MCQ 3

Question 1

The local Authority tabard at a Major Emergency/Incident is coloured
Select one:

a.
green and white

b.
red and white

c.
blue and white

d.
green and yellow

Answer 1

b.
red and white

Question 2

We us the mnemonic “ASHICE” when giving information to the hospital if we need them on standby. The letter “A” stands for
Select one:

a.
Arrival time

b.
address of patient

c.
Airway status

d.
age of patient

Answer 2

d.
age of patient

Question 3

Of the choices below, which pro word indicates the practitioner has finished the communication and does not expect a reply?
Select one:

a.
over

b.
Wilco

c.
out

d.
Goodbye

Answer 3

c.
out

Question 4

What colour is the inner cordon of a major incident:
Select one:

a.
black

b.
gold

c.
bronze

d.
silver

Answer 4

c.
bronze

Question 5

VHF frequency on your radio stands for
Select one:

a.
Vertical Height Frequency

b.
Very High Frequency

c.
Venetian High Frequency

d.
Vertical High Frequency

Answer 5

b.
Very High Frequency

Question 6

The letter X displayed on an ADR card indicates that the substance
Select one:

a.
is neutralised by water

b.
reacts dangerously with water

c.
does not react dangerously with water

d.
is not neutralised by water

Answer 6

b.
reacts dangerously with water

Question 7

When you have sufficient resources to deal with a major emergency but these resources have not arrived yet, this is classified as
Select one:

a.
simple

b.
compound

c.
Compensated

d.
uncompensated

Answer 7

c.
Compensated

Question 8

The forward incident officer at a major emergency operates at which level
Select one:

a.
frontline

b.
tactical

c.
strategic

d.
operational

Answer 8

d.
operational

Question 9

Handling, storage and forensic arrangements regarding the dead at a major emergency is the responsibility of the
Select one:

a.
medical officer

b.
HSE ambulance service

c.
Gardai

d.
local authority

Answer 9

c.
Gardai

Question 10

While triaging a patient during a major emergency, you discover that he is unable to walk, has a respiratory rate of 24 and a pulse rate of 110. He is classified as
Select one:

a.
urgent (yellow)

b.
immediate (red)

c.
expectant

d.
delayed (green)

Answer 10

a.
urgent (yellow)

Question 11

While triaging a patient during a major emergency, you find a female walking about, who is approximately 8 months pregnant. She is classified as
Select one:

a.
expectant

b.
urgent (yellow)

c.
immediate (red)

d.
delayed (green)

Answer 11

d.
delayed (green)

Question 12

During triage sieve, a capillary refill time above 2 seconds indicates a category of
Select one:

a.
urgent (yellow)

b.
delayed (green)

c.
dead

d.
immediate (red)

Answer 12

d.
immediate (red)

Question 13

The METHANE message from a major emergency should be sent by the
Select one:

a.
forward incident officer

b.
first practitioner on scene

c.
second practitioner on scene

d.
HSE controller of operations

Answer 13

c.
second practitioner on scene

Question 14

The recent earthquake disaster in Haiti is an example of which type of major emergency
Select one:

a.
simple

b.
manmade

c.
compensated

d.
natural

Answer 14

d.
natural

Question 15

Treatment of casualties at a major emergency should be
Select one:

a.
supervised by the lead clinician

b.
limited to the minimum required prior to transport to treatment facilities

c.
carried out using all pre-hospital care prodcedures available

d.
delegated to auxiliary and voluntary services

Answer 15

b.
limited to the minimum required prior to transport to treatment facilities

Question 16

Triage sieve is performed
Select one:

a.
at the casualty clearing station

b.
only for casualties with obvious injuries

c.
on the way to the hospital

d.
where the casualties are found

Answer 16

d.
where the casualties are found

Question 17

In the phonetic alphabet, ‘N’ is denoted by
Select one:

a.
Nova

b.
Nora

c.
November

d.
Norway

Answer 17

c.
November

Question 18

The letter ‘P’ is given as ________ in the phonetic alphabet
Select one:

a.
papa

b.
portugal

c.
pear

d.
peter

Answer 18

a.
papa

Question 19

When giving an ASHICE message, the letter A stands for
Select one:

a.
age of patient

b.
arrival time on scene

c.
address of incident

d.
allergies

Answer 19

a.
age of patient

Question 20

When attending an incident involving a hazardous material the ambulance should be parked
Select one:

a.
upwind

b.
on the side closest to the hospital

c.
downhill

d.
downwind

Answer 20

a.
upwind

Question 21

The first practitioner on scene at a major emergency should
Select one:

a.
set up a casualty clearing station

b.
stay with the ambulance and act as communications officer

c.
immediately transport the first available patients

d.
start to triage casualties

Answer 21

b.
stay with the ambulance and act as communications officer

Question 22

In triage, a yellow coloured card represents
Select one:

a.
dead

b.
immediate

c.
delayed

d.
urgent

Answer 22

d.
urgent

Question 23

In triage, a green label indicates
Select one:

a.
urgent

b.
immediate

c.
delayed
Refer to CPG 4.8.3

d.
dead

Answer 23

c.
delayed
Refer to CPG 4.8.3

Question 24

n triage, a red label indicates
Select one:

a.
dead

b.
urgent

c.
delayed

d.
immediate

Answer 24

d.
immediate

Question 25

The collapse of the world trade centre in New York was what type of major emergency Select one: a. natural b. simple c. man-made d. compensated

Answer 25

c. man-made

Question 26

The person in charge of the health service activities at a major emergency is called the Select one: a. controller of operations b. health service manager c. ambulance incident officer d. medical incident officer

Answer 26

a. controller of operations

Question 27

During a major emergency you find a male infant who appears to be abandoned. He is conscious and has a large bruise on his left forehead, respiration rate of 26 and a capillary refill of 2 seconds. What category patient is he? Select one: a. immediate b. delayed c. dead d. urgent

Answer 27

d. urgent

Question 28

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the Gardai wear at the scene of a major emergency Select one: a. green and white b. blue and white c. blue and yellow d. red and white

Answer 28

b. blue and white

Question 29

When attending a hazardous materials incident the ambulance should be positioned Select one: a. as close to the scene as possible b. downhill and upwind c. uphill and upwind d. uphill and downwind

Answer 29

c. uphill and upwind

Question 30

The letter "E" on a hazchem code indicates Select one: a. consider evacuation b. emergency c. evacuate all rescue personnel d. reacts dangerously with water

Answer 30

a. consider evacuation

Question 31

Under the ADR hazard warning code, a truck carrying multiple chemical loads will display Select one: a. an orange plate with "multi-load" displayed b. an orange plate for each chemical c. a blank orange plate d. no hazard warning plate

Answer 31

c. a blank orange plate

Question 32

Which type of civil disorder involves several sites of disturbance Select one: a. standard disorder b. ambush c. running disorder d. riot

Answer 32

c. running disorder

Question 33

Select one: a. red b. green c. white d. Yellow

Answer 33

d. Yellow

Question 34

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the local authority wear at the scene of a major emergency Select one: a. green and white b. green and yellow c. blue and white d. red and white

Answer 34

d. red and white

Question 35

The use of the keyword 'ROGER' when using radio communications indicates Select one: a. I heard the message b. I understand the message c. I want you to repeat the message d. send the message again

Answer 35

b. I understand the message

Question 36

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the ambulance service wear at the scene of a major emergency Select one: a. red and white b. green and white c. blue and white d. green and yellow

Answer 36

b. green and white

Question 37

While triaging, a woman in her twenties is unconscious with severe facial wounds. Pulse 40, resps 0 and cap refill delayed. Her category is: Select one: a. green b. red c. white (dead) d. yellow

Answer 37

c. white (dead)

Question 38

In radio communications, VHF stands for Select one: a. very hard frequency b. virtual high frequency c. virtual home frequency d. very high frequency

Answer 38

d. very high frequency

Question 39

Over" is an example of a Select one: a. call sign b. proword c. long message d. short message

Answer 39

b. proword

Question 40

n the phonetic alphabet, the letter I is denoted by Select one: a. indigo b. india c. indian d. ireland

Answer 40

b. india

Question 41

In the phonetic alphabet, the letter Y is denoted by Select one: a. yankee b. yvonne c. yankeur d. yvette

Answer 41

a. yankee

Question 42

Radio communications over short range uses ____________ Select one: a. UHF (ultra high frequency) b. SW (shortwave) c. FM (frequency modulation) d. AM (amplitude modulation)

Answer 42

a. UHF (ultra high frequency)

Question 43

In an ASHICE message the letter C denotes Select one: a. clinical status decision b. condition c. CUPS d. cause

Answer 43

b. condition

Question 44

In an ASHICE message the letter E denotes Select one: a. emergency services required b. evacuation procedure c. emergency services present at scene d. estimated time of arrival

Answer 44

d. estimated time of arrival

Question 45

The proword that should be used before spelling a word during a radio transmission is Select one: a. speaking b. i say c. wait out d. i spell

Answer 45

d. i spell

Question 46

When at the scene of a civil disorder the ambulance should be parked Select one: a. facing out with back doors open b. facing in with back doors closed c. facing out with back doors closed d. facing in with back doors open

Answer 46

a. facing out with back doors open

Question 47

How many digits are there in a UN number Select one: a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 2

Answer 47

c. 4

Question 48

The figure "X" when displayed on a HAZCHEM label is listed as part of the Select one: a. Emergency Action Code (EAC) b. hazard warning diamond c. UN number d. specialist advice phone number

Answer 48

a. Emergency Action Code (EAC)

Question 49

On a HAZCHEM label where is the company logo located Select one: a. bottom right b. top left c. top right d. bottom left

Answer 49

a. bottom right

Question 50

What is contained on the bottom section of an ADR plate Select one: a. UN number b. emergency action code c. hazard warning label d. manufacturer contact phone number

Answer 50

a. UN number

Question 51

Who is responsible for controlling access to the outer cordon at the scene of a major emergency Select one: a. ambulance officer b. Gardai c. local authority d. fire service

Answer 51

b. Gardai

Question 52

ollowing dispatch to the scene of civil disorder, an ambulance crew should Select one: a. report to the rendevous point b. request a Garda escort c. proceed to the scene of the disorder d. refuse to attend

Answer 52

a. report to the rendevous point

Question 53

The correct calculations for weight estimation for a 2 year old patient are? Select one: a. 2 x (age + 5) b. age x 4 c. (Age x 2) + 8 d. (Age x 3) + 7

Answer 53

c. (Age x 2) + 8

Question 54

According to CPG, an infant is aged Select one: a. birth until able to walk b. 4 weeks to one year old c. birth to 4 weeks d. birth to 1 year

Answer 54

b. 4 weeks to one year old

Question 55

For a cardiac arrest how many practitioner/responders should be mobilised as a minimum Select one: a. 3 - 4 b. 6 - 8 c. 4 - 6 d. crew of 2

Answer 55

a. 3 - 4

Question 56

When a patient has a foreign body airway obstruction, but is able to cough, the EMT should Select one: a. Encourage the patient to cough b. observe the patient until complete obstruction c. give the patient a drink of water or milk d. Give 1 – 5 back blows followed by 1 – 5 abdominal thrusts

Answer 56

a. Encourage the patient to cough

Question 57

A patient who is bleeding within the skull will most likely produce which of the following sets of vital signs: Select one: a. Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate b. Rising blood pressure, rising pulse and lowering respiratory rate c. Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and rising respiratory rate d. Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and lowering respiratory rate

Answer 57

a. Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate

Question 58

According to bystanders, your unconscious female patient just fell from a second floor window. She is showing signs of severe shock. Among other things, you will want to monitor her airway and her ____ pulse Select one: a. Radial, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 110mmHg b. Femoral, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 40mmHg c. Carotid, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 120mmHg d. Carotid, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 60mmHg

Answer 58

Carotid, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 60mmHg

Question 59

The most important sign in the evaluation of a head injured patient is Select one: a. Tachypnea b. loss of consciousness c. Blood pressure d. pulse rate

Answer 59

b. loss of consciousness

Question 60

A patient with severe bleeding from a wond on their neck is best cared for using a/an Select one: a. pressure points b. haemostatic dressing c. tourniquet d. ambulance dressing

Answer 60

b. haemostatic dressing

Question 61

A condition in which there is progressive loss of elasticity of the lungs, with an over expansion of the alveoli is known as Select one: a. emphysema b. Bronchitis c. pulmonary embolism d. Asthma

Answer 61

a. emphysema

Question 62

Which of the following statements regarding damage to the spinal cord is true? Select one: a. When damaged it will cause loss of leg movement only b. all neurological effects are permanent c. the cervical region is the most frequently injured part d. The thoracic region is the most frequently injured part

Answer 62

c. the cervical region is the most frequently injured part

Question 63

The most reliable sign that your patient is being adequately ventilated by a bag-valve mask Select one: a. the patient begins breathing on their own b. the pulse rate quickens c. The patient regains consciousness d. The patient’s chest rises and falls with each ventilation delivered

Answer 63

d. The patient’s chest rises and falls with each ventilation delivered

Question 64

One cause of acute abdominal pain is an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, which is described as Select one: a. Bleeding from the stomach b. Coffee ground vomit c. An area of weakening and dilation in the wall of an artery d. Hematemesis

Answer 64

c. An area of weakening and dilation in the wall of an artery

Question 65

Agonal respirations are best defined as Select one: a. Shallow, rapid and regular breaths b. Deep, rapid, and regular breaths c. Deep, very slow, and regular breaths d. Very slow and irregular gasping breaths

Answer 65

d. Very slow and irregular gasping breaths

Question 66

Which of the following statements is true concerning the Sino Atrial (SA) Node? Select one: a. It is the principle pacemaker of the heart b. It is located below the AV node c. It fires approximately 40 – 60 times d. it only controls the ventricles

Answer 66

a. It is the principle pacemaker of the heart

Question 67

In addition to ventricular fibrillation, what other rhythm may be shocked by the AED Select one: a. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia b. Premature ventricular contractions c. Normal sinus rhythm d. Ventricular tachycardia

Answer 67

a. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Question 68

Which of the following is most likely to produce hypovolemic shock? Select one: a. Pott’s fracture b. laceration to scalp c. Spinal cord injury d. ruptured spleen

Answer 68

d. ruptured spleen

Question 69

Which one of the following factors has the greatest influence on kinetic energy? Select one: a. Increasing oscillation b. Increasing density c. Increasing mass d. Increasing velocity

Answer 69

d. Increasing velocity

Question 70

In what position might a patient with congestive heart failure be most comfortable Select one: a. upright b. trendelenburg c. Supine d. Prone

Answer 70

a. upright

Question 71

ctopic pregnancies most often occur in the Select one: a. fallopian tube b. uterus c. urethra d. vagina

Answer 71

a. fallopian tube

Question 72

Each ovary is connected to the uterus by Select one: a. Eustachian tubes b. Umbilicus c. Fallopian tubes d. Hepatic tube

Answer 72

c. Fallopian tubes

Question 73

To prevent supine hypotension, a pregnant patient with history of blood pressure problems should be transported in what position Select one: a. Fowler’s position b. Supine position c. Lying on the left side d. Prone position

Answer 73

c. Lying on the left side

Question 74

In an emergency delivery the amniotic sac has not naturally ruptured, the EMT can Select one: a. Puncture the sac with a gloved hand b. do nothing as the baby will break the sac c. Rush baby and mother to hospital immediately d. Strip the sac away when the baby is fully delivered

Answer 74

a. Puncture the sac with a gloved hand

Question 75

A pregnancy is divided into stages known as Select one: a. semesters b. months c. trimesters d. weeks

Answer 75

c. trimesters

Question 76

_________ shock is a condition caused by a reaction to a drug, bite or sting, which reduces peripheral resistance and venous return Select one: a. Cardiogenic b. Anaphylactic c. Hypovolemic d. Septic

Answer 76

b. Anaphylactic

Question 77

Meconium staining, a sign of foetal distress, is a result of Select one: a. Post-partum haemorrhage b. foetal defecation c. vaginal bleeding d. Mucus from the foetus’s mouth and nose

Answer 77

b. foetal defecation

Question 78

A significant difference between paediatric and adult patients is the Select one: a. Hydration levels b. head size c. number of ribs in the ribcage d. response to pain

Answer 78

b. head size

Question 79

The most appropriate emergency care for a 3 year old male patient suffering severe respiratory distress should include Select one: a. oxygen delivered by nasal cannula b. oxygen delivered via non-rebreather mask c. Assisted ventilations with supplement oxygen at 4 LPM d. Oxygen by the blow by method

Answer 79

b. oxygen delivered via non-rebreather mask

Question 80

Which of the following is a very common cause of seizures in children aged between 6 months and 5 years old? Select one: a. Accidental poisoning b. flashing lights c. Accidental head injury d. sudden rise in temperature

Answer 80

d. sudden rise in temperature

Question 81

When examining the fontanelles of an infant, a normal state would be Select one: a. Smooth and level b. Slightly bulging c. 2 – 3 inches below the cranial surface d. Slightly sunken

Answer 81

c. 2 – 3 inches below the cranial surface

Question 82

In PHECC guidelines, a paediatric patient is aged Select one: a. <16 years old b. <10 years old c. <1 year old d. <8 years old

Answer 82

a. <16 years old

Question 83

Paediatric defibrillation pads should be used for patients under ___ years of age Select one: a. 16 b. 12 c. 8 d. 10

Answer 83

c. 8

Question 84

The more serious causes of abdominal pain are the internal bleeding, peptic ulcer, diverticulitis, abdominal aneurysm, kidney stones and _________ Select one: a. Flatulence b. Menstrual pains c. Abdominal cramps d. Ectopic pregnancy

Answer 84

d. Ectopic pregnancy

Question 85

In PHECC standards, the paediatric weight estimation of a one to five year old is Select one: a. Age x 2 + 8kg b. Age x 3 + 9kg c. Age x 3 +8kg d. Age x 3 +7kg

Answer 85

a. Age x 2 + 8kg

Question 86

The paediatric weight estimation of a neonate is Select one: a. 6kg b. 3.5Kg c. 5kg d. 10kg

Answer 86

b. 3.5Kg

Question 87

For a paediatric patient, what percentage of the body surface area is given to the head Select one: a. 1% b. 18% c. 14.5% d. 9%

Answer 87

b. 18%

Question 88

Moderate asthma in a child <5 yrs old should be treated with ____ by the EMT Select one: a. Salbutamol 5mg NEB b. Salbutamol 2.5mg NEB c. Oxygen only d. Chlorphenamine 4mg PO

Answer 88

b. Salbutamol 2.5mg NEB

Question 89

The term “haematuria” relates to Select one: a. Blood in the vomit b. Blood from the nose c. Blood in the stool d. Blood in the urine

Answer 89

d. Blood in the urine

Question 90

You are called to the house of a responsive 65 year old man who complains of sudden chest pain whilst watching television. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 156/92 and respirations 18 and laboured. He looks very pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following medication/s is/are indicated for this patient? Select one: a. GTN only b. Aspirin and salbutamol c. Aspirin only d. Aspirin and GTN

Answer 90

d. Aspirin and GTN

Question 91

A nasal cannula at the proper setting on the flow regulator (1 - 6 litres per minute), can deliver a minimum and maximum oxygen concentration of Select one: a. 24 - 44% b. 24 - 40% c. 28 - 44% d. 24 - 48%

Answer 91

a. 24 - 44%

Question 92

You are assessing a patient with ACS when they suddenly collapse to the floor. The patient is unresponsive, not breathing and has no pulse. The first action you carry out is Select one: a. Provide two ventilations b. Insert an OPA c. Attach defibrillation pads d. Start chest compressions

Answer 92

c. Attach defibrillation pads

Question 93

There are three main causes of fainting (syncope), one is postural, second is emotional stress and the third is _______ Select one: a. Hyperglycaemia b. Respiratory in origin c. Hypertension d. Cardiac in origin

Answer 93

d. Cardiac in origin

Question 94

Burns to the face/hands, feet, flexion points and ______ are all serious Select one: a. Peritoneum b. Periapical c. Periosteum d. Perineum

Answer 94

d. Perineum

Question 95

When dealing with a patient with Epistaxis, digital pressure should be applied for? Select one: a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 20 minutes

Answer 95

c. 15 minutes

Question 96

Regular contraction, bloody show and rupture of the membranes are all indications of what stage of labour Select one: a. Fourth stage b. Third stage c. Second stage d. First stage

Answer 96

d. First stage

Question 97

Of the problems listed below, which should the EMT consider first when treating a patient with severe facial injuries Select one: a. The patient may have brain damage b. Airway compromise c. The patient may have a fractured skull d. The lower jaw may also be fractured which will cause extreme pain

Answer 97

b. Airway compromise

Question 98

When using the “palmar rule” to estimate the size of a burn, you assess the burn using _______ hand which is equal to ____ % skin surface Select one: a. your own - 9% b. the patient's – 1% c. Your own – 1% d. An average adult's - 9%

Answer 98

b. the patient's – 1%

Question 99

Under certain circumstances, an impaled object may be removed if it is located in the Select one: a. Skull b. Abdomen c. Cheek d. Chest

Answer 99

c. Cheek

Question 100

When completing a PCR you make a mistake recording the time, you should Select one: a. start a new PCR b. Use correction fluid and inform the receiving nurse when you get to the hospital c. Cross through the mistake, and write correct time d. Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time

Answer 100

d. Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time