 Explanation : Section 152: Pertains to acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Section 196: Deals with promoting enmity between different groups on grounds such as religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony. Section 197: Concerns imputations and assertions prejudicial to national integration. Section 299: Relates to deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs.

Answer 320

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : IN-SPACe is an autonomous agency established in 2020 under the Department of Space to regulate and promote private sector participation in space activities. So, Statement 1 is correct. IN-SPACe serves as a single-window agency for the promotion, authorization, and monitoring of space activities by non-governmental entities (NGEs), including startups and private companies. So, Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 321

1 only Explanation : Outgoing Longwave Radiation (OLR) is the energy emitted from Earth and its atmosphere in the form of infrared radiation. It plays a critical role in Earth's energy balance. So, Statement 1 is correct. Greenhouse gases trap infrared radiation, reducing the amount of OLR that escapes into space. Hence, an increase in greenhouse gases decreases the OLR, especially from the surface, contributing to global warming. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 322

1 and 2 only Explanation : The Madden-Julian Oscillation is an eastward-moving disturbance of clouds and rainfall that cycles through the tropics approximately every 30–60 days. So, Statement 1 is correct. The MJO significantly influences the Indian monsoon. When its active (wet) phase is over the Indian Ocean, it tends to enhance monsoon rainfall over India. So, Statement 2 is correct. The MJO is not stationary; it moves eastward from the Indian Ocean across the Pacific and further. This eastward propagation is one of its defining features. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 323

1 only Explanation : MARPOL is the main international convention aimed at preventing pollution from ships — both accidental and operational. It was adopted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). So, statement 1 is correct. Annex VI of MARPOL addresses air pollution from ships, not oil pollution. Oil pollution is covered under Annex I of MARPOL. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 324

2 and 4 only Explanation : Oilzapper is a bioremediation product developed by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) in collaboration with ONGC, but it uses naturally occurring, non-genetically modified oil-degrading bacteria, not GMOs. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Oilzapper uses a mix of oil-degrading bacteria that break down hydrocarbons into simpler, non-toxic substances like carbon dioxide and water, making it a safe bioremediation method. So, Statement 2 is correct. While mechanical methods like booms, skimmers, and vacuum pumps are commonly used, they are not the only effective methods. Bioremediation (like Oilzapper), chemical dispersants, and burning (in-situ burning) are also used depending on the context. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Bioremediation methods like Oilzapper are considered more eco-friendly as they do not introduce toxic substances and promote the natural breakdown of pollutants. So, Statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 325

1 only Explanation : Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is an economic theory that allows the comparison of the purchasing power of various world currencies to one another. It uses a "basket of goods" to compare price levels, accounting for differences in cost of living and inflation. So, Statement 1 is correct. GDP at PPP is usually higher for developing countries (like India) than their GDP at market exchange rates. This is because domestic goods and services tend to be cheaper in these countries when compared on a dollar basis. Hence, PPP-adjusted GDP shows greater real output and consumption levels than nominal GDP. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 326

1 only Explanation : According to Article 93 of the Indian Constitution, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the House from among themselves, just like the Speaker. So, statement 1 is correct. The Deputy Speaker does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. Instead, they hold office until they cease to be a member of the House or resign, and they can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 327

1 only Explanation : Under the Drone Rules, 2021, all drones except those in the Nano category (weighing less than or equal to 250 grams and flying below 50 feet) must obtain a Unique Identification Number (UIN) through the Digital Sky platform to operate legally in India. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Civil Aviation (through the Directorate General of Civil Aviation - DGCA) is the primary regulatory authority for civilian UAS operations in India. The Ministry of Defence may be involved in security clearances, but it is not the nodal authority for civilian drone regulation. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 328

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), enacted in 1977, empowers the President of the United States to deal with unusual and extraordinary threats to national security, foreign policy, or the economy, if they originate in whole or substantial part outside the U.S. So, Statement 1 is correct. Under IEEPA, once a national emergency is declared, the President can block assets, restrict trade, and prohibit financial transactions involving foreign entities without needing prior approval from Congress, but require to notify Congress about their actions. So, Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 329

1 only Explanation : The National Air Quality Index (AQI) launched by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is based on eight pollutants: PM10; PM2.5; NO₂ (Nitrogen Dioxide); SO₂ (Sulphur Dioxide); CO (Carbon Monoxide); O₃ (Ozone); NH₃ (Ammonia); Pb (Lead). So, Statement 1 is correct. According to CPCB's AQI categorization: AQI 201–300 is categorized as "Poor" AQI 301–400 is categorized as "Very Poor" AQI 401–500 is categorized as "Severe". So, Statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

May 2025 Flashcards

(354 cards)