MBE Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

How does a deed of trust work?

A

In some states, a deed of trust (or trust deed) is used in place of a mortgage. The borrower (landowner) delivers title to real property to a third-party trustee (typically the lender’s lawyer) as security for the payment of the note to the beneficiary (lender), with the condition that the trustee re-conveys the title to the borrower upon payment of the note. If the borrower fails to pay the note (defaults), then the beneficiary instructs the trustee to sell the land to repay the note. When the property is transferred by trustee in violation of the trust, an equitable lien may be imposed on the transferred property in favor of the lender.

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2
Q

To whom does the work product doctrine apply?

A

Rule 26(b)(3) provides limited protection for otherwise discoverable trial preparation materials OR attorneys’ work product. In general, a party may not discover documents and tangible things that are prepared in anticipation of litigation OR for trial by OR for another party OR its representative.

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3
Q

How must an opposing party seek discovery of privileged qualified work product?

A

By court order

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4
Q

Two types of work product - Absolute and qualified

A

absolute: docs containing subjective thoughts of a party’s lawyer or other representative are given absolute immunity from discovery which is nearly impossible to overcome (redacted)
qualified: all other docs, can be overcome by party showing substantial need for materials and that their equivalent is not available through other means

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5
Q

When an officer has lawfully stopped a car, may they require the driver and passenger to exit the car?

A

Yes, for officer safety

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6
Q

If the findings of fact are inconsistent with the verdict, the judge MAY:

A
  1. enter a judgement consistent with the interrogatory answers, notwithstanding a general verdict
  2. direct the jury to deliberate further
  3. order a new trial

*the court MAY do these things!!! Look for must v. may in answers

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7
Q

To whom does the Privileges and Immunities Clause apply?

A

prohibits states from discriminating against US citizens from other states, not aliens

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8
Q

What is the test for Congress’ power to enforce the 14th amendment?

A

Congruence and proportionality test: Enabling Clause permits Congress to pass legislation to enforce the equal protection and due process rights, but not to expand those rights or create new ones. There must be a “congruence and proportionality” between the injury to be prevented or remedied and the means adopted to achieve that end.
Congress can enact laws to ban laws that would be unconstitutional

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9
Q

Bill of Attainder

A

A type of prohibited legislation
A bill of attainder is a legislative act that declares a person or group of persons guilty of some crime and punishes them without a trial. It applies only to criminal or penal measures.
Barring particular individuals from government employment qualifies as punishment under the prohibition against bills of attainder.

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10
Q

Property power

A

The Federal Property Clause of Article IV, Section 3 gives Congress the “power to dispose of and make all needful rules and regulations respecting the territory or other property belonging to the United States.”
Congress’s absolute power over federal lands includes protecting public lands from nuisances erected on adjoining private property.

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11
Q

What is the test for regulating speech based on time, place and manner?

A

When dealing with time, place, or manner regulations, the requirement that the regulation be “narrowly tailored” does not mean that the regulation must employ the “least restrictive means” (or “least intrusive means” or “least drastic means”) that will vindicate the significant governmental interest. The regulation need only promote a substantial government interest that would be achieved less effectively absent the regulation

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12
Q

Content based v. content neutral speech regulation

A

A law is content based when it gets at the “communicative impact” of the speech. Applies to both subject discussed OR opinion expressed.

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13
Q

Congressional grants of jury trials by statutes

A

The seventh amendment does not prohibit Congress from statutorily granting jury trials to claims that fall outside the seventh amendments grantee.

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14
Q

What is sovereign immunity?

A

The principal that the federal and state governments cannot be sued for damages

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15
Q

Enforceability of Forum Selection Clauses

A

The Supreme Court held that a forum selection clause should be given “controlling weight in all but the most exceptional cases,” even if the clause is unenforceable under applicable state law.
when transfer is sought on the basis of a forum selection clause in a contract, the clause is accorded respect.
If the clause specifies a federal forum, most circuit courts treat the clause as prima facie valid, to be set aside only upon a strong showing that transfer would be unreasonable and unjust or that the clause was invalid for reasons such as fraud or overreaching.

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16
Q

Choice of law after proper venue transfer

A

Generally, if the venue of an action is transferred when the original venue is proper, the court to which the action is transferred must apply the law of the state of the transferor court, including that state’s rules regarding conflict of law.

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17
Q

When venue is moved based on a forum selection clause, what law must the court apply?

A

when venue is transferred based on a valid forum selection clause, the transferee court must apply the law, including the choice-of-law rules, of the state in which it is located. The transferee court should not apply the law of the transferor court because the parties have contractually waived their right to the application of that law by agreeing to be subject to the laws of the transferee venue.

18
Q

How do courts use the Mathew v Eldridge factors?

A

If an individual’s protected interest is threatened by governmental action the court weighs the factors to determine the amount of process that is due. The more important the threatened interest then the greater likelihood the court will require extensive procedural safeguards prior to the termination of that interest.

19
Q

Privity

A

the claimant and the defendant must be the same (and in the same roles) in both the original action and the subsequently filed action OR one party must be formally representing the interests of the other party

20
Q

Issue Preclusion

A
  1. Same Issue
  2. Actually litigated and necessary
  3. Final, valid judgement
  4. Minimal privity (requires only that the party against whom the issue is to be precluded was a party (or one in privity with that party) to the original action
    * exception: non mutual offensive issue preclusion
21
Q

Claim preclusion

A
  1. Valid, final judgement on the merits
  2. Same claim
  3. Same parties (the claimant and the defendant must be the same (and in the same roles) in both the original action and the subsequently filed action. Note that claim preclusion is limited to the parties (or their privies). Thus, a similar action by a different party is generally not precluded.
22
Q

Issue preclusion: sword v. shield

A

Shield: D uses IP to prevent P from re-litigating an issue against D
Sword: a new type of IP that is allowed in a majority of jurisdictions. A litigant who was not a party to a prior case (and could NOT have been easily joined) may use collateral estoppel offensively in a new lawsuit against the party who lost on the decided issue in the first case, unless allowing the use of collateral estoppel would be unfair.

23
Q

Character Evidence - Defendant’s good character

A
  1. D opens door by offering evid of pertinent character trait through opinion or reputation (D taking the stand is insufficient)
  2. Prosecution can then rebut D’s evid by either:
    A. Cross examining D’s character witness during
    which they can ask questions about relevant
    past specific acts but must accept those
    answers
    B. Call a witness to testify the D does not possess
    that trait
24
Q

Character evidence - Victim’s character

A
  1. D opens door by offering evid of a pertinent trait of victim (typically violence in homicide self defense cases and NOT evid of victim’s promiscuity in sex cases)
  2. Prosecution can rebutt D’s evid by:
    A. introducing evid that victim is not violent using
    reputation or opinion, NOT specific acts
    B. introducing evid that D has the same triat that
    they accused the victim of having
25
Character Evidence - Impeachment
A witness can be impeached by calling into question their credibility in three ways: 1. Bias: showing that the witness has some reason to lie 2. Sensory Competence: witness did not see or hear things as well as they thought 3. Character for truthfulness or untruthfulness
26
Character Evidence - Impeachment Type 3: Character for Truthfulness or Untruthfulness
1. Character Witness testimony: can introduce character witness who will testify to reputation or opinion, but no specific acts 2. Specific acts: may CX the witness about specific acts of dishonesty that are probative of untruthfulness (need reasonable basis for asking question and must accept answer) 3. Criminal Convictions: can bring in evid that they committed certain crimes
27
Character Evidence - Impeachment Type 3 Character of Truthfulness or Untruthfulness - Criminal Convictions
2 Types of crimes: A. Crimes involving dishonesty or false statements B. Felonies not involving dishonesty: crimes punishable by death or more than 1 year in prison For criminal Ds: evid of prior felony conviction subject to reverse 403 All other witnesses: felony convictions are subject to 403 *Excludes pardoned or annulled convictions
28
Balancing Test 403 v. Reverse 403
403: exclude evidence if its probative value IS substantially outweighED BY unfair prejudice Reverse 403: admissible only if its probative value outweighS the prejudicial effect
29
Rehabilitation of a Witness after Impeachment
3 methods: 1) Give the witness a chance to clarify or explain after the closed questioned they had to answer on cross; 2) Prior consistent statement; OR - if the witness has been accused of changing his or her story, or being bribed or pressured or having an improper motive, can be rehabilitated with a statement that the witness made before the alleged motive arose; 3) If the witness has been attacked as having a bad character for truthfulness, then opinion or reputation evidence can be introduced bolstering the witness’s character for truthfulness
30
Hearsay inconsistent statement + Impeachment inconsistent statement
Can bring in prior inconsistent hearsay statements related to character
31
Categories of Hearsay exceptions: Declarant is a party
1. Party Admissions: a parties own statements (P lets in D, D lets in P, state lets in D) 2. Adoptive Admissions: party adopts someone else's statement by agreeing or failing to disagree when reasonable innocent person would 3. Authorized Admissions: party gives authority for someone else to speak on their behalf 4. Employee admission: statements of employees can be used against employers 5. Co-Conspirator statements: a statement made by a co-conspirator during and in furtherance of the conspiracy is admissible against other co-conspirators. * Need to prove an conspiracy existed--A statement by a co-conspirator is not admissible if the statement itself is the ONLY evidence of the existence of the conspiracy or the declarant’s role in it; prosecutors must prove the conspiracy by extrinsic corroborating evidence separate from the statements.
32
Under the UCC, when are goods identified?
When seller ships, marks, or designates them as the goods to which the contract refers
33
Voidability - Mistake and Misrepresentation
Mutual mistake - Voidable Unilateral - Voidable Fradulent misrepresentation - voidable material non-fradulent - voidable
34
Durational residency requirements violate which amendment?
Privileges and Immunities
35
Who has discretion to control the mode and order of examining witnesses and presenting evid?
Trial judge - MAY exercise this discretion not must - a TJ who is concerned about a party hearing all eyewitness testimony and tailoring their testimony to that of other witnesses would not abuse their discretion to order that party to testify first - this discretion overrides parties control of the order of their cases
36
What must a moving party show to be granted a scheduling change?
Good cause | After such a showing, the opposing party must show that prejudice would likely result from the extension to deny it
37
Voluntary Cessation
A court will not dismiss as moot a case in which the defendant voluntarily ceases its illegal or wrongful action once litigation has commenced. The court must be assured that “there is no reasonable expectation that the wrong will be repeated.”
38
Capable of repetition yet evading review
A case will not be dismissed as moot if there is a reasonable expectation that the same complaining party will be subjected to the same action again (“capable of repetition”) but that the action will not last long enough to work its way through the judicial system (“yet evading review”).
39
The Federal Rules of Evidence do not apply to what type of proceedings?
Grand Jury Proceedings
40
100 miles rule
Serving a summons or filing a waiver of service establishes personal jurisdiction over a defendant who is a party joined under Rule 14 or 19 and is served within 100 miles from where the summons was issued
41
Aggregation test
regulation of economic activity