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Eating Behaviour > MC questions > Flashcards

MC questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the correct order of the olfactory transduction?
1) Odor reaches odorant receptor, G Protein activation, cAMP activation, ion channel activation, Na+ ions produce AP
2) Odor reaches odorant receptor, cAMP activation, ion channel activation, Na+ ions produce AP, G Protein activation
3) Odor reaches odorant receptor, G Protein activation, ion channel activation, Na+ ions produce AP, cAMP activation
cAMP activation, ion channel, odor reaches odorant receptor, G Protein activation, activation, Na+ ions produce AP
4) Odor reaches odorant receptor, ion channel activation, G Protein activation, cAMP activation, Na+ ions produce AP

A

1) Odor reaches odorant receptor, G Protein activation, cAMP activation, ion channel activation, Na+ ions produce AP

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2
Q

What does not fit in Henning’s Smell Prism?

1) flowery
2) spicy
3) burnt
4) resinous
5) sweet

A

5) sweet

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3
Q

What is not part of the “Rules of multisensory integration”?

1) spatio-temporal unity
2) sensory dominance
3) semantic congruence
4) supermultiplicity
5) superadditivity

A

4) supermultiplicity

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4
Q

What types of papillae do not exist on the tongue?

1) Circumvallate
2) Fungiform
3) Sulfioform
4) Foliate

A

3) Sulfioform

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5
Q

Which of the following statements regarding olfaction are true?

1) When an odor is sensed retronasally, it is perceived as originating from the external world.
2) When an odor is sensed orthonasally, it is perceived as rising from the mouth.
3) Orthonsal olfaction allows us to detect environmental stimuli.
4) Retronasal olfaction allows us to assess what we have just swallowed, letting us know whether to reject it or continue eating.

A

3) Orthonsal olfaction allows us to detect environmental stimuli.
4) Retronasal olfaction allows us to assess what we have just swallowed, letting us know whether to reject it or continue eating.

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6
Q

For which of the following tastes the signal transduction works via interaction with G-proteins?

1) Sour
2) Sweet
3) Bitter
4) Umami
5) Salty

A

2) Sweet
3) Bitter
4) Umami

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7
Q

Where does flavor arise?

1) On the tongue only
2) In the brain
3) In the entire gastrointestinal tract
4) In the food only

A

2) In the brain

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8
Q

In which region of the tongue do we taste “sweet”?

1) Only at the back of the tongue.
2) Only at the back and the sides of the tongue.
3) Only at the anterior-third of the tongue.
4) In any region of the tongue, with a preference at the anterior-third of the tongue.

A

4) In any region of the tongue, with a preference at the anterior-third of the tongue.

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9
Q

Which statement about the innervation of the taste system is WRONG?

1) The tip of the tongue is innervated by a branch of the cranial nerve VII (chorda tympani).
2) The side of the tongue is innervated by cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve).
3) The back of the tongue is innervated by cranial nerve X (vagus nerve).
4) The back of the tongue is innervated by cranial nerve VII, IX and X.

A

4) The back of the tongue is innervated by cranial nerve VII, IX and X.

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10
Q

Which of the following are requirements for olfactory stimuli? (multiple answer)

1) fat soluble
2) reactive carbonyl-group
3) airborne molecules
4) at least one aromatic compound (e.g. a benzene)
5) a geometry structure associated to one scent category

A

1) fat soluble

3) airborne molecules

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11
Q

Which of the following processes does NOT lead to changes in the brain?

1) Learning
2) Damage
3) Ontogenetic development
4) Sleep

A

4) Sleep

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a mechanism that is induced by the damage of a central or peripheral injury?

1) Unmasking
2) Lesion
3) Adaption
4) Transplantation
5) Sprouting

A

3) Adaption

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13
Q

Which statements concerning neuroplasticity are true? (multiple answers)

1) Neuroplasticity is driven by behavioral relevance.
2) If cortical regions due to amputation are cut off from their input, this leads to degeneration.
3) Neuropsychological therapy is the only way to promote neuroplasticity.
4) Young brains are more plastic.

A

1) Neuroplasticity is driven by behavioral relevance.

4) Young brains are more plastic.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding neural signal transduction is NOT correct?

1) a neurotransmitter could trigger a signal transduction via metabolic receptors in a second messenger pathway.
2) The activation of ion channels in the synaptic gap show inhibitory/exhibitory impact on the cell voltage.
3) The strength of a connection depends on the strength of the transmitted signal: the more receptors and ion-channels, the stronger the connection.
4) The strength of a connection depends on the strength of the transmitted signal: the more released neurotransmitters and ions, the stronger the connection.
5) Glutamate is the main neurotransmitter in the brain.

A

4) The strength of a connection depends on the strength of the transmitted signal: the more released neurotransmitters and ions, the stronger the connection.

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15
Q

Which statement about intramodal adaptation in humans is correct?

  1. synchronous stimulation leads to cortical segregation
  2. Invasion means that a non used brain area is taken over by neighboring areas
  3. short-term cortical representations are reversible changes to somatotopic maps that occur in the time-course of months
  4. brain areas that are massively used can not be expanded
A
  1. Invasion means that a non used brain area is taken over by neighboring areas
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16
Q

Which mechanism plays NOT a role in the context of neuroplasticity?

  1. Invasion
  2. Expansion
  3. Adduction
  4. Fusion & Segregation
A
  1. Adduction
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17
Q

Which consequence in the context of neuroplasticity is NOT related to high-fat-diet/obesity?

  1. hyperthyroidism
  2. less factors for synaptic plasticity
  3. less grey matter volume in certain brain areas
  4. increased risk for cognitive impairment
A
  1. hyperthyroidism
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18
Q

Which of the following stimuli leads to a damaged cortical representation?

1) perinatal anoxia
2) perinatal exposition against polychlorated biphenyls (PCB)
3) being reared in constant noise
4) being fed the ‘wrong’ way
5) all of the above

A

5) all of the above

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19
Q

Which of the following statements concerning neuroplasticity in musicians is INCORRECT?

1) The adaption of neuroplasticity is increased, the more intense the practice is.
2) The adaption of neuroplasticity is more intense if the musician started the instrument at a younger age.
3) People starting to play the violin at age 20 or older have the same dipol moment for stimulation of the 5th finger compared to non-musicians.
4) People starting to play the violin at age 20 or older have a decreased dipol moment for stimulation of the 5th finger compared to people playing the violin since age 5.

A

3) People starting to play the violin at age 20 or older have the same dipol moment for stimulation of the 5th finger compared to non-musicians.

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20
Q

What is NOT true regarding the concentration of neuropeptides in the cerebrospinal fluids during Anorexia Nervosa - illness:

1) The concentration of NPY in the cerebrospinal fluids of patients with AN is increased by ~40% in comparison to control women.
2) The concentration of beta-endorphin in the cerebrospinal fluids of patients with AN is decreased by ~55% in comparison to control women.
3) The concentration of HVA in the cerebrospinal fluids of patients with AN is increased by ~30% in comparison to control women.
4) The concentration of Leptin in the cerebrospinal fluids of patients with AN is increased by ~50% in comparison to control women.
5) The concentration of 5HIAA in the cerebrospinal fluids of patients with AN is decreased by ~35% in comparison to control women.

A

3) The concentration of HVA in the cerebrospinal fluids of patients with AN is increased by ~30% in comparison to control women.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements about Binge eating disorder is wrong according to the DSM5 criteria?

1) An episode of binge eating is characterised by the eating of an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and by a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode.
2) Binge eating is associated with the recurrent use of inappropriate compensatory behaviours as in Bulimia Nervosa.
3) Binge eating occurs at least once a week for three months.
4) Binge eating episodes can be associated with feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed or very guilty.
5) Marked distress regarding binge eating is present.

A

2) Binge eating is associated with the recurrent use of inappropriate compensatory behaviours as in Bulimia Nervosa.

22
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of Anorexia nervosa?

1) Strange eating habits or routines, such as eating in secret
2) Laxative, diuretic or diet pill use
3) Depression, anxiety or irritability
4) Infrequent or irregular, or even missed menstrual periods in females
5) Eating of non-nutritive substances

A

5) Eating of non-nutritive substances

23
Q

What are consequences of untreated Anorexia nervosa?(Multiple right answers)

1) Damaged organs, especially the heart, brain, and kidneys
2) Increasing blood pressure, pulse and breathing rate
3) Loss of hair
4) Fluid-electrolyte imbalance
5) Death from starvation or suicide

A

1) Damaged organs, especially the heart, brain, and kidneys

3) Loss of hair
4) Fluid-electrolyte imbalance
5) Death from starvation or suicide

24
Q

Which of the following answers are right? (Multiple right answers)

1) Anorexia nervosa has been associated with certain risk loci.
2) Pica often occurs independently of other mental health disorders.
3) Bulimia nervosa is associated with recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting or excessive exercise.
4) Anorexia nervosa patients eat an amount of food that definitely is larger than most people would eat during a similar period.

A

1) Anorexia nervosa has been associated with certain risk loci.
3) Bulimia nervosa is associated with recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting or excessive exercise.

25
Q

Which statement of the standardized mortality ratio (SMR) is NOT correct:

  1. A SMR of 4 means that the mortality rate of the study population is 25% lower than in the population of origin
  2. A SMR of 4 means that the mortality rate of the study population is 4 times higher than in the population of origin
  3. the SMR is the ratio of observed deaths in the study population to expected deaths in the population of origin
  4. the SMR is the study-mortality-rate which describes the number of deaths within the study population over a specified period
A
  1. A SMR of 4 means that the mortality rate of the study population is 25% lower
  2. the SMR is the study-mortality-rate which describes the number of deaths within the study population over a specified period
26
Q

Which of the following is no typical comorbidity of Anorexia Nervosa?

1) Anxiety disorders
2) Personality disorders (e.g. antisocial, borderline)
3) Affective disorders (Major Depression & Dysthymia)
4) Seizure disorders (epilepsy)

A

4) Seizure disorders (epilepsy)

27
Q

Which of the following statements about Pica-Syndrome is false?

1) Pica-Syndrome is characterized by persistent eating of non-nutritive substances for a period of at least one month.
2) Pica often occurs with other mental health disorders associated with impaired functioning.
3) Pica-Syndrome is a part of a culturally supported or socially normative practice.
4) The eating of non-nutritive substances is inappropriate to the developmental level of the individual.

A

3) Pica-Syndrome is a part of a culturally supported or socially normative practice.

28
Q

Psychological factors of AN are..

1) the cause for the eating disorders
2) the consequence of the eating disorder
3) neither the cause nore the consequence for/of the eating disorder
4) they can be both: thee cause and the consequence of the eating disorder
5) it is unknown whether they are the cause or the consequence

A

4) they can be both: thee cause and the consequence of the eating disorder
5) it is unknown whether they are the cause or the consequence

29
Q

Which of the following statements about Rumination disorder are correct? (multiple answers)

1) Rumination disorder can be caused by low stomach acid.
2) Rumination disorder can be caused by swallowing air.
3) Rumination disorder can be caused by over- or underactive GI tract muscles.
4) Rumination disorder is characterized by repeated regurgitation of food for a period of at least one month.
5) The repeated regurgitation is due to a medication condition.

A

1) Rumination disorder can be caused by low stomach acid.
2) Rumination disorder can be caused by swallowing air.
3) Rumination disorder can be caused by over- or underactive GI tract muscles.
4) Rumination disorder is characterized by repeated regurgitation of food for a period of at least one month.

30
Q

Which fact does NOT describe the event related potential (ERP)?

1) ERP is the measured brain response that directly results from a specific sensory, cognitive, or motor event.
2) ERP is measured using the electroencephalography (EEG).
3) The ERP signal is one dimensional
4) The N400-effect is a descriptive labeling for a negative peak in the waveform occuring 400ms after the stimulus.

A

3) The ERP signal is one dimensional

31
Q

Which of the following parameters cannot be used to describe or to compare several event related potentials (ERPs)?

  1. Mean amplitude
  2. Peak-to-peak-latency
  3. Peak amplitude
  4. Peak-to-peak-amplitude
A
  1. Peak-to-peak-latency
32
Q

Which characteristic component will probably be observed in the cognition-related ERP of a study participant hearing the sentence „My dad often enjoys pizza with extra cheese and hamster“?

  1. M400-component
  2. P300-component
  3. N400-component
  4. M300-component
A
  1. N400-component
33
Q

Which of the following terms does NOT meet the conventions of functional labelling of ERP components and effects?

  1. Syntactic Negative Shift (SNS)
  2. Mismatch Negativity (MMN)
  3. Error-related Negativity (ERN)
  4. Readiness potential (RP)
A
  1. Syntactic Negative Shift (SNS)
34
Q

What is the correct functional definition for an ERP component?

1) An ERP component is an aspect of the ERP waveform for which the polarity, latency, and topographic distribution are related to a specific cognitive process
2) An ERP component is the scalp recorded activity of a specific neural generator (or an ensemble of generators) in the brain
3) An ERP component is an aspect of the ERP waveform for which the polarity, latency, and topographic distribution are unrelated to a specific cognitive process
4) An ERP component is the scalp recorded activity of a unspecific neural generator (or an ensemble of generators) in the brain

A

1) An ERP component is an aspect of the ERP waveform for which the polarity, latency, and topographic distribution are related to a specific cognitive proce

35
Q

The EEG is a standard method in today’s neurology. Which of the following is not a common use or reason to perform an EEG?

1) Brain damage
2) Stroke
3) Reading thoughts
4) Sleep disorders

A

3) Reading thoughts

36
Q

Which statement about the EEG wave patterns is NOT correct?

1) In an active condition the EEG shows low frequency activity
2) β-waves are observed during an active condition like reading
3) Low frequency activity is characteristic for a deep sleep
4) β-spindels are typical for a light sleep

A

1) In an active condition the EEG shows low frequency activity

37
Q

How does the EEG wave patterns change between an active and relaxed state?

1) β-activity (active) to α-activity (relaxed)
2) α-activity (active) to β-activity (relaxed)
3) β-activity to β-spindle
4) slow activity to α-activity

A

1) β-activity (active) to α-activity (relaxed)

38
Q

What is true when it comes to MEG usage?

1) MEG is an invasive detection of magnetic fields / Neuromagnetism
2) Only gradiometers can be used as coils
3) MEG is used to form an image of magnetic fields produced during brain activity
4) Exact locations of brain’s activity cannot be identified.

A

3) MEG is used to form an image of magnetic fields produced during brain activity

39
Q

What is the strength of the brain’s magnetic field (measured in Tesla), that can be detected via MEG?

1) 3 Teslas
2) 10^-4 Teslas
3) 10^-14 Teslas
4) 10^-23 Teslas

A

3) 10^-14 Teslas

40
Q

What plays NOT an important role when it comes to Neuromagnetism?

1) Neuromagnetism is caused by directed intracellular current flow
2) Most important cell type are the pyramidal cells
3) Pyramidal Cells create a closed field situation
4) The right thumb role can be used to determine the magnetic flux

A

3) Pyramidal Cells create a closed field situation

41
Q

Which statement is correct?

  1. MEG has better temporal resolution than EEG
  2. MEG has at least the same spatial resolution as fMRI
  3. MEG has worse temporal resolution than SPECT
  4. PET has better temporal resolution than fMRI
A
  1. MEG has at least the same spatial resolution as fMRI
42
Q

Which is NOT an advantage of MEG over EEG?

  1. has no problem of placement of reference electrodes
  2. no distortion of magnetic field
  3. good spatial resolution
  4. can pick up tangential and radial sources
  5. little influence from distant magnetic field sources
  6. reliable source localization
A
  1. can pick up tangential and radial sources
43
Q

Inverse-Problem - Which answer is NOT correct?

  1. occurs only in MEG
  2. occurs in MEG but also in EEG
  3. happens when going from a magentic field to intracranial sources
  4. the problem is underspecified
A
  1. occurs only in MEG
44
Q

Which is NOT a step in MEG?

  1. MEG-recording
  2. Online-noise reduction
  3. Artifact acceptance
  4. Offline-noised reduction
A
  1. Artifact acceptance
45
Q

Which Statement is NOT correct? (multiple answer)

  1. the minimum-source-method is used for STOP-trials (ST)
  2. short-form of unsuccessful STOP-trial is USST
  3. no response in a STOP-trial (ST) leads to a SST
  4. a response in a STOP-trial (ST) leads to a SST
A
  1. short-form of unsuccessful STOP-trial is USST

4. a response in a STOP-trial (ST) leads to a SST

46
Q

What are the advantages of the fMRI? (multiple answers)

1) very good spatial resolution
2) high susceptibility to artefacts
3) high temporal resolution
4) can study the brain function in the subcortical structures

A

1) very good spatial resolution

4) can study the brain function in the subcortical structures

47
Q

What is true about fMRI (multiple answers) ?

1) Measures brain anatomy
2) Measures brain function
3) Result is shown on one picture
4) Result is shown in a series of pictures

A

2) Measures brain function

4) Result is shown in a series of pictures

48
Q

Which statement is true for Local Field Potentials (LFP)?

1) they reflect action potentials.
2) BOLD activity is more closely related to Multi-Unit Activity (MUA) than LFPs.
3) they are similar to what most electrophysiology measures.
4) they reflect post-synaptic potentials.

A

4) they reflect post-synaptic potentials

49
Q

Which effect does deoxygenated blood have? (multiple answers)

1) signal loss
2) no signal loss
3) no distortion of surrounding magnetic field
4) distortion of surrounding magnetic field

A

1) signal loss

4) distortion of surrounding magnetic field

50
Q

Which statement about hemoglobulin is NOT correct?

1) Oxygenated hemoglobulin is diamagnetic
2) Oxygenated hemoglobulin distorts the sourrounding magnetic field
3) Deoxygenated hemoglobulin is paramagnetic and leads to changes in the sourrounding magnetic field
4) Deoxygenated hemoglobulin leads to signal loss

A

2) Oxygenated hemoglobulin distorts the sourrounding magnetic field

51
Q

Which statements about the BOLD-Signal are NOT correct?

1) It looks like the inverse curve of deoxygenated hemoglobulin
2) Higher levels of deoxygenated hemoglobulin lead to a higher BOLD-signal
3) The BOLD-signal reaches it´s peak immediately after the stimulation
4) It gives no information about the timing of psychological processes

A

2) Higher levels of deoxygenated hemoglobulin lead to a higher BOLD-signal
3) The BOLD-signal reaches it´s peak immediately after the stimulation

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