MCQ 1 Flashcards by gwen mckeon

Below which SpO2percentage requires the practitioner to administer oxygen in a non-COPD patient
Select one:

a.
98

b.
96

c.
94

d.
99

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You are performing a primary survey on an unresponsive trauma patient involved in an RTA. When evaluating her chest you note unilateral chest rise, you should

Select one:

a.
Count the breathing rate for 60 seconds

b.
administer entonox for pain relief

c.
inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest

d.
note injury and continue to check circulation

inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ormal capillary refill results in the blood returning within _______ seconds

Select one:

a.
Four

b.
Three

c.
Five

d.
Two

Two

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which piece of equipment from the list below is required when taking a patient’s blood pressure by auscultation technique

Select one:

a.
A tourniquet

b.
Astethoscope

c.
Apulse oximeter

d.
A cardiac monitor

Astethoscope

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A reading of less than 85% when using a pulse oximeter means that the patient is suffering from which of the following

Select one:

a.
Severe hypothermia

b.
Severe hypoxemia

c.
Mild hypoxemia

d.
Mild hyperthermia

Severe hypoxemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A sphygmomanometer is used in the measurement of

Select one:

a.
Pupil size

b.
Blood glucose levels

c.
Blood pressure

d.
Temperature

Blood pressure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Normal resting heart rate expected for a newborn infant is

Select one:

a.
75 – 130

b.
60 – 100

c.
70 – 110

d.
90 – 180

90 – 180

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When inflating a blood pressure cuff to measure blood pressure by palpation, it should be inflated ______ mmHg above where the last pulse was felt

Select one:

a.
20

b.
10

c.
30

d.
15

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The normal breathing rate for an adult at rest is

Select one:

a.
12-20 breaths per minute

b.
8-10 breaths per minute

c.
28 - 30 breaths per minute

d.
4 - 6 breaths per minute

12-20 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An assessment tool that measures oxygen in the haemoglobin in the capillary bed’s is called _____

Select one:

a.
A pulse oximeter

b.
Stethoscope

c.
A tympanic thermometer

d.
A blood pressure cuff

pulse oximeter

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Normal pulse rate in an adult at rest is appoximately between _____________ per minute

Select one:

a.
100 - 160

b.
60 - 100

c.
70 - 130

d.
40 - 60

60 - 100

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The difference between your systolic and diastolic blood pressure should be approximately 40 mmHg. This is called your ________

Select one:

a.
Pulse

b.
Pulse pressure

c.
Point Pressure

d.
Pressure Point

Pulse pressure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When assessing circulation in an unresponsive patient, the pulse should be palpated in the ______

Select one:

a.
Femoral

b.
Posterior tibial

c.
Carotid

d.
Dorsalis pedis

Carotid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The first set of vital signs that you obtain is known as the

Select one:

a.
primary

b.
baseline

c.
main

d.
trending

baseline

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The primary survey should be completed in less then ___ seconds

Select one:

a.
60

b.
10

c.
30

d.
90
Feedback

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pulse oximeters are used to measure?

Select one:

a.
pulse rate only

b.
The percentage of oxygen in the patient’s finger

c.
The patient’s distal pulse

d.
The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated

The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Your transport decision should be made after which component of patient assessment

Select one:

a.
vital signs assessment

b.
Secondary survey

c.
ongoing assessment

d.
Primary survey

Primary survey

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The maximum on scene time for life threatening trauma should be

Select one:

a.
As soon as the primary survey is complete

b.
less than 20 minutes

c.
less than 3 minutes

d.
less than 10 minutes

10 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When conducting a primary survey on a patient with obvious significant external bleeding which of the following is the priority?

Select one:

a.
Assess responsiveness

b.
Assess airway

c.
C spine control

d.
Control catastrophic bleeding

Control catastrophic bleeding

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When managing a trauma patient with mechanism of injury suggestive of spinal injury you should

Select one:

a.
apply C-spine control only if there are obvious neurological symptoms

b.
wait until CSMs are assessed before decided whether c-spine immobilisation is needed

c.
apply a cervical collar immediately

d.
perform manual C-spine control

perform manual C-spine control

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The systematic head to toe examination looking for non life threatening injuries in a patient is part of a
Select one:

a.
primary survey

b.
ongoing survey

c.
secondary survey

d.
scene assessment

secondary survey

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You are assessing a patient who has an altered level of consciousness. On approach you find the patient who has their eyes closed responds to your voice by opening their eyes but doesn’t speak. What is the patient’s level on the AVPU score

Select one:

a.
U

b.
P

c.
V

d.
A

V on the A.V.P.U scale

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

While assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, the patient only responds to a pinch of the earlobe. They are considered to be ___ on the AVPU scale
Select one:

a.
A

b.
U

c.
P

P on the A.V.P.U scale

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The skin pigment of a jaundiced patient may appear

Select one:

a.
red

b.
yellow

c.
White

d.
blue

Yellow

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient who does not respond to any stimulus is considered to be _______________ on the AVPU scale Select one: a. unable to respond b. unstable c. unconscious d. unresponsive

unresponsive

or a patient to be considered alert on the aVPU scale they should be Select one: a. awake b. able to walk in a straight line c. alert and oriented d. sitting up with their eyes open

alert and oriented

Capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of cardiovascular status in which patient group Select one: a. adults b. children c. pregnancy d. geriatrics

children

The elements of AVPU are Select one: a. Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive b. Alone, voice, pain, unresponsive c. Alert, verbal, pain, unconscious d. Alert, verbal, prone, unresponsive

Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive

The contraction of the abdominal muscles to palpation is a sign of Select one: a. Muscular strain b. Cramps in the abdominal muscles c. An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining d. diarrhoea

An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining

The normal range of blood glucose in an adult patient is Select one: a. 4 - 10 mmol/L b. 4 - 20 mmol/L c. 4 - 5 mmol/L d. 2 - 6 mmol/L

4 - 10 mmol/L

The “Q” in the OPQRST mnemonic best relates to which of the questions below Select one: a. When did the problem begin and what caused it b. On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your pain c. Does anything make it better or worse d. What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing

What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing

The sections of the spinal cord that are most susceptible to injury are the cervical and Select one: a. Coccyx b. Sacrum c. Thoracic d. Lumbar

Lumbar

The three major parts of the brain are the: Select one: a. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord b. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem c. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput d. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord

cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

The blood vessels that return blood from the head are the Select one: a. Inferior vena cava b. Pulmonary veins c. Jugular veins d. Carotid arteries

Jugular veins

The kneecap (patella) is an example of a Select one: a. Flat bone b. Long bone c. Sesamoid bone d. Short bone

Sesamoid bone

Which of the following structures is part of the respiratory system? Select one: a. Larynx b. oesophagus c. hepatic artery d. hyoid bone

Larynx

The lower chambers of the heart, which are responsible for the main pumping action of the myocardium, are referred to as ________ elect one: a. Ventricles b. Atria c. Septum d. Tricuspids

Ventricles

The human skeleton is made up of Select one: a. 385 bones b. 206 bones c. 310 bones d. 106 bones

206 bones

Distal CSM’s means Select one: a. CSM’s near the fracture b. CSM’s at the fracture site c. CSM’s before the fracture d. CSM’s past the fracture

CSM’s past the fracture, CSM’s near the fracture

Bones are classified according to their shape: long, short, flat and irregular. An example of an irregular shaped bone is elect one: a. Femur b. Vertebrae c. Clavicle d. Sternum

Vertebrae

The shoulder girdle consists of? Select one: a. Clavicles and the phalanges b. Scapulae and the metacarpals c. Clavicles and the scapulae d. Phalanges and humerus

Clavicles and the scapulae

An example of the hinged joint can be found at the Select one: a. Sacroiliac b. Hip c. Knee d. Shoulder

Knee

Bands of tough, flexible connective tissue which join the articular surfaces of bones are called Select one: a. Muscles b. Tendons c. Ligaments d. Cartilage

Ligaments

The heart is located in Select one: a. The dorsal cavity slightly to the right b. The thoracic cavity slightly to the left c. The thoracic cavity slightly to the right d. The abdominal cavity in the retroperitoneal region

The thoracic cavity slightly to the left

An example of a solid abdominal organ is Select one: a. Small intestine b. Bladder c. Spleen d. Stomach

Spleen

The ______ in your brain is regarded as the control centre for respiration Select one: a. Medulla oblongata b. Cerebrum c. Midbrain d. Cerebellum

Medulla oblongata

The bone distal to the scapula and proximal to the radius and ulna is the Select one: a. Clavicle b. Humerus c. Carpals d. Sternum

Humerus

Which layer forms the outer part of the heart? Which layer forms the outer part of the heart? Select one: a. Endocardium b. Myocardium c. Sub endocardium d. Pericardium

Pericardium

Electrical impulses that are produced in the spinal cord are transmitted along the ___ nerve to the muscle and cause it to contract Select one: a. Vagal b. Motor c. Sensory d. Phrenic

Motor

The outer most layer of the skin is called Select one: a. Dermis b. Subcutaneous c. Cutaneous d. Epidermis

Epidermis

A pulse, is the transmitted impulse from the contraction of the left ventricle, which can be felt when the artery is Select one: a. passing over a ligament b. Midline to a bone and close to a tendon c. Anterior to the bone surface and just slightly beneath the muscle d. Close to the skin over a bone

Close to the skin over a bone

_______ Blood pressure reflects relaxation of the heart Select one: a. Diastolic b. Ejection Fraction c. Systolic d. Stroke Volume

Diastolic

The elbow is _____ to the shoulder but _____ to the wrist Select one: a. Posterior, Superior b. Distal, Proximal c. Midline, Lateral d. Proximal, Distal

Distal, Proximal

The term used to describe the lower jaw is Select one: a. Maxilla b. Mandible c. cranium d. Zygoma

Mandible

The component of the Central Nervous System which decides how to respond to changing conditions inside and outside of the body is the Select one: a. Peripheral nerves b. spinal cord c. Sensory nerves d. brain

Brain

From the outside layer to the inner, what is the correct sequence of layers of the meninges? Select one: a. Pia mater, Dura mater, Arachnoid mater b. Dura mater, Pia mater, Arachnoid c. Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater d. Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater

Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater

The right side of the heart Select one: a. Circulates blood from the heart to the head b. Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs c. Circulates blood from the head to the lungs d. Circulates blood from the heart to the aorta

Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs

The cardio vascular system consists of Select one: a. The heart, liver, arteries, veins, capillaries b. The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries c. Brain, heart, arteries, veins, blood d. Brain, lungs, heart, blood, arteries

The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries

The largest artery in the body is the Select one: a. femoral artery b. carotid artery c. hepatic artery d. aorta

Aorta

The organs commonly found in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen are Select one: a. Stomach, spleen, large intestine, pancreas b. Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas c. Liver, spleen, descending colon, small intestine d. Liver, stomach, kidney bladder

Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas

The heart is composed of four chambers. They include two atria and two ventricles. The chamber that pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta is the ______ which ejects approximately ___ ml’s of blood per contraction Select one: a. Left ventricle – 70 b. Right atria – 70 c. Right ventricle – 120 d. left atria - 120

Left ventricle – 70

The spine consists of 33 bones, which breaks down into 5 groups. Identify the groups Select one: a. 7 cervical; 12 lumbar; 5 thoracic; 4 sacrum; 5 coccyx b. 7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar; 6 sacrum; 3 coccyx c. 5 cervical; 12 lumbar; 7 thoracic, 5 sacrum; 4 coccyx d. 7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

Identify the three types of muscular tissue Select one: a. Voluntary, striated, cardiac b. Skeletal, smooth, cardiac c. Cardiac, smooth, involuntary d. Striated, voluntary, skeletal

Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

The amount of air that passes into and out of the lungs in one breath is called Select one: a. Tidal volume b. inspiratory reserve volume c. minute volume d. vital capacity

Tidal volume

The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of Select one: a. spinal cord and pia mater b. brain and spinal cord c. spinal cord and dura mater d. brain and 12 cranial nerves

brain and spinal cord

Where is the Dorsalis Pedis pulse point found? Select one: a. On top of the foot b. at the knee c. Behind the ankle d. in the groin

On top of the foot

There are a number of factors that provide us with a stimulus to breath, one of them being _______ which are situated in the walls of the Aorta and the Carotid Select one: a. chemoreceptors b. Baroreceptors c. neurotransmitters d. Stretch receptors

chemoreceptors

Skeletal muscle has four characteristics, excitability, contractility, extensibility and _______ Select one: a. Osseo integration b. Automaticity c. Elasticity d. Elongation

Elasticity

How many spinal vertebrae are there? Select one: a. 33 b. 31 c. 30 d. 12

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta for each contraction is called Select one: a. Systolic pump pressure b. Cardiac pre-load c. Stroke volume d. Cardiac output

Stroke volume

Which of the following groups of organs all lie within the abdominal cavity Select one: a. Gall bladder, liver and pancreas b. Pancreas, vena cava and lungs c. Kidneys, spleen and heart d. Oesophagus, aorta and lungs

Gall bladder, liver and pancreas

External respiration is the process of carbon dioxide being exchanged for oxygen in your lungs. This takes place in the _________ of the lungs Select one: a. Alveoli b. Bronchi c. Pleural Cavity d. Trachea

Alveoli

Pathology is the study of Select one: a. Dermatomes b. disease c. Diplopia d. Diets

disease

When you arrive on scene, you find an adult patient in cardiac arrest. You should mobilise how many additional responders? Select one: a. 3 – 4 b. 1 – 2 c. 5 – 6 d. None

3 – 4

What is the fifth link in the chain of survival? Select one: a. Early CPR b. Early access c. Early defibrillation d. Advanced life support and post arrest care

Advanced life support and post arrest care

Prolonged use of _______ in COPD patients may lead to the reduction in ventilation stimulus Select one: a. Entonox b. Methoxyflurane c. Salbutamol d. Oxygen

Oxygen

he term “anoxia” refers to Select one: a. Complete lack of carbon dioxide in the body tissue b. Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue c. Over saturation of carbon dioxide in the body tissue d. Over saturation of oxygen in the body tissue

Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue

When you open an infant’s airway you should Select one: a. use a jaw thrust b. Tilt the head back fully c. maintain the head in a neutral inline position d. Tilt the head forward fully

maintain the head in a neutral inline position

A cerebrovascular accident often referred to as a stroke, can be caused in two ways. One by a ruptured blood vessel within the brain that accounts for 25% of CVA’s and the other is a/an ___________ within the brain that accounts for the remaining 75% Select one: a. Bleed b. Aneurysm c. Haemorrhagic d. Thrombosis

Thrombosis

A noticeable blue/grey colouring to the tongue, lips, and nail beds is a sign that the tissues are not being sufficiently oxygenated. This is called Select one: a. pallor b. symbiosis c. jaundice d. cyanosis

cyanosis

You are attempting to resuscitate a patient in cardiac arrest using a bag-valve-mask and reservoir to provide positive pressure ventilations. With a reservoir bag fitted the BVM will deliverer what oxygen percentage? Select one: a. 75 to 85 b. 50 to 75 c. 90 to 100 d. 70 to 80

90 to 100

When inserting a supraglottic airway the EMT has only ____ attempts of placing the airway Select one: a. 2 b. 1 c. 5 d. 3

A patient has collapsed suddenly and has an altered LOC. His airway should be opened by using Select one: a. Head-tilt, chin-lift b. the recovery position c. jaw thrust d. an OPA

Head-tilt, chin-lift

What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air? Select one: a. 79 b. 0.4 c. 16 d. 20

A simple face mask at the proper setting on the flow regulator (6 - 10 litres per minute) can deliver a maximum oxygen concentration of Select one: a. 35% b. 80% c. 44% d. 60%

60%

The indications for the use of aspirin are Select one: a. Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction b. Apnoea or Cardiac chest pain c. Myocardial Ischemia, in a patient less than 16 years of age d. Bronchospasm or Cardiac chest pain

Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction

Scenario: A 50 year old female patient has chronic bronchitis. The initial assessment finds her breathing at 6 times per minute with an altered mental status; her skin is cool and clammy to touch. Your next action should be to Select one: a. Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute b. administer oxygen by nasal cannula at the rate of 15 litres per minute c. Place the patient in the up-right position to ease breathing d. Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen

Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen

An obstructive airway disease, characterised by a loss of elasticity to the alveoli and the terminal bronchiole is called Select one: a. Bronchitis b. Asthma c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema

Emphysema

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children Select one: a. seizures b. respiratory arrest c. Electric shock from appliances d. Heart Disease

respiratory arrest

The oxygen adjunct of choice for a patient who has been involved in a trauma event and is breathing normally is Select one: a. Non rebreather facemask b. BVM, 02 and reservoir bag c. Nasal cannula d. Venturi mask

Non rebreather facemask

On arrival at the scene of an accident you find a patient with gurgling sounds coming from her throat and inadequate breathing (6 per min). How do you proceed to protect the airway and support breathing? Select one: a. Open airway, suction and apply a non rebreather facemask b. Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use simple face mask c. Deal with severe bleeding first d. Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O2 at 100%

Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O2 at 100%

What does ROSC stand for? What does ROSC stand for? Select one: a. Return Of Standard Circulation b. Return of Stimulated Contractions c. Return of Spontaneous Circulation d. Return of systemic circulation

Return of Spontaneous Circulation

In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of Select one: a. Carbon dioxide in inspired air b. Oxygen in inspired air c. Oxygen in the blood d. Carbon dioxide in the blood

Oxygen in the blood

Exchange of gases takes place in the lungs due to the process of Select one: a. Inspiration b. Diffusion c. Osmosis d. Absorption

Diffusion

The inability to speak or write because of a brain injury is called Select one: a. Diaphoresis b. Aphasia c. Dysphagia d. Dysgeusia

Aphasia

What is the ratio of compressions to breaths in an adult patient when two rescuers are available? Select one: a. 30:2 b. 5:1 c. 3:1 d. 15:2

30:2

When suctioning an adult patient, suctioning should be for a maximum of ______ seconds, Select one: a. 15 b. 5 c. 30 d. 10

The use of accessory muscles when breathing can be described as? Select one: a. normal breathing b. shallow breathing c. laboured breathing d. noisy breathing

laboured breathing

Chronic Bronchitis and emphysema are examples of a respiratory disorder, which may cause a condition called Select one: a. Jugular vein distension b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Pulmonary embolism d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

What do the letters MEWS stand for Select one: a. Medical emergency warning score b. Modified early warning scale c. Modified early warning score d. Modified emergency warning scale

Modified early warning score